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GENERAL BIOLOGY 1 (FINAL EXAM)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following DOES NOT happen during Cytokinesis?

a)

Two daughter cells are formed

b)

A cleavage furrow is formed in animal cells

c)

Sister chromatids are formed

d)

A cell plate is formed in plant cells

2.

Which of the following is NOT part of Gap 2 or G2 Phase?

a)

Centrosome duplication

b)

Synthesis of protein

c)

Duplication of organelles

d)

Preparation for cell division

3.

Which of the following statement is TRUE about the M Phase?

a)

It is also called Karyokinesis

b)

It can last from 12-24 hours

c)

The M phase can either be mitosis or meiosis

d)

There is a very active production of proteins during this phase

4.

Which of the following is TRUE about the cell cycle?

a)

Events that involve cell growth and cell division

b)

It is based on the cell theory that cells come from pre-existing cells

c)

It has Interphase and the M phase

d)

All of the above

5.

What phase in the cell cycle is also called the “resting stage”?

a)

M phase

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

.G1 checkpoint

6.

Which of the following occurs in the Gap 0 Phase?

a)

Two daughter cells are formed

b)

The cell ceases to grow and focuses on dividing

c)

The cell duplicates some of its organelles

d)

Cells become inactive

7.

Why are control points important during cell division?

a)

To speed up the process of cell division

b)

To ensure that daughter cells have no defect or errors

c)

To skip the G phase

d)

To add to the number of chromosomes

8.

What is also known as the “restriction point,” which determines if the cell is ready to proceed to cell division?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

G2 checkpoint

c)

G0 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

9.

Cell division will only proceed to the M phase if this is achieved.

a)

Half of the chromosomes are replicated

b)

DNA is fully replicated

c)

Spindle fibers are produced

d)

Two daughter cells are formed

10.

Why is the M checkpoint important in cell division?

a)

It ensures that each cell has the correct number of chromosomes

b)

It ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the right spindle fibers

c)

It ensures that all chromosomes are properly aligned along the metaphase plate prior to separation

d)

All of the above

11.

What stage of mitosis shows the important role of the structures called kinetochores?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

12.

This is a stage in mitosis where the chromosomes migrate towards the opposite “poles.”

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

13.

Which of the following is NOT true about meiosis?

a)

It forms diploid daughter cells

b)

It produces two daughter cells

c)

It functions for the production of gamete

d)

It undergoes two divisions

14.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

The two types of chromosomes are autosomes and sex chromosomes

b)

Sex chromosomes for males are XX

c)

The diploid chromosome number for human cells is 46

d)

Autosomes are also called body chromosomes

15.

What do you call the proteins around which DNA molecules wrap?

a)

Histones

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Chromatins

d)

Centromeres

16.

Nondisjunction can occur if ____ chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis I.

a)

homologous

b)

heterozygous

c)

sex

d)

autosomal

17.

Down syndrome may be detected by ____.

a)

a karyotype from chorionic villi testing

b)

a karyotype from anmiocentesis

c)

a test to detect substances in the maternal blood

d)

all of these

18.

If a segment of a chromosome is present several times more than normal due to unequal crossing-over, it is called ____.

a)

an inversion.

b)

a translocation.

c)

a delection.

d)

a duplication.

19.

A person with Turner syndrome has ____ sex chromosome(s).

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

two

d)

three

20.

A person with Klinefelter syndrome _____.

a)

is a sterile male

b)

is a sterile female

c)

can be either a sterile male or female

d)

in neutral and neither male nor female

21.

A photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is called a.....

a)

Pedigree

b)

Chromosome chart

c)

Mitotic index

d)

Karyotype

22.

Amniocentesis was performed on a woman. The withdrawn fluid underwent biochemical analysis and the fetal cells were cultured. A karyotype was done.

The child was discovered to have an extra #21 chromosome. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Patau syndrome

b)

Edward syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Turner syndrome

23.

