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Worksheets

ECON1900

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 15hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

efficiency in a market is achieved when____

a)

a social planner intervenes and sets the quantity of output after evaluating buyers' willingness to pay and seller's costs.

b)

no buyer is willing to pay more than the equilibrium price for any unit of the good.

c)

the sum of producer surplus and consumer surplus us maximized.

d)

all firms are producing the good at the same low cost per unit.

2.

cost is a measure of the____

a)

sellers' willingness to buy.

b)

sellers' producer surplus

c)

producer shortage

d)

sellers' willingness to sell

3.

When the price rises from P1 to P2 which are represents the increase in producer surplus to existing producers?

a)

ACH

b)

BCG

c)

DGH

d)

ABGD

4.

Mike and Sarah sell lemonade on the corner for $3.10 per cup. It costs them $0.10 to make each cup. On a certain day, their producer surplus is $45. How many cups did Mike and Sarah sell?

a)

45

b)

7

c)

15

d)

1

5.

Taxes on labor encourage which of the following?

a)

Mothers to stay at home rather than work in the labor force

b)

labor demand to be more inelastic

c)

workers to work overtime

d)

fathers to take on second jobs

6.

Graph(a) and (b) illustrate $4 tax placed on the market. In comparison to (a), (b) illustrates which of the following statements?

a)

when supply is relatively elastic, the deadweight loss of a tax is larger than when supply is relatively inelastic.

b)

when demand is relatively inelastic, the deadweight loss of a tax is smaller than when demand is relatively elastic

c)

when demand is relatively elastic, the deadweight loss of a tax is smaller than when demand is relatively inelastic

d)

when supply is relatively inelastic, the deadweight loss of a tax is smaller than when supply is relatively elastic

7.

This market is characterized by____

a)

a positive externality

b)

a price control

c)

government intervention

d)

a negative externality

8.

if the government were to limit the release of air pollution produced by a glue factory to 75 parts per million, the policy would be considered a___

a)

subsidy

b)

market-based policy

c)

command-and-control policy

d)

corrective tax

9.

The market equilibrium quantity of output is___

a)

5 units

b)

6 units

c)

4 units

d)

3 units

10.

The socially optimal quantity of output is___

a)

4 units

b)

3 units

c)

6 units

d)

5 units

11.

which of the following statements about a well-maintained yard best conveys the general nature of the externality?

a)

a well-maintained yard conveys a positive externality because it increases the home's market value

b)

a well maintained yard conveys a positive externality because it increases the value of adjacent properties in the neighborhood

c)

a well-maintained yard cannot provide any type of externality

d)

a well-maintained yard conveys a negative externality because it increases the property tax liability of the owner

12.

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration has determined that the probability of a worker dying from exposure to a hazardous chemical used in the production of fertilizer is 0.008. The cost of imposing a regulation that would ban the chemical is $23 million. If the value of a human life is equal to $7 million, how many people must the policy affect in order for the benefits to exceed the costs?

a)

184

b)

2,301

c)

412

d)

2,876

13.

a traffic light at an intersection is___

a)

not rival but excludable in consumption

b)

rival but not excludable in consumption

c)

rival and excludable in consumption

d)

not rival and not excludable in consumption

14.

a free rider is a person who____

a)

will only purchase a product on sale

b)

rides public transit regularly

c)

receives the benefit of a good but avoids paying for it

d)

can produce a good at no cost

15.

which of the following is an example of the Tragedy of the Commons?

a)

the number of professional soccer teams increases to the point where the quality of the games decreases, as does the television viewership

b)

Universal Studios becomes so crowded that it institutes a lottery for admissions

c)

a type of fish becomes extinct due to overfishing

d)

a tiger breeding program becomes so successful that local zoos have to build additional exhibits so that visitors can view the cats

16.

which of the following statistics is usually regarded as the best single measure of a society's economic well-being?

a)

the ratio of the government deficit to the government revenue

b)

the producer price index

c)

the GDP deflator

d)

Gross Domestic Product

17.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

Nominal and real interest rates always move together

b)

nominal and real interest rates never move together

c)

nominal and real interest rates do not always move together

d)

nominal and real interest rates always move in opposite directions

18.

for an economy as a whole,___

a)

consumption must equal saving

b)

consumption must equal income

c)

wages must equal profit

d)

income must equal expenditure

19.

if the consumer price index was 100 in Year 1, 123 in Year 2, and 131 in Year 3, then the base year must be___

a)

Year 1

b)

Year 3

c)

Year 2

d)

the base year cannot be determined from information

20.

when the consumer price index falls, the typical family____

a)

can offset the effects of rising prices by saving more

b)

has to spend more dollars to maintain the same standard of living

c)

can spend fewer dollars to maintain the same standard of living

d)

finds that its standard of living is not affected

21.

by far the largest category of goods and services in the CPI basket is___

a)

housing

b)

transportation

c)

food and beverages

d)

education and communication

22.

suppose Will's Year 2 food expenditures in Year 3 dollars amount to $6,670. Then x, the consumer price index for Year 3, has a value of___

a)

5,582

b)

203.7

c)

199.2

d)

5,250

23.

