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Pharm Final Fall21

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

People taking antimicrobial drugs should be instructed to report any problem that could indicate adverse drug effects, lack of therapeutic response, or emergence of another infection. One such problem is:

a)

skin rash.

b)

headache.

c)

constipation.

d)

muscle soreness.

2.

A female client calls the pediatrician’s office because her child reports a sore throat. The nurse anticipates the pediatrician will take what action?

a)

Order an antibiotic.

b)

Order an antitussive.

c)

Request a list of drug allergies.

d)

Request a throat culture.

3.

What occurs when the normal flora is destroyed by the use of anti-infectives?

a)

neurotoxicity

b)

hypersensitivity

c)

superinfection

d)

resistance

4.

Bacitracin (Baciguent) interferes with the cell wall synthesis of which type of bacteria?

a)

Proteus

b)

Streptococcal

c)

Staphylococcal

d)

Pseudomonas

5.

What intervention is most important for the nurse to perform before antibiotic therapy is initiated?

a)

increasing the client’s fluid intake

b)

educating the client about adverse effects

c)

administer an antidiarrheal to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) upset

d)

obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity

6.

A client has been diagnosed with an infection. The nurse can help to ensure the success of anti-infective treatment by:

a)

confirming that the medication prescribed is the drug of choice for the specific microorganism.

b)

teaching the client that significant adverse effects are expected, and must be endured during treatment.

c)

administering antihistamines, as ordered, to prevent the development of adverse effects.

d)

monitoring the client closely for signs of arrhythmias or cardiac ischemia.

7.

Like many other classes of drugs, anti-infective drugs can have a variety of adverse effects. What is the most common, potentially serious, adverse effect of antimicrobial drugs?

a)

Skin rash

b)

Pain

c)

Constipation

d)

Toxic effects on the kidney

8.

A client with acne has been receiving an anti-infective agent for a prolonged period. Initially, the drug was effective, but over time its effectiveness as decreased. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Educate the client about the phenomenon of drug tolerance.

b)

Refer the client to the health care provider because the client may be experiencing resistance.

c)

Assess the client for additional signs of superinfection.

d)

Assess the client for a new onset of drug hypersensitivity.

9.

A client is to undergo extensive dental surgery. The dentist prescribes a course of antibiotics before beginning the procedure and continuing for 5 days after the procedure. This is an example of:

a)

chemotherapy.

b)

curative treatment.

c)

prophylaxis.

d)

synergism.

10.

When caring for infants and the elderly who are in need of an antimicrobial agent, the nurse is aware that when compared with doses for young and middle-aged adults, these clients may require:

a)

a higher dose.

b)

the same dose.

c)

the same dose but less frequent.

d)

a lower dose.

11.

A client is to be started on an antibiotic. Which is most important to take into consideration before beginning the antibiotic regimen?

a)

Duration of symptoms

b)

Culture and susceptibility

c)

Client's hydration status

d)

Client's age and weight

12.

Bacitracin (Baciguent) interferes with the cell wall synthesis of which type of bacteria?

a)

Proteus

b)

Streptococcal

c)

Staphylococcal

d)

Pseudomonas

13.

What information about antibiotic therapy should the nurse include in a client’s medication education?

a)

Bacteria can remain in the body for 48 to 72 hours after the completion of antibiotic therapy.

b)

Maintenance of normal bacterial flora is essential to health during the therapy.

c)

The healthy human body hosts dozens of minor infections at any given time.

d)

An aseptic internal environment only exists in young adults.

14.

A nurse is caring for a client who is hospitalized for pneumonia. The nurse reviews the electronic health record and evaluates that the microbiology data does not support the use of the broad spectrum antibiotic. Which statement is the nurse’s best response to the provider about the results?

a)

“I think you need to review the microbiology report for the client.”

b)

“I have reviewed the client’s record and the client does not want the antibiotic.”

c)

“The microbiology data is identifying another antibiotic appropriate for the client.”

d)

“The charge nurse prefers that you call her about the antibiotic coverage for the client.”

15.

A medical nurse on a night shift is reviewing a client's medication administration record for the following day. The nurse notes that a combination antimicrobial drug is prescribed. What is implied by the fact that the client has been prescribed a combination drug?

a)

The client likely has a history of recurrent, multisystemic infections.

b)

The client may have an infection caused by multiple microorganisms.

c)

The client's infection likely has a fungal or protozoal etiology.

d)

The client may be unable to tolerate treatment with a single antimicrobial.

16.

