Free Printable Immunology EXAM

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Worksheets

Immunology EXAM

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

1. Exposure to an allergen activates B cells to form IgE

secreting plasma cells.

a)

A. a later exposure to the same allergen cross-links

the membrane-bound IgE on sensitized mast cells

and basophils, causing degranulation of these cells

b)

B. primary exposure to the allergen leads to

crosslinking of the bound IgE, triggering the release of

pharmacologically active mediators, vasoactive

amines, from mast cells and basophils.

c)

C. second exposure to the allergen leads to

crosslinking of the bound IgE, triggering the release of

pharmacologically active mediators, vasoactive

amines, from mast cells and basophils.

d)

correct answers are A + C

e)

correct answers are B + C

2.

Atopic individuals have abnormally high levels

of circulating IgE and also more than normal

numbers of:

a)

circulating eosinophils

b)

circulating mast cells

c)

circulating basophils

d)

circulating monocytes

3.

Type II (cytotoxic) immune tissue injury results

from the recognition of cell-or tissue-bound

antigens by IgG and IgM antibodies

a)

A. Tissue damage generally requires hours or

days to become evident

b)

B. IgM and IgG antibodies active complement through the classical pathway (initiate by formation of an Ag-Ab complex)

c)

C. IgE active mast cells

d)

A + B answers are correct

e)

All answers are uncorrect

4.

Type IV (delayed-type) immune tissue injury is a

manifestation of cell-mediated immunity to haptens

or protein antigens

a)

The immunologically specific component of

delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) is the Th1 cell

b)

The immunologically specific component of

delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) is the Th2 cell

c)

The immunologically specific component of

delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) is the Th17 cell

d)

The immunologically specific component of

delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) is the Tregs cell

e)

The immunologically specific component of

delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) is the Th8 cell

5.

Hypereosinophilia is typical for:

a)

A. pulmonary disorders

b)

B. mononucleosis & tuberculosis

c)

C. allergic diseases

d)

B + C are correct

e)

A + B + C are correct

6.

Prick-to-prick, prick-prick, native-prick are:

a)

A. tests performed when contact dermatitis is

suspected

b)

B. used for food allergy diagnosis (performed

with fresh food samples)

c)

C. recommended as the first tests when allergy is

suspected

d)

correct answers A + B

e)

correct answers B + C

7.

The seasonal allergy is caused by:

a)

molds and grass pollens

b)

tree pollens and food allergens

c)

food allergens and molds

d)

molds and occupational allergens

e)

weed pollens and food allergens

8.

Which of the following is NOT part of the

innate immune response to extracellular

bacteria:

a)

complement activation by lipopolysaccharide

b)

complement activation by mannose

c)

natural killer cell activation

d)

activation of phagocytes by Toll-like receptors

e)

inflammation

9.

Patch test is:

a)

A. performed in cases of suspected eczema

b)

B. performed when type IV hypersensitivity

reaction is suspected

c)

C. the first test recommended when atopy is

suspected

d)

answers A + B are correct

e)

answers B + C are correct

10.

The perennial allergy is caused by:

a)

occupational allergens and feathers

b)

weed pollens and feathers

c)

food allergens and grass pollens

d)

tree pollens and dust mites

e)

food allergens and weed pollens

11.

Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity is

characterised by:

a)

A. recognition of cell-tissue antigen bond by IgE

b)

B. tissue damage occurs after hours or days

c)

C. haemolytic anemia is typical for this reaction

d)

correct answers B + C

e)

correct answers A, B + C

12.

Type IV delayed hypersensitivity is characterized by:

a)

specific component Th2 cells

b)

clinical manifestation in 24-48 hours

c)

clinical presentation includes i.e. contact dermatitis

d)

presence od immune complexes of IgG and soluble antigens

e)

all of above

13.

Type IV delayed hypersensitivity is characterized by:

a)

A. recognition of cell/tissue bond antigen by IgG and IgM

b)

B. specific component Th1 cells

c)

C. clinical manifestations in 48-96 hours and includes i.e. contact dermatitis

d)

B + C are correct

e)

A + C are correct

14.

All of the following are key mediators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions EXCEPT:

a)

Mast cells

b)

Basophils

c)

IgE

d)

Macrophages

e)

Th2 cells

15.