Gilbert has $1537 in his bank account. This money is___

a)

medium of exchange

b)

unit of account

c)

store of value

24.

Gilbert writes a check for $1,299. This money is___

a)

medium of exchange

b)

unit of account

c)

store of value

25.

Gilbert can easily determine that the price of the computer is more than the price of the vacation. This money is___

a)

medium of exchange

b)

unit of account

c)

store of value

26.

What defines liquidity?

a)

refers to how quickly an asset can be converted into a medium of exchange

b)

refers to how quickly an asset can be converted into a unit of storage

c)

refers to how quickly a liability can be converted into a medium of exchange

d)

refers to how quickly a liability can be converted into a unit of storage

27.

What order represents most liquid to least liquid?

a)

$5.00 bill>house>funds in a money market>share of stock

b)

$5.00 bill>funds in a money market>share of stock>house

c)

$5.00bill>share of stock>funds in a money market>house

d)

house>share of stock>$5.00 bill>funds in a money market

28.

Personal possession of currency is prohibited in U.S. prisons, although, in practice, prisoners still exchange goods and services. Until 2003, the year in which the U.S. government banned smoking in federal penitentiaries, cigarettes were the preferred medium of exchange among prisoners. One important difference between using cigarettes and using dollars as money is that_______have intrinsic value.

a)

cigarettes

b)

U.S. dollars

29.

cigarettes are an example of ____ money

a)

commodity

b)

fiat

30.

Nick has $30,000 in a money market account. Is this M1 or M2?

a)

M1

b)

M2

31.

Rosa has $7,000 in a two-year certificate of deposit (CD). M1 or M2?

a)

M1

b)

M2

32.

Jake has $1200 in a checking account. M1 or M2?

a)

M1

b)

M2

33.

While all members of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors vote at Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) meetings, only____  of the regional bank presidents are members of the FOMC.

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

12

34.

The Federal Reserve's role as a lender of last resort involves lending to which of the following financially troubled institutions?

a)

Governments in developing countries during currency crises

b)

U.S. banks that cannot borrow elsewhere

c)

U.S. state governments when they run short on tax revenues

35.

The Federal Reserve's primary tool for changing the money supply is____

a)

the reserve requirement

b)

the discount rate

c)

open market operations

36.

In order to decrease the number of dollars in the U.S. economy (the money supply), the Federal Reserve will____ government bonds

a)

buy

b)

sell

37.

What is the equation to find (a bank's) reserves?

a)

Reserves=Loans x Demand Deposits

b)

Reserves=Demand Deposits + Loans

c)

Reserves= Demand Deposits - Loans

d)

Reserves= Demand Deposits / Loans

38.

How do you find (a banks) required reserves?

a)

required reserves=demand deposits x loans

b)

required reserves= demand deposits / required reserve ratio

c)

required reserves= demand deposits x required reserve ratio

d)

required reserves= demand deposits - required reserve ratio

39.

How do you find (a bank's) excess reserves?

a)

excess reserves= reserves - required reserves

b)

excess reserves= reserves / required reserves

c)

excess reserves= required reserves x reserves

d)

excess reserves= reserves + required reserves

40.

Bo buys and sells real estate. Two weeks ago, he paid $400,000 for a house on Cypress Street, intending to spend $50,000 on repairs and then sell the house for $500,000. Last week, the city gov. announced a plane to build a new landfill on Cypress Street just down the street from the house Bo purchased. This results in Bo trying to decide whether to repair the house ($50,000) and then sell the house for $390,000 or he can forgo the repairs and sell the house as it is for $350,000. He should...

a)

move the house from Cypress Street to a more desirable location, regardless of the cost of doing so.

b)

keep the house and live in it

c)

forgo the repairs and sell the house as it is for $390,000

d)

go ahead with the $50,000 repairs and sell the house for $390,000

41.

which of the following is an example of a normative, as opposed to a positive statement?

a)

a decrease in the minimum wage would decrease unemployment

b)

the elimination of trade restrictions would increase an economy's standard of living

c)

the social security system is a good system and it deserves to be preserved as it is

d)

following the most recent recession, the economy is recovering at a slower than usual pace