Although the numbers and virulence of microorganisms help determine whether a person acquires an infection, another major factor is:

a)

the number of effective drugs available for serious or antibiotic-resistant infections.

b)

continuous antimicrobial treatment of infections.

c)

the host's ability to defend itself against the would-be invaders.

d)

infections that tend to recur and involve simple organisms.

17.

A client is febrile and is suspected of having a respiratory infection. A sputum culture has been collected and the results of sensitivity testing are expected within 48 hours. The nurse should anticipate that the client may:

a)

need to provide a follow-up sputum culture before medications can be prescribed.

b)

be treated with antiviral medication on a short-term basis.

c)

receive supportive care until an antibiotic can be prescribed in 48 hours.

d)

be immediately prescribed a broad-spectrum antibiotic.

18.

Culture and susceptibility tests are performed prior to the prescription of antimicrobial drugs. What is the specific purpose of the culture test?

a)

predicts the body's response to the infection

b)

identifies the drugs that might be effective in treatment

c)

Identifies the organism causing the infection

d)

determines the severity of the infection

19.

To ensure that the most appropriate drug is being used to treat a pathogen, which would need to be done first?

a)

Evaluating the bactericidal effects

b)

Checking client allergies

c)

Using combination therapy

d)

Obtaining sensitivity testing

20.

What is a major factor that influences whether an individual will acquire an infection?

a)

The person’s ability to defend against invading microorganisms

b)

the number of effective drugs available to an antibiotic-resistant infections

c)

implementation of continuous antimicrobial treatment of the infection

d)

the infection’s tendency to recur and involve simple organisms

21.

A client comes to the clinic reporting mouth sores that appear consistent with an oral yeast infection. The nurse should question the client about recent use of:

a)

antivirals.

b)

oral contraceptive agents.

c)

antibiotics.

d)

antiprotozoals.

22.

The pharmacology instructor is discussing ways to decrease the incidence and severity of adverse effects among children taking anti-infective agents. What would the instructor mention is one way to do this in children?

a)

Decrease dietary potassium.

b)

Keep clients well hydrated.

c)

Assess liver function weekly.

d)

Increase sodium in diet.

23.

A group of nursing students are learning about the factors that underlie recent increases in the incidence and prevalence of antibiotic-resistant microorganisms. What factor is known to contribute to antibiotic resistance?

a)

Increased survival rates from acute infections

b)

Increased population density

c)

Use of antibiotics that are ineffective against the infectious microorganism

d)

Overuse of antibiotics

24.

A client is admitted to the unit. The nurse knows that the client is at high risk for infection. What factors predispose the client to infection? (Mark all that apply.)

a)

Impaired blood supply

b)

Suppression of immune system

c)

Advanced age

d)

Decreased amylase levels

e)

Hypertension

25.

A patient is to begin taking tobramycin (Nebcin) for a nosocomial infection. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

a)

The patient's blood pressure

b)

The patient's ideal body weight

c)

The peak and trough blood levels

d)

Other patient medications

26.

The nurse is caring for a 23-year-old female client who uses oral contraceptives and has been prescribed ampicillin for treatment of a respiratory infection. What information is most important for the nurse to share with this client?

a)

Use a type of barrier birth control while you are taking this antibiotic.

b)

Do not take your oral contraceptives while you are taking this medication.

c)

Your menstrual cycle will have a heavier flow while on this medication.

d)

Taking this antibiotic with your oral contraceptives will cause an increased chance of bleeding.

27.

When administering aminoglycosides, the nurse must be aware of which of the following adverse reactions?

a)

Liver necrosis, or hepatic failure

b)

Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

c)

Glaucoma and renal failure

d)

Hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia

28.

A public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what STI?

a)

Vaginitis

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Human papillomavirus

d)

Trichomoniasis

29.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a serious infection. The patient is being treated with combination therapy of a cefazolin and an aminoglycoside. The nurse will be sure to monitor which of the following?

a)

Aspartate aminotransferase levels

b)

Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

c)

Serum BUN and creatinine levels

d)

Serum sodium and potassium levels

30.

What is the rationale for not administering tetracycline to children under the age of 8 years?

a)

It will increase the risk for future infections.

b)

It will interfere with enamel development.

c)

It will increase the risk of heart failure.

d)

It will not treat the infection effectively.

31.

After teaching a group of students about aminoglycosides, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which drug as the prototype for this class?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Kanamycin

c)

Tobramycin

d)

Neomycin

32.

