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EXAM200-301

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

a)

internal BGP route

b)

 /24 route of a locally configured IP

c)

statically assigned route

d)

. route learned through EIGRP

2.

Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?

a)

multicast

b)

unique local

c)

link-local

d)

global unicast

3.

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

a)

forwarding

b)

 listening

c)

standby

d)

 backup

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

a)

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

b)

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

c)

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

d)

The frame is dropped

5.

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? ( Choose two.)

a)

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

b)

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

c)

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

d)

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

e)

when the cable length limits are exceeded

6.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

a)

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

b)

This is a root bridge

c)

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

d)

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

e)

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

a)

192.168.1.17

b)

192.168.1.61

c)

192.168.1.64

d)

192.168.1.127

e)

192.168.1.254

8.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

a)

Internet Group Management Protocol

b)

Cisco Discovery Protocol

c)

Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

d)

Neighbor Discovery Protocol

10.

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

a)

 It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

b)

 It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address

c)

. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

d)

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost

11.

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

12

d)

18

12.

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.)

a)

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

b)

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

c)

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

d)

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

e)

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

13.

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

a)

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

b)

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

c)

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

d)

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

14.

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

a)

IS-IS

b)

Internal EIGRP

c)

RIP

d)

OSPF

15.

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

a)

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.

b)

. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.

c)

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

d)

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

16.

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

a)

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

b)

transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

c)

transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

d)

transfers files between file systems on a router

17.

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two are reasons for the interface conditions? (choose two)

a)

There is a duplex mismatch

b)

There is a speed mismatch

c)

There is a protocol mismatch

d)

The interface is shut down

e)

The interface is error-disabled

18.

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

a)

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

b)

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses.

c)

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically.

d)

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

a)

84

b)

110

c)

128

d)

193

20.

Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IPaddresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

a)

Layer 2 switch

b)

Router

c)

Load balancer

d)

firewall

21.

Refer to Exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

a)

Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 209.165.201.2 0.0.0.0

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi 1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config-if)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi 1/0/0

Router1(config-if)#ip nat outside

b)

Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.255

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi 1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config-if)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi 1/0/0

Router1(config-if)#ip nat outside

c)

Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.0 0.0.0.255

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi 1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config-if)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi 1/0/0

Router1(config-if)#ip nat outside

d)

Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.31

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi 1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config-if)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi 1/0/0

Router1(config-if)#ip nat outside

22.

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

a)

WPA2 + AES

b)

WPA + AES

c)

WEP

d)

WPA + TKIP

23.

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two)

a)

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

b)

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

c)

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

d)

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

e)

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

24.

What does physical access control regulate?

a)

access to spec fie networks based on business function

b)

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

c)

access :o computer networks and file systems

d)

access to networking equipment and facilities

25.

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

a)

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

b)

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

c)

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

d)

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

26.

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

a)

0050.0c05.ad81

b)

0007.c061.bc01

c)

0000.5E00.0101

d)

0500.3976.6401

27.

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

a)

traffic policing

b)

round-robin scheduling

c)

expedited forwarding

d)

low-latency queuing

28.

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

a)

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

b)

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

c)

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

d)

ensures a loop-free physical topology

29.

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

a)

using a non-default native VLAN

b)

Dynamic ARP Inspection

c)

DHCP snooping

d)

802.1x

30.

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

a)

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

b)

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

c)

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

d)

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

31.

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?

a)

runt

b)

collision

c)

late collision

d)

CRC

32.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

a)

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

b)

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

c)

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

d)

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

33.

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

a)

enforcing routing policies

b)

marking interesting traffic for data policies

c)

applying security policies

d)

attaching users to the edge of the network

34.

Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?

a)

A point-to-point network type is configured.

b)

The interface is not participating in OSPF.

c)

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.

d)

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface.

35.

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

a)

2000::/3

b)

FC00::/7

c)

FE80::/10

d)

FF00::/8

36.

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

a)

explicitly assign a link-local address

b)

disable the EUI-64 bit process

c)

enable SLAAC on an interface

d)

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

37.

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

a)

enable dynamic MAC address learning

b)

implement static MAC addressing

c)

enable sticky MAC addressing

d)

implement auto MAC address learning

38.

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

a)

It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric.

b)

It uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router.

c)

It counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric.

d)

It uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric.

39.

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

a)

ISATAP

b)

IPsec over ISATAP

c)

GRE

d)

GRE over IPsec

40.

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

a)

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

b)

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

c)

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

d)

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

41.