This refers to the number of sets of chromosomes a cell has.

a)

Karyotype

b)

Kinetochores

c)

Ploidy

d)

Autosomes

24.

Which of the following is TRUE about chromosomes?

a)

It is a tightly-packed DNA molecule found in the cell wall

b)

It has the same size, shape, and appearance in all eukaryotes regardless of the stage

c)

It has two types, namely autosomes and sex chromosomes

d)

It appears as single chromatids known as sister chromatids

25.

A karyotype is an image that shows all of an individual’s chromosomes. Which of the following is TRUE about a normal individual’s karyotype?

a)

It has a haploid number of 46

b)

It has a diploid number of 23

c)

It has a haploid number of 23

d)

None of the above

26.

In humans, a condition called Down Syndrome occurs when there is an extra chromosome. What chromosome number is this found?

a)

Chromosome 23

b)

Chromosome 22

c)

Chromosome 21

d)

Chromosome 24

27.

Why is meiosis described as “reductional division”?

a)

After a single cycle, the parent cells’ chromosome number is equal to that of its daughter cells

b)

It leads to the development of a haploid cell

c)

It produces two daughter cells

d)

It produces four diploid daughter cells

28.

How many major stages does Meiosis have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

29.

Which of the following does NOT occur during Stage 1 of Meiosis?

a)

Sister chromatids separate

b)

Chromosome number does not change

c)

Genetic recombination is initiated

d)

A and B

30.

Which of the following occurs in Prophase II?

a)

Spindle fibers separate

b)

Nuclear envelope disappears

c)

Four haploid cells are produced

d)

Chromosomes align at the center

31.

What is the importance of “crossing over” in prophase I of meiosis?

a)

It allows the mother’s genes to mix with the father’s genes

b)

It prevents genetic variation

c)

It allows the traits of the child to be a combination of the father’s and mother’s genes

d)

A and C

32.

Which of the following events occur in telophase I of meiosis?

a)

A tetrad is produced

b)

Spindle fibers separate the tetrads

c)

The chromosomes decondensed

d)

Tetrads are aligned at the center

33.

Which of the following is the CORRECT arrangement of the substages of prophase I of meiosis?

a)

Zygotene-Pachytene-Leptotene-Diakinesis-Diplotene

b)

Prophase-Metaphase-Anaphase-Telophase

c)

Leptotene-Zygotene-Pachytene-Diplotene-Diakinesis

d)

Metaphase-Anaphase-Prophase-Telophase

34.

Which stage of prophase I of meiosis forms the synaptonemal complex?

a)

Zygotene

b)

Anaphase

c)

Leptotene

d)

Telophase

35.

Which of the following events in meiosis ensures that no one is alike even among siblings, except in the case of twins?

a)

Assortment of sister chromatids in meiosis II is random

b)

Orientation of each homologous pair during metaphase I is random

c)

Chromosome combination after meiosis I is random

d)

All of the above

36.

Which of the following pairs is CORRECT?

a)

Pachytene: genetic recombination occurs

b)

Leptotene: Tetrad or bivalent is formed

c)

Diakinesis: Synaptonemal complex disappears

d)

Diplotene: Nuclear membrane disintegrates

37.

Each human is unique because of genetic variation. Which of the following events causes this?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Random chromatid assortment

c)

Fertilization

d)

A and B

38.

Which is TRUE about cancer?

a)

It happens when damaged cells do not undergo programmed cell death

b)

It is the result of uncontrolled cell division

c)

It happens when there are abnormalities with cellular regulators

d)

All of the above

39.

Which of the following pairs about numerical aberrations is CORRECT?

a)

Trisomy: Having two sets of chromosomes of the same type

b)

Monosomy: Having only one chromosome of two homologous chromosomes

c)

Monoploidy: Having three sets of chromosomes

d)

Triploidy: Having one chromosome of three homologous chromosomes

40.