The nurse is aware that sulfonamide therapy is used cautiously in older adults because of decreased function of what organ system?

a)

Splenic

b)

Hepatic

c)

Renal

d)

Pancreatic

33.

A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection. The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause

a)

orange-tinged urine.

b)

staining of permanent teeth.

c)

sleep deprivation.

d)

deep muscle pain.

34.

A female client is diagnosed with hepatitis C as well as a urinary tract infection. The organism is sensitive to tetracycline. Why is the health care provider reluctant to order tetracycline in a client with hepatic impairment?

a)

It slows drug elimination.

b)

It increases drug elimination.

c)

It causes intermittent drug elimination.

d)

It eliminates absorption of the medication.

35.

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient's history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

a)

alcohol.

b)

grapefruit juice.

c)

food containing iron or calcium.

d)

nicotine.

36.

The nurse is preparing to administer amikacin to a client with a complicated Staphylococcus aureus infection. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Renal function

b)

Gastrointestinal function

c)

Nutritional status

d)

Muscle strength

37.

A patient has been prescribed a tetracycline drug for Rocky Mountain spotted fever. The patient also takes antacids. Which of the following effects is likely to occur due to an interaction between the two drugs?

a)

Increased risk of bleeding

b)

Increased action of neuromuscular-blocking drugs

c)

Increased profound respiratory depression

d)

Decreased absorption of tetracycline

38.

After teaching a group of nursing students about the different classes of drugs, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify drugs that slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria as which types of medication?

a)

bacteriostatic

b)

bactericidal

c)

bacteriostationary

d)

bacteriophage

39.

The health care provider considers prescribing an oral tetracycline for a client suspected of having a urinary tract infection. What action needs to be completed before the medication can be prescribed?

a)

The client should be assessed for penicillin allergy to rule out cross-allergenicity.

b)

The health care provider should order culture and susceptibility studies.

c)

The client should be warned of the risk for fever.

d)

The client should be taught how to store the medication appropriately.

40.

A nurse monitoring a client taking penicillin should be aware of the common GI tract adverse reactions, including which of the following? Select all that apply.

a)

Glossitis

b)

Stomatitis

c)

Esophagitis

d)

Diarrhea

e)

Gastritis

41.

A nurse is preparing a presentation to a local community group about biological weapons. The nurse would identify which disease as lacking an available vaccine?

a)

Anthrax

b)

Plague

c)

Smallpox

d)

Botulism

42.

A client has received a rubella immunization. The client was unaware that she was pregnant. What risk is associated with the administration of the rubella immunization in this client?

a)

Risk of low birth weight infant

b)

Risk of development of the disease in the newborn

c)

Risk of preterm labor

d)

Risk of birth defects

43.

A clinic nurse is administering vaccines at well-baby check-ups. The nurse knows that before administering a DTP vaccine, the nurse should check what vital sign?

a)

Respirations

b)

Temperature

c)

Pulse

d)

Blood pressure

44.

A client develops fever and arthralgia 4 days after the administration of tetanus toxoid. What reaction to the vaccine is this?

a)

Serum sickness

b)

Infectious process

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Distress syndrome

45.

A nurse should screen clients of child-bearing age for pregnancy as the administration of which vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Influenza

b)

Varicella

c)

Mumps

d)

Rubella

e)

Measles

46.

A client who was bitten by a pit viper is to receive antivenin. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Establish IV access

b)

Obtain a 1 mL syringe

c)

Obtain a 3 mL syringe

d)

Assess the client’s oral mucosa

47.

A nurse is administering a mumps vaccine to an adolescent. Which medication should be available when administering an immunization?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Hydroxyzine

c)

Physostigmine

d)

Epinephrine

48.

The school nurse is participating in a program to immunize students against human papillomavirus (HPV). What benefit should the nurse describe to students and their families?

a)

Reduced risk for cervical cancer

b)

Protection against several viral sexually transmitted infections

c)

Reduced risk for polycystic ovary syndrome

d)

Reduced risk for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

49.

The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant prior to scheduled immunizations. What finding would the nurse immediately recognize as a reason to reschedule administration?

a)

low-grade fever

b)

current history of feeding poorly

c)

current history of loose stools

d)

demonstrating fussiness and crying

50.

A group of students are role-playing scenarios involving biological weapon exposure. Which medication would the students identify as using for a client with cutaneous anthrax?

a)

Ribavirin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Streptomycin

d)

Gentamicin

51.