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

a)

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point

b)

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

c)

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

d)

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

42.

An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

a)

configure DSCP

b)

configure IEEE 802.1q

c)

configure ISL

d)

configure IEEE 802.1p

43.

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

a)

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

b)

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

c)

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

d)

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

44.

How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

a)

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active".

b)

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

c)

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

d)

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

45.

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two.)

a)

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network.

b)

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

c)

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network.

d)

It requires that some servers, virtual machines, and network gear reside on the Internet.

e)

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic.

46.

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two.)

a)

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

b)

to support load balancing via static routing

c)

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

d)

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

e)

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

47.

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

a)

a DHCP Relay Agent

b)

DHCP Binding

c)

a DHCP Pool

d)

DHCP Snooping

48.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

a)

access-list 100 deny top host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

b)

access-list 100 deny top host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any

line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in

c)

access-list 100 deny top host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any

interface Gigabit Ethernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

d)

access-list 100 deny top host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any

line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in

49.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to theGigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?

a)

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity.

b)

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

c)

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connectivity.

d)

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

50.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

a)

passive

b)

mode on

c)

auto

d)

active

51.

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. What is the reason for the problem?

a)

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched

b)

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured

c)

Router2 is using the default hello timer

d)

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched

52.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

a)

Loopback 0

b)

10.0.1.4

c)

10.0.1.3

d)

10.0.1.50

53.

Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended.Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.)

a)

Add a ג€permit ip any anyג€ statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

b)

Add a ג€permit ip any anyג€ statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

c)

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.

d)

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.

e)

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.

54.

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

a)

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

b)

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

c)

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

d)

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

55.

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

a)

active

b)

on

c)

auto

d)

desirable

56.

Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

a)

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

b)

It load-balances traffic between all three routes.

c)

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

d)

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

57.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

a)

static

b)

OSPF

c)

eBGP

d)

EIGRP

58.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

a)

floating static route

b)

host route

c)

default route

d)

network route

59.

What is a benefit of VRRP?

a)

.It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

b)

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

c)

It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

d)

It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

60.

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

a)

overlay

b)

northbound

c)

underlay

d)

southbound

61.

A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode.The date must be set to January 1,2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am.what command should be used?

a)

clock timezone

b)

clock summer-time date

c)

clock set

d)

clock summer-time recurring

62.

Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic?

a)

209.165.200.0/27

b)

0.0.0.0/0

c)

10.10.13.0/24

d)

10.10.10.0/28

63.

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

a)

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

b)

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

c)

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path.

d)

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

64.

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

a)

enable Band Select

b)

enable DTIM

c)

enable RX-SOP

d)

enable AAA override

65.

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a user's password? (Choose two.)

a)

It encourages users to create stronger passwords

b)

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access

c)

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

d)

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user

e)

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site

66.

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

a)

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

b)

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

c)

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

d)

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

67.

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

a)

action

b)

management

c)

control

d)

data

68.

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

.✑ Floor 1 has 24 users.✑ Floor 2 has 29 users.✑ Floor 3 has 28 users.✑ Floor 4 has 22 users.

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

a)

192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

b)

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

c)

192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

d)

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

69.

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

a)

as-path

b)

administrative distance

c)

metric

d)

cost

70.

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

a)

Device(Config)#lldp run

b)

Device(Config)#cdp run

c)

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

d)

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topologyDevice(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

71.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

a)

interface gigabitethernet 1/1

Switchport mode access Switchport access vlan 8

!

Intterface gigabitethernet 1/3 Switchport mode access Switchport voice vlan 8 Switchport access vlan 9

b)

interface gigabitethernet 1/1

Switchport mode access Switchport access vlan 9

!

Intterface gigabitethernet 1/3

Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk vlan 8 Switchport trunk vlan 9

c)

interface gigabitethernet 1/1

Switchport mode access Switchport access vlan 8

!

Intterface gigabitethernet 1/3

Switchport mode access Switchport access vlan 8 Switchport voice vlan 9

d)

interface gigabitethernet 1/1

Switchport mode access Switchport access vlan 8

!

Intterface gigabitethernet 1/3

Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk vlan 8 Switchport voice vlan 9

72.

Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

a)

192.168.14.4

b)

192.168.12.2

c)

192.168.13.3

d)

192.168.15.5

73.

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

a)

hub-and-spoke

b)

point-to-point

c)

full mesh

d)

partial mesh

74.

what is the function of controller-based networking ?

a)

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

b)

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

c)

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

d)

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture

75.

Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table ?

a)

Netstat -n

b)

IPCONFIG

c)

IfCONFIG

d)

Netstat -r

76.

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

a)

Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

b)

Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

c)

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured network

d)

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

77.

which two primary drivers support the need for network Automation ?

(choose two )

a)

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

b)

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

c)

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

d)

Eliminating training needs

e)

Reducing hardware footprint

78.

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

a)

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

b)

broadcast to all ports

c)

forwarded to the first available port

d)

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

79.

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

a)

200

b)

404

c)

500

d)

301

80.

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated ?

a)

enable dynamic ARP inspection.

b)

activate all ports and place in default VLAN

c)

configure extended VLANs

d)

Manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

81.

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

a)

reducing bandwidth usage

b)

by reducing packet loss

c)

by differentiating voice and video traffic

d)

by increasing jitter

82.

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined ?

a)

support the NAT protocol

b)

reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

c)

preserve public IPv6 address space

d)

conserve public IPv4 addressing

83.

which occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch ?

a)

Root port choice and spanning-tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

b)

After spanning-tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

c)

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

d)

Spanning-tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.

84.

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

a)

Firewall

b)

Layer 2 switch

c)

load balancer

d)

LAN controller

85.

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

a)

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

b)

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company’s internal network

c)

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

d)

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

86.

Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

a)

Router2

b)

Router3

c)

Router4

d)

Router5

87.

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (choose two )

a)

SGML

b)

YAML

c)

XML

d)

JSON

e)

EBCDIC

88.

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management ?

a)

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

b)

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

c)

It enables easy auto discovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

d)

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance

89.

A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attched PC. which action is taken by the phone ?

a)

It drops the traffic.

b)

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.

c)

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.

d)

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.

90.

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

a)

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

b)

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

c)

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

d)

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

91.

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers. A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

a)

nonbroadcast

b)

point-to-point

c)

point-to-multipoint

d)

broadcast

92.

Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)

a)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto

b)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on

c)

interface port-channel 10

no switchport

ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0

d)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode active

e)

interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk

93.

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

a)

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

b)

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

c)

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

d)

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

94.

Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.)

a)

. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

b)

Configure the ipvô route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

c)

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

d)

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

e)

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

95.

Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

a)

router

b)

DHCP client

c)

PC

d)

access point

96.

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two.)

a)

Enable NTP authentication.

b)

Verify the time zone.

c)

Specify the IP address of the NTP server.

d)

Set the NTP server private key.

e)

Disable NTP broadcasts.

97.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

a)

interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access

switchport access vlan 300

switchport voice vlan 400

b)

interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk vlan 300

switchport trunk vlan 400

c)

interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access

switchport voice vlan 300

switchport access vlan 400

d)

interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk vlan 300

switchport voice vlan 400

98.

What is the effect of this configuration?

a)

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

b)

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

c)

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

d)

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

99.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

a)

. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

b)

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

c)

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

d)

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

100.

What are two benefites of network automation? (choose two )

a)

. reduced operational costs

b)

reduced hardware footprint

c)

faster changes with more reliable results

d)

fewer network failures

e)

increased network security

101.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

a)

ip access-list standard 99

permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255

deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255

b)

ip access-list standard 199

permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255

deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

c)

ip access-list standard 99

permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255

deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

d)

ip access-list standard 199

permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255

deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255

102.

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

a)

cookbook

b)

task

c)

playbook

d)

model

e)

recipe

103.

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

a)

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

b)

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

c)

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

d)

physical workstations are configured to share resources

104.

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

a)

alert

b)

critical

c)

notice

d)

debug

105.

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

a)

2-way

b)

Full

c)

Exchange

d)

lint

106.

Which two conditions must be met before SSH operates normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two.)

a)

IP routing must be enabled on the switch.

b)

A console password must be configured on the switch.

c)

Telnet must be disabled on the switch.

d)

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image.

e)

The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.

107.

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

a)

switch#lldp port-description

b)

switch(config)#lldp port-description

c)

switch(config-line)#lldp port-description

d)

switch(config-if)#lldp port-description

108.

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

a)

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

b)

FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC

c)

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

d)

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

109.

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

a)

switchport port-security violation access

b)

switchport port-security violation protect

c)

switchport port-security violation restrict

d)

switchport port-security violation shutdown

110.

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

a)

switchport mode trunk

b)

switchport mode dynamic desirable

c)

switchport nonegotiate

d)

switchport mode dynamic auto

111.