Immediate hypersensitivity differs from delayed-type hypersensitivity in which one of the following ways?

a)

Immediate hypersensitivity is a CD4+ T cell–

mediated disease.

b)

Immediate hypersensitivity does not require

previous exposure to an antigen.

c)

Immediate hypersensitivity does not involve

inflammation.

d)

Immediate hypersensitivity is driven by

cytokines such as interleukin (IL)-4, IL-5, and IL-13.

e)

Immediate hypersensitivity typically leads to

granuloma formation.

16.

Which one of the following diseases has been

completely eradicated world-wide?:

a)

Measles

b)

Smallpox

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Cowpox

e)

Psittacosis

17.

A potential disadvantage of immunological

protection using passive transfer of horse

globulins is:

a)

Serum sickness

b)

Irreversible protection

c)

Lack of antibody-mediated immune response

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

e)

Immunodeficiency

18.

Herpes simplex virus:

a)

A. is one of the leading factor that causes

neonatal sepsis

b)

B. can cause central nervous system disease

c)

C. clinical manifestation is related with increased

production of inflammatory cytokines

d)

B+C are correct

e)

A+B+C are correct

19.

Type III hypersensitivity is characterised by:

a)

A. inflammation induced by IgG bound to Ag on

cell surface

b)

B. presence of immune complexes IgG + soluble

Ag

c)

C. may manifest with i.e. glomerulonephritis or

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

A + C are correct

e)

B + C are correct

20.

Rhesus hemolytic disease of the newborn

involves:

a)

IgE

b)

Antibody to erythrocyte surfaces.

c)

Soluble immune complexes.

d)

Cytokine release from T-cells.

e)

Stimulatory antibodies.

21.

Septic shock associated with Gram-negative

bacteria is primarily due to:

a)

Lipopolysaccharide.

b)

Enterotoxin superantigen.

c)

Platelet aggregation.

d)

Switch off of cytokine release.

e)

Peptidoglycans.

22.

Neutrophil chemotaxis is mediated by:

a)

C5b

b)

IL-8

c)

C3a

d)

CCL2

e)

E-selectin

23.

Opsonization of bacteria occurs through

coating bacteria just with:

a)

C3b

b)

C8

c)

Membrane attack complex

d)

F(ab')2 IgG

e)

IgM

24.

Extracellular bacteria are optimally killed by:

a)

Macrophages.

b)

Complement

c)

Antibody

d)

Macrophages plus complement.

e)

Macrophages plus antibody plus complement.

25.

Passive immunization consist in:

a)

A. immune response of the body after natural

entering Ag

b)

B. transfer of maternal serum IgG from the

mother to fetus, mainly IgA to offspring

c)

C. generation of immune response for Ag

derived from vaccines

d)

A+B are correct

e)

B+C are correct

26.

Toxins are neutralized by:

a)

Complement

b)

Antibody

c)

Toxoids

d)

PGE2

e)

T lymphocytes

27.

Bacteria growing within macrophages can

be killed by:

a)

Complement.

b)

Reactive oxygen and nitrogen intermediates.

c)

Antibody.

d)

Cytotoxic T-cells.

e)

Directly by cytokines released from Th1 cells.

28.

Intracellular parasites within macrophages

are killed more readily in the presence of:

a)

Antibody

b)

Kinins

c)

Properdin

d)

Gamma-interferon

e)

Anaphylatoxin

29.

Diseases which cause the elevation of serum

IgE levels include:

a)

A. allergic rhinitis,

b)

B. parasitic diseases,

c)

C. atopic dermatitis,

d)

correct answer A + C

e)

A + B + C are correct

30.

Which of the following types of vaccines typically do NOT require boost doses?

a)

A. Vaccine conjugated with protein

b)

B. Vaccine with strong adjuvant

c)

C. Live vaccine

d)

D. Vaccine conjugated with protein + strong adjuvant

e)

C + D

31.

Choose the true statement about naturally pasive immunization:

a)

Only IgG could be naturally transferred

b)

Only IgM could be naturally transferred

c)

Only IgE could be naturally transferred

d)

Only IgD could be naturally transferred

e)

None of them are correct

32.

Herd immunity threshold of Measles require to provide Herd immunity are about:

a)

95%

b)

65%

c)

75%

d)

85%

e)

55%

33.

What Is An Universal Blood Donor?

a)

AB Rh+

b)

AB Rh-

c)

0 Rh-

d)

0 Rh+

e)

none of them

34.

What is an universal plasma donor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

A + B

e)

None of them

35.