When providing client teaching to parents regarding measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine administration, which is most important regarding the schedule for administration?

a)

It is administered at 12 to 15 months.

b)

It is administered at 5 to 6 months.

c)

It is administered at 1 to 2 months.

d)

It is administered at 3 to 4 months.

52.

The nurse is providing wellness information to a 50-year-old client who is employed as a paramedic. The client asks what, if any, vaccines the client should get. What is the nurse’s best response?

a)

Tetanus and pertussis

b)

Shingles

c)

Hepatitis B once and influenza vaccine annually

d)

Tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis; hepatitis B vaccine once; influenza vaccine annually

53.

Which is an example of artificially acquired active immunity? (Select all that apply.)

a)

An individual who is exposed to chickenpox for the first time and has no immunity to the disease.

b)

Administration of the varicella vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease.

c)

An individual who is exposed to pertussis for the first time and has no immunity to the disease.

d)

Administration of the influenza vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease.

e)

Administration of the rubella vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease.

54.

The administration of immunizations to a client is a form of what type of immunity?

a)

Attenuated active immunity

b)

Naturally active immunity

c)

Artificial active immunity

55.

A client tells the nurse that she has taken several doses of over-the-counter fluconazole to treat a "yeast infection." When assessing the client's risk for drug toxicity, what aspect of the client's health status should the nurse prioritize?

a)

The client has decreased renal function following recent pyelonephritis

b)

The client has type 2 diabetes and takes oral hypoglycemics

c)

The client has lost over 30 lbs. in the past four months through diet and exercise

d)

The client experienced a transfusion reaction to packed red blood cells several years ago

56.

Amphotericin B is given by which route?

a)

IV

b)

IM

c)

PO

d)

SQ

57.

Caspofungin has been prescribed for a client diagnosed with invasive aspergillosis. The nurse should teach the client to promptly report what symptom associated with an adverse reaction?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Cardiac distress

d)

Muscle pain

58.

An adult client, recently diagnosed with a tinea infection, has begun treatment with griseofulvin. During a scheduled clinic visit, the client states to the nurse, “I'm pretty good at reading my body's signals, so I make sure to take a bit extra when I think my infection is getting worse.” This client's statement is suggestive of what nursing diagnosis?

a)

deficient knowledge related to correct use of griseofulvin

b)

effective therapeutic regimen management related to symptom identification

c)

ineffective coping related to self-medication

59.

The client is receiving ketoconazole. The nurse should be concerned about a drug–drug interaction on the basis of what other comorbidity?

a)

Type 2 diabetes

b)

Chronic pain

c)

Venous ulcers

d)

Penicillin allergy

60.

The azole antifungals are contraindicated in clients with what condition?

a)

Increased liver enzymes

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

HIV

61.

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to:

a)

take an antiemetic or antidiarrheal for adverse GI effects.

b)

use an alternative form of birth control, if taking an oral contraceptive.

c)

use an aspirin for relief of minor discomforts.

d)

take the drug with food.

62.

A client is being treated with amphotericin B. Which statement indicates that the client has understood the client teaching?

a)

“The medication may cause diabetes.”

b)

“The medication will cause liver necrosis.”

c)

“The medication may cause kidney damage.”

d)

“The medication will cause pancreatitis.”

63.

A nurse is caring for a client who asks why she has been prescribed posaconazole following kidney transplantation. The nurse responds that posaconazole is used as prophylaxis to prevent:

a)

Aspergillus infection.

b)

mucormycosis.

c)

blastomycosis.

d)

coccidioidomycosis.

64.

The primary health care provider prescribes flucytosine to treat a systemic fungal infection. The nurse would administer this drug by which route?

a)

oral

b)

IV

c)

IM

d)

topical

65.

A client is receiving amphotericin B. The nurse would assess the client closely for which adverse reaction?

a)

renal impairment

b)

intensive weight loss

c)

skin discoloration

d)

CNS disorders

66.

The critical care nurse is administering intravenous anidulafungin to a client for the treatment of candidemia. The client’s blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels have been rising in recent days due to adverse effects of other medications. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Hold the medication pending the provider’s reassessment of the client

b)

Confirm the drug with the provider

c)

Administer the medication as prescribed because it is not excreted renally

d)

Confirm the route with the provider

67.

Which statement would be correct for a client regarding the administration of an antifungal medication?

a)

Instruct the client to take a forgotten dose as soon as it is remembered, even if it is time for the next dose.

b)

Advise that for persistent headache, unrelieved by acetaminophen, the client should increase the dosage of acetaminophen.

c)

Instruct the client to complete the entire drug therapy even if a dose is missed.

d)

Instruct the client to take frequent meals of fat and protein when GI distress occurs.

