1)    T or F: Sometimes inflammation can skip the acute phase and go directly into the chronic stage.

1)    If injury is short-lived and little tissue destruction occurred, what outcome would you expect to see?

1)    If there has been substantial tissue destruction and abundant fibrin exudation, what will occur?

1)    If the basement membrane was left intact during the inflammatory process, we will probably have:

1)    What might cause progression to chronic inflammation?

1)    Fibrous is to ____ as fibrinous is to _____.

1)    Which of the following is not a morphologic pattern of acute inflammation?

1)    Effusion is generally caused by what type of inflammation:

1)    Serous inflammation is derived from ____ cells.

1)    The production and accumulation of fibrin is exhibited in what type of inflammation?

1)    Supparative inflammation occurs when neutrophils cause tissue destruction and lead to the production of _____.

1)    Explain the difference between an ulcer and an erosion.

1)    Serous inflammation can be found where?

1)    Where might you commonly see an ulcer?

1)    T or F: chronic inflammation can either follow acute inflammation or may skip acute inflammation.

1)    What occurs simultaneously in chronic inflammation?

1)    Which of the following is a cause of chronic inflammation?

1)    Mycobacterial infection can lead to ____ infections, which may trigger chronic inflammation.    

1)    Switching from acute to chronic inflammation is determined once the main immune cell switches from neutrophils to _____.

1)    What might you most likely see as a morphologic feature of chronic inflammation?

1)    What two components make up granulation tissue?

1)    What separates fibrosis and fibrinous?

1)    Macrophages originate where?

1)    What is a major difference between activated and inactivated macrophages?

1)    What microbial product will activate macrophages?

1)    T_H1 cells will release a cytokine to activate and recruit macrophages.

1)    If a macrophage was activated for tissue repair, what might is secrete?

1)    If you were to delete the gene for angiogenic cytokines, you would be affecting _____.

1)    If a T cell were to activate a macrophage, what might it not secrete?

1)    Which immune cell contains Major Basic Protein (MBP)?

1)    The professional antibody secreting cell is what?

1)    Suture material often causes a _____ type of inflammation in patients.

1)    Caseous necrosis is sometimes seen in cases of ____ inflammation.

1)    Acute phase reactions include all of the following except:

1)    C-reactive protein, serum amyloid A, and fibrinogen are all classified as ________.

1)    C-reactive protein, serum amyloid A, and fibrinogen are all classified as ________.

1)    High production of serum amyloid A may lead to accumulation within the kidneys resembling what disease?

1)    If you were to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis in acute inflammation you would be inhibiting what?

1)    If you were to have an insult that caused damage to the stromal framework of your tissue, what is the most likely outcome?

1)    What composes fibrosis?

1)    What is the function of collagen within scar tissue?

1)    Which of the following is not a mechanism for angiogenesis?

1)    When visualizing granulation tissue, you notice a glisten-y sheen, what is that due to?

1)    What does VEGF stand for?

1)    What does VEGF stand for?

1)    What is VEGF analogous to?

1)    If an animal was deficient in VEGF, what might you expect if it were to get a laceration?

1)    If a surgical incision, with opposed edges, were to become infected, what type of cutaneous wound healing would occur?

1)    If an excisional wound occurred on the carpus of a cat, what type of healing might occur?

1)    If a surgical incision, with opposed edges, remained infection-free, what type of healing is this?

What intention are Myofiibroblasts in?

1)    T or F: in first intention healing, myofibroblasts proliferate and migrate to the center of the wound.

1)    If an animal recently had an exploratory laparotomy, what might you expect to see at the incision?

1)    72 hours after the initial incision and closure, granulation tissue is forming. Which of the following comprise this tissue?

1)    T or F: by the end of first intention healing, the epidermis returns to normal thickness.

1)    Which type of healing will you see a defect in the initial site of insult?

1)    You are finally able to resolve an infected surgical incision in your dog. What might you expect to see a proliferation in?

1)    What is the function of myofibroblasts?

1)    Which type of healing involves a more intense inflammatory reaction and more granulation tissue?

1)    What type of healing might you expect to occur following an ulcer or ruptured abscess?

1)    What type of healing is pictured below?

1)   What is a histological hallmark of granulation tissue?

1)    Which species of animal required vitamin C in their diet?

1)    A deficiency in what major nutritional macromolecule will lead to impaired wound healing?

1)    Which general category will proud flesh fall under?

1)    A horse suffers a serious burn on his/her left front leg. After it heals the owner notices the horse is lame on that leg and is unable to carry out full range of motion. This is an example of:

1)    Amyloidosis is not:

1)    What is amyloid?

1)    What aspect of amyloid fibrils allows us to visualize it with Congo Red stain?

1)    If you were suspecting excessive amyloid deposition in the liver or kidney of a necropsy sample, what might you stain it with to make it evident histologically?

1)    Serum amyloid A is a positive acute phase protein. Which chemical form of amyloid does this fall under?

1)    Plasma cells are professional antibody and immunoglobulin secreting cells. Which form of amyloid is derived from them?