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

a)

certificate has expired

b)

An interface line has changed status

c)

A TCP connection has been torn down

d)

An ICMP connection has been built

112.

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

a)

R1#Config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route default-route 192.168.1.1

b)

R1#Config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

c)

R1#Config t

R1(config)#ip routing

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

d)

R1#Config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

113.

What is the primary difference between AAA authentication and authorization?

a)

. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

b)

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access, and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.

c)

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

d)

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the userג€™s password.

114.

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

a)

10.10.1.10

b)

10.10.10.20

c)

172.16.15.10

d)

192.168.0.1

115.

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.)

a)

QoS settings

b)

IP address of one or more access points

c)

SSID

d)

profile name

e)

management interface settings

116.

Refer to the exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

a)

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its trunk ports.

b)

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

c)

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports.

d)

It Towards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

117.

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?

a)

point-to-multipoint

b)

point-to-point

c)

broadcast

d)

nonbroadcast

118.

Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

a)

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

b)

Interface errors are incrementing

c)

High usage is causing high latency

d)

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

119.

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

a)

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.

b)

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.

c)

It moves the control plane to a central point.

d)

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

e)

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

120.

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

a)

TKiP encryption

b)

AES encryption

c)

scrambled encryption key

d)

SAE encryption

121.

Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lot interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

a)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

b)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5

c)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

d)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5

e)

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

122.

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?

a)

link-local

b)

unique local

c)

multicast

d)

global unicast

123.

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

a)

TACACS

b)

CPU ACL

c)

Flex ACL

d)

RADIUS

124.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

a)

ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/0

b)

ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/1

c)

ipv6 route:0/0 Serial 0/0/0

d)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

e)

ipv6 route::/0 2000::2

125.

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

a)

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

b)

route with the lowest cost

c)

route with the lowest administrative distance

d)

route with the shortest prefix length

126.

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

a)

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

b)

disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices

c)

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

d)

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

127.

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

a)

Ansible

b)

JSON

c)

Chef

d)

Puppet

128.

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via BGP. and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

a)

the path through R3, because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than the OSPF and BGP administrative distances

b)

the path through R2, because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

c)

the path through R1, because the OSPF administrate distance is 110

d)

the path through R2, because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

129.

Which protocol uses the SSL?

a)

HTTP

b)

Talent

c)

SSH

d)

HTTPS

130.

Which device permits or denies network traffic based on a set of rules?

a)

wireless controller

b)

switch

c)

firewall

d)

access point

131.

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

a)

Switch(config)# spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

b)

Switch(config)# spanning-tree portfast default

c)

Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast trunk

d)

Switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

132.

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

a)

FTP

b)

SMTP

c)

DTP

d)

TFTP

133.

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)

a)

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.

b)

The two routers share the same interface IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.

c)

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding.

d)

Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them.

e)

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

134.

Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1.Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

a)

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

b)

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

c)

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

d)

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

135.

Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

a)

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

b)

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

c)

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

d)

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

136.

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168.1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

a)

configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides

b)

configure both interfaces with the same area ID

c)

configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides

d)

configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

e)

configure the same router ID on both routing processes

137.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

a)

modify hello interval

b)

modify process ID

c)

modify priority

d)

modify network type

138.

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

a)

HTTP

b)

HTTPS

c)

TACACS+

d)

RADIUS

139.

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

a)

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

b)

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

c)

switchport mode trunk

d)

switchport trunk native vlan 10

140.

Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

a)

If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.

b)

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated.

c)

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.

d)

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.

141.

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

a)

It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

b)

It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different channels.

c)

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

d)

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.

142.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server.Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

a)

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

b)

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

c)

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

d)

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

143.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct, which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two.)

a)

R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

b)

R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

c)

R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp R1(config-if)# no shutdown

d)

R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

e)

R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

144.

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

a)

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

b)

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

c)

to pass traffic between different networks

d)

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

145.

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the other is an EIGRP neighbor.What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

a)

20

b)

90

c)

110

d)

115

146.

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

a)

sniffer

b)

mesh

c)

flexconnect

d)

local

147.

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute-value pairs?

a)

string

b)

array

c)

Boolean

d)

object

148.

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

a)

read

b)

update

c)

replace

d)

create

149.

Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at SiteB cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet.Which action corrects the configuration issue?

a)

Add the default-information originate command on R2.

b)

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1.

c)

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.

d)

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2.

150.

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

a)

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

b)

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

c)

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

d)

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1