68.

Amphotericin B is ordered for a client with thrush. How does the drug combat the infection?

a)

It acts on the fungal cell membrane.

b)

It increases reproduction of fungal cells.

c)

It improves fungal protein synthesis.

69.

A client has been prescribed sulconazole for the treatment of tinea pedis. When nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify when planning this client's care?

a)

Risk for injury related to central nervous system depression

b)

Impaired urinary elimination related to nephrotoxicity

c)

Risk for impaired skin integrity related to local irritation

d)

Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to liver damage

70.

The nurse is educating an 82-year-old client regarding amphotericin B (Fungizone). The nurse knows the client understand when the client states that he could develop which adverse effect?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Liver necrosis

c)

Damage to his kidneys

d)

Pancreatitis

71.

An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and has been prescribed fluconazole. What change in the client’s laboratory values may necessitate a change in medication therapy?

a)

decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin

b)

increased white blood cells

c)

decreased creatinine clearance

d)

decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

72.

The nurse at a long-term care facility is admitting a new resident who is an older adult. The resident's current medication regimen includes nystatin 1,000,000 units PO t.i.d. The nurse should recognize the need to prioritize what aspect of this resident's care?

a)

Mouth care

b)

Encouraging fluid intake

c)

Protective isolation

d)

Daily use of an antibacterial shampoo

73.

An older adult client has been diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What aspect of the client's health status should warrant close monitoring by the nurse?

a)

The client has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin daily

b)

The client adheres strictly to a vegetarian diet

c)

The client has hypothyroidism and takes levothyroxine daily

d)

The client has a low body mass index

74.

An adult client is brought to the emergency department after deliberately overdosing on acetaminophen. The care team should prioritize interventions based on the client’s risk for which adverse reaction?

a)

seizures

b)

liver failure

c)

acute GI bleed

d)

gastric perforation

75.

A client with acute joint inflammation tells the nurse , “I’ve been taking acetaminophen as it’s ordered on the bottle, but my swelling and inflammation doesn’t seem to be getting better.” What should the nurse teach the client?

a)

"Acetaminophen has no effect on inflammation.”

b)

"It takes some people a few weeks to feel a difference.”

c)

“Acetaminophen’s only clinical use is for pain treatment.”

d)

“Keep taking it as ordered, and watch for any signs of bleeding.”

76.

A client is receiving auranofin as treatment for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should expect this drug to be given by which route?

a)

Oral

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

IM

d)

IV

77.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. What first-line treatment should the nurse anticipate?

a)

auranofin

b)

balsalazide

c)

ibuprofen

78.

The client has been prescribed one aspirin a day. The nurse understands that is prescribed for which of the following?

a)

To treat osteoarthritis

b)

To inhibit platelet aggregation

c)

To decrease pain

d)

To decrease temperature

79.

A salicylate is contraindicated in clients who have had surgery within the past week for which reason?

a)

Increased risk for allergic reaction

b)

Increased risk for bleeding

c)

Increased risk for fluid imbalance

d)

Increased risk for toxicity

80.

A group of nursing students are reviewing the pain-relieving action of NSAIDs. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which actions as being blocked to achieve pain relief?

a)

cyclooxygenase-2

b)

cyclooxygenase-1

c)

cyclooxygenase-3

d)

cyclooxygenase-4

81.

The client has been prescribed the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen/esomeprazole. The nurse teaches the client the potential adverse reactions include heartburn, nausea and what other reaction?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Dizziness

d)

Rash

82.

An 11-year-old client is having a cavity filled in the left mandibular first molar. The health care provider has prescribed aspirin for pain relief after the procedure. The nurse discovers upon assessment that the child is suffering from a flulike illness. The nurse contacts the health care provider about the prescribed medication for pain. What is the risk if aspirin is administered to this client?

a)

Reye syndrome

b)

Excess antiplatelet action

c)

Asthma

d)

Salicylate poisoning

83.

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Diflunisal (Dolobid)

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Ibuprofen

84.

A child has symptoms of influenza, including a fever. Which medication should not be administered to the child because of the risk of Reye's syndrome?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Acetylsalicylic acid

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Ascorbic acid

85.

A nurse is aware that a client prescribed meloxicam is most likely being treated for what health problem?

a)

fever

b)

arthritis

c)

migraine

d)

a chronic wound