1)    Old dogs and human Alzheimer patients typically have the ___ form of amyloid within their brains.

1)    Which form of amyloid stems from secondary/reactive amyloidosis?

1)    Which form of amyloid does not stem from primary amyloidosis (neoplasia)?

1)    T or F: amyloidosis is always a localized disease (affecting one organ).

1)    Which of the following incites the pathogenesis of amyloidosis?

1)    Chronic inflammation in a cat might lead to increases and deposition in which form of amyloid?

1)    Which of the following is/are caused by renal amyloidosis?

1)    Amyloid deposition in the kidney is similar to what hypersensitivity reaction?

1)    Upon gross examination of a kidney with suspected amyloidosis, which stain might you use to visualize the lesions?

1)    Which stain did you use in the histological picture below to visualize amyloid in the glomerulus?

What might you notice about a liver with amyloid deposition?

1)    An organ with amyloid deposition will feel:

1)    Which of the following does not characterize a benign tumor/neoplasia?

1)    What is the suffix that usually accompanies benign neoplastic masses?

1)    What would what benign tumor of adipose tissue be called?

1)    What would a benign tumor of cartilage be called?

1)    If you were to hear a neoplastic mass called “-sarcoma,” what can you infer about its biologic behavior?

1)    A malignant neoplastic mass derived from mesenchymal tissue is called a ____.

1)    What is the name for a malignant neoplastic mass affecting endothelial cells anywhere in the body (i.e. heart, spleen, etc.)?

1)    Squamous cell carcinoma usually affects animals with low melanin (white coat color). What type of cell origin do they derive from?

1)    If you were to diagnose a malignant neoplastic mass derived from epithelial origin that has a glandular morphologic pattern, what would its name be?

1)    T or F: mixed tumors are derived from totipotent stem cells.

1)    What is the name for a mass derived from all three embryonic germ layers?

1)    T or F: leukemia is a malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue.

1)    If you were to find a cat with a malignant neoplasia of metarubricytes, what would you potentially call this process?

1)    Which of the following do we evaluate to determine if a neoplastic process if benign or malignant?

1)    If you were looking at a neoplasm that has poorly differentiated, what will you probably classify it as?

1)    If you were to determine a neoplasm was anaplastic, you would say the differentiation is ____ and the mass is ____.

1)    Explain what loss of polarity describes in a neoplastic sample/mass.

1)    What kind of N:C ratio would a neoplastic cell exhibit that is malignant and mitotically active?

1)    Which of the following is not used to describe morphologic characteristics?

1)    How might benign neoplastic cells act in comparison to the cells they are derived from?

1)    Pituitary-dependent Hyperadrenocorticism is a benign mass in the pituitary gland that actively secretes ACTH, leading to increased cortisol production. The other name for hyperadrenocorticism is ______.

1)    Which type of neoplasia may elicit capsule formation with its slow growth?

1)    What is carcinomatosis?

1)    What processes might be considered pre-neoplastic?

1)    A disorganized benign mass derived of normal structures located in its normal location is defined as a :

1)    A choristoma is a non-neoplastic disorder of growth characterized by:

1)    P53 is which of the following?

1)    _____ results from the accumulation of complementary mutations in a stepwise fashion over time leading to neoplasia.

1)    T or F: tumors may grow in response to overexpression of growth factors.

1)    Which of the following is growth factor receptor that is mutated in certain forms of cancer, leading to increased tumorigenesis?

1)    Ras is a normal ______.

1)    Which of the following is another signal transducing protein that is a normal proto-oncogene?

1)    _____ is a transcription factor that activated the expression of cell growth and upregulation of telomerase.

1)    T or F: a deletion mutation in a protooncogene leads to decreased control of cell growth.

1)    The Retinoblastoma (Rb) gene follows the ‘two-hit theory,’ which means that:

1)    Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene?

1)    Which apoptotic protein leads to inhibition of apoptosis?

1)    In order to exhibit limitless replicative potential, cancer cells must never enter:

1)    T or F: all malignant cells that make it into the blood stream will survive to implant at a distant location.

1)    Which of the following is not a reason cancer cells can avoid the immune system?

1)    Which DNA repair mechanism must be damaged or mutated to allow genomic instability of future tumor cells?

1)    What normally keeps p53 at low levels in normal cells?

1)    Which of the following is not a general type of carcinogen?

1)    Which of the following is considered an indirect chemical carcinogen?

1)    A ___ acting chemical carcinogen does not require metabolic conversion to be carcinogenic.

1)    T or F: Aflatoxin B1 metabolism can lead to splenocellular carcinoma.

1)    What is the primary target of radiation?

1)    Radiation leading to direct single or double stranded breaks in DNA result from:

1)    Which of the following is most likely induced with radiation exposure in veterinary species?

1)    You arrive on a farm to examine an adult cow with persistent leukocytosis. What is the one of the first diseases you should rule out?

1)    T or F: Bovine/Feline Leukemia can lead to either leukemia or lymphoma.

1)    Which virus leads to lymphoma in chickens?