42.

beef is a normal goof. You observe that both the equilibrium price and quantity of beef have fallen over time. Which of the following explanations would be most consistent with this observation?

a)

new medical evidence has been released that indicates a negative correlation between a person's beef consumption and life expectancy

b)

consumers have experienced an increase in income, and beef production tech has improved

c)

price of chicken has risen and the price of steak has fallen

d)

the demand curve for beef must be positively sloped

43.

according to the circular flow diagram if Christopher is the owner of a landscaping business and he just received $50 for mowing Mrs. Pendleton's lawn, ____

a)

the $50 represents wages, rent, and profit to Christopher's firm

b)

Christopher acts as a firm who interacted in the markets for goods and services with Mrs. Pendleton

c)

the $50 represents a cost of production for Christopher's firm

d)

Christopher acts as a firm who interacted in the markets for factors of production with Mrs. Pendleton

44.

Which of the following demonstrates the law of demand?

a)

after Roberto got a raise at work, he bought more pretzels at $1.50 per pretzel than he did before his raise

b)

Ashlyn buys more donut holes at $0.25 per donut hole than at $0.50 per donut hole, other things equal

c)

Benjamin buys fewer muffins at $0.75 per muffin than at $1 per muffin, other things equal

d)

Tiana buys fewer Snickers at $0.60 per candy bar after the price of MMs falls to $0.50 per bag

45.

In a market economy, economic activity is guided by ____

a)

self-interest and prices

b)

central planners

c)

the government

d)

public-interest groups

46.

goods with many close substitutes tend to have___

a)

price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic

b)

more elastic demands

c)

less elastic demands

d)

income elasticities of demand that are negative

47.

when a tax is placed on the sellers of a product, buyers pay___

a)

more and sellers receive more than they did before the tax

b)

less and sellers receive more than they did before the tax

c)

less and sellers receive less than they did before the tax

d)

more and sellers receive less than they did before the tax

48.

what is the opportunity cost of increasing the production of rye from 700 bushels to 1200 bushels?

a)

250 bushels of corn

b)

1000 bushels of corn

c)

750 bushels of corn

d)

500 bushels of corn

49.

the market demand curve____

a)

shows the relationship between price and the number of buyers in a market

b)

is found by vertically adding the individual demand curves

c)

represents the sum of the prices that all the buyers are willing to pay for a given quantity of the good

d)

shows how the total quantity demanded of a good varies as price varies

50.

a good will have a more inelastic demand, the____

a)

broader the definition of the market

b)

more it is regarded as a luxury

c)

greater the availability of close substitutes

d)

longer the period of time

51.

a key determinant of the price elasticity of supply is the___

a)

income of consumers

b)

price elasticity of demand

c)

importance of the good in a consumer's budget

d)

time horizon

52.

Both Alvina and Jane___

a)

face a constant trade-off between producing pitchers of lemonade and pizzas

b)

can produce more pizzas than pitchers of lemonade is they devote all their time to pizza production

c)

would benefit from specializing in pizza production

d)

would benefit from specializing in lemonade production

53.

the rate of trade-off between producing chairs and producing couches is constant in____

a)

neither (a) nor (b)

b)

Graph (a) only

c)

both (a) and (b)

d)

graph (b) only

54.

the most obvious benefit of specialization and trade is that they allow us to ____

a)

work more hours per week than we otherwise would be able to work

b)

spend more money on goods that are beneficial to society and less money on goods that are harmful

c)

consume more goods than we otherwise would be able to consume

d)

consume more goods by forcing people in other countries to consume fewer goods

55.

making rational decisions at the margin means that people___

a)

evaluate how easily a decision can be reversed if problems arise

b)

compare the marginal costs and marginal benefits of each decision

c)

make those decisions that do not impose a marginal cost

d)

always calculate the dollar costs for each decision

56.

If the production possibilities frontier shown is for two months of production, then which of the following combos of peanuts and cashews could Peru produce in two months?

a)

2 pounds of peanuts and 240 pounds of cashews

b)

3 pounds of peanuts and 150 pounds of cashews

c)

5 pounds of peanuts and 160 pounds of cashews

d)

7 pounds of peanuts and 135 pounds of cashews

57.

Two goods are complements when a decrease in the price of one good___

a)

increases the demand for the other good

b)

decreases the quantity demanded of the other good

c)

increases the quantity demanded of the other good

d)

decreases the demand for the other good

58.

which of the following causes the price paid by buyers to be different than the price received by sellers?

a)

binding price ceiling

b)

binding price floor

c)

tax on the good

d)

nonbinding price control