This disorder is also known as Trisomy 21. Affected individuals have mental impairment, stunted growth, umbilical hernia, among other systems.

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Patau syndrome

c)

Cri du chat syndrome

d)

Edward’s syndrome

41.

What disorder caused by a numerical aberration is lethal to humans and causes embryos to die?

a)

Patau Syndrome

b)

Triploid Syndrome

c)

Cri du chat Syndrome

d)

Turner Syndrome

42.

Which condition describes Turner Syndrome?

a)

Affected individuals cry like cats

b)

Polydactyly

c)

Webbed neck

d)

Small head

43.

Angelman syndrome is described as caused by a missing portion in chromosome 15. What type of structural aberration is this?

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Translocation

d)

Inversion

44.

Which of the following pairs is CORRECT about Membrane Proteins?

a)

Peripheral proteins: Gate for molecule passage

b)

Integral proteins: Supportive strength

c)

Anchored proteins: Acts as an enzyme in a hydrolysis reaction

d)

Glycoproteins: Tissue formation

45.

The cell membrane also contains sterols such as cholesterol. Which is TRUE about this lipid?

a)

Cholesterol is a type of channel protein

b)

Cholesterol prevents the cell membrane from freezing

c)

Cholesterol has a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail

d)

Cholesterol makes the cell membrane fully permeable

46.

Which of the following pairs is CORRECT about phospholipids?

a)

Saturated fatty acids: one double bond

b)

Unsaturated fatty acids: one double bond

c)

Saturated fatty acids: allows plasma membrane to crystallize

d)

Unsaturated fatty acids: allows plasma membrane to crystallize

47.

What part of the cell allows the transport of different materials through different modes of cellular transport?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Vacuoles

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Cell membrane

48.

What causes the movement of materials inside and outside of the cell in simple diffusion?

a)

Energy in the form of ATP

b)

Existence of a concentration gradient

c)

Carrier proteins

d)

Sodium and Potassium ions

49.

Which is TRUE about facilitated diffusion?

a)

It needs energy to occur

b)

It is an example of active transport

c)

It needs the “help” of channel and carrier proteins to facilitate the process of diffusion

d)

It diffuses only molecules of water across the semipermeable membrane

50.

Which of the following describes a Hypotonic solution?

a)

It is a solution that is LESS concentrated with solute molecules

b)

It is a solution that is MORE concentrated with solute molecules

c)

It is a solution that is in equilibrium with another solution

d)

It is a solution with channel and carrier proteins to facilitate movement

51.

Which of the following is true about the diffusion of water molecules across the cell membrane?

a)

It is termed glycolysis

b)

It is called osmosis

c)

It moves along a concentration gradient

d)

B and C

52.

It is commonly known as ‘table sugar.’

a)

Starch

b)

Sucrose

c)

Glucose

d)

Fructose

53.

The following are functions that carbohydrates and lipids share except:

a)

Structural material

b)

Energy storage

c)

Cell signaling

d)

Nucleic acid component

54.

Arthropods, such as crabs, have very tough exoskeletons composed of which of the following polysaccharides?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Starch

c)

Glycogen

d)

Chitin

55.

Which of the following types of fat is the least healthy?

a)

Saturated fat

b)

Cholesterol

c)

cis-saturated fat

d)

trans-saturated fat

56.

Which of the following cells can store fat molecules?

a)

muscle cell

b)

adipocyte

c)

nerve cell

d)

osteocyte

57.

The following are the components of a phospholipid except:

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Glycerol

c)

Two fatty acid tails

d)

Three fatty acid tails

58.

This is the only protein structure with two definite forms.

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

59.

Which protein does not belong in the group?

a)

Keratin

b)

Collagen

c)

Tubulin

d)

Ovalbumin

60.

It is a term that refers to the combination of a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar.

a)

nucleotide

b)

DNA

c)

nucleoside

d)

polynucleotide