Rh disease caused by anti - D antibodies can occur in 25 yo woman with no history of blood transfusion:

a)

During 1st pregnancy with Rh + fetus

b)

During 2st pregnancy (1st delivered boy was Rh-, now fetus is Rh +)

c)

During 2st pregnancy (1st delivered boy was Rh+ , now fetus is Rh -)

d)

During 3 st pregnancy (1st delivered boy was Rh+ , second child was Rh -, now fetus is Rh+)

e)

all of above

36.

Choose the true statements about Innate Immune Response:

1. Have a rapid response to antigens

2. Have same intensity every time

3. It is stronger and faster upon re-infection

4. Require more time (days) to develop

5. Is evolutionary older

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 3

c)

2, 5

d)

1, 4

e)

1, 5

37.

Which of the following cells are not APC?

a)

Dendric cells

b)

B cells

c)

macrophages

d)

endothelium

e)

T cells

38.

Which of the following signals on a bacterial pathogen is mainly recognized by toll-like receptor 4?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Advanced glycation endproducts

c)

Lipopolysaccharide

d)

Mannose

e)

High mobility group box 1 protein

39.

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) can be present in all of the following forms EXCEPT which of the following?

a)

As a secreted soluble receptor

b)

Within the cell nucleus

c)

Membrane-bound

d)

Within the cytoplasm

e)

As a cell surface molecule

40.

Choose the right sentence about C1inh:

a)

A. His function is to inhibit C1r and C1s serine protease activity

b)

b) Deficiency of C1inh leads to chronic granulomatous disease

c)

c) Deficiency of C1inh leads to hereditary angioedema

d)

A+B+C

e)

A+C

41.

Choose the common features for neutrophils and macrophages:

Can phagocytosis

Express of MHC class II on their surface

Can release immunoglobulins

May release cytokines

Can create reactive oxygen species (ROS)

a)

1, 2, 5

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

1, 4, 5

d)

2, 3, 4

e)

2, 4, 5

42.

Cyclic neutropenia is recognise when patient have:

a)

<5000/μl (even <2000/μl) (per 3-5 days)

b)

<500/μl (even <200/μl) (per 3-5 days)

c)

<5000/μl (even <2000/μl) (per 3-5 weeks)

d)

<500/μl (even <200/μl) (per 3-5 weeks)

e)

<5000/μl (even <2000/μl) (per 3-5 monts)

43.

CGD – chronic granulomatous disease

a)

In this disease, there is a lack of abscesses

b)

Patients will not occur granulomas

c)

The cause is an improper function of T lymphocytes

d)

The cause is the improper function of killing microbes in an oxygendependent way

e)

The cause is an improper function of killing microbes in an oxygenindependent way

44.

Opsonins are:

a)

IgG, LPS, C3b, MBL

b)

IgG, C3a, C5a, CRP

c)

IgG, C3b, C5b, MBL

d)

IgA, CRP, LPS, C6

e)

IgG, CR1, MBL, C5a

45.

What is the function of C5a?

a)

a) Opsonisation

b)

b) Mast cell and basophil degranulation

c)

c) Neutrophil chemotaxis factor

d)

A+B+C

e)

B+C

46.

Which of the following can be recognized by pattern recognition receptors?

a)

Damage-associated molecular patterns and pathogen-associated molecular patterns

b)

Damage-associated molecular patterns on pathogens

c)

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns on host cells

d)

Neither damage-associated molecular patterns or pathogenassociated molecular patterns

e)

Toll-like receptors

47.

Activators of the classical pathway of the Complement system are:

a)

a) CRP

b)

b) IgG4

c)

c) IgM

d)

A + B + C

e)

A + C

48.

C3 convertase of classical pathway are:

a)

C2b2a

b)

C4b2a

c)

C2b4a

d)

C3b4a

e)

C4b4a

49.

Which is a factor that prevents the formation of the MAC?

a)

C1inh

b)

C5b

c)

CD59

d)

CD11

e)

CR1

50.

Choose the similarities between adaptive immune response and complement system

a)

a) Opsonisation

b)

b) Antigen recognition

c)

c) Activation of immune cells

d)

A+B+C

e)

A+C

51.

MHC class I shows peptides to:

a)

CD8+ cells

b)

CD4+ cells

c)

CD9+ cells

d)

B cells

e)

epithelium cells

52.

TCR – T-cell receptor recognise:

a)

a) PAMPs

b)

b) DAMPs

c)

c) MHC type I

d)

A+B

e)

A+B+C

53.

Which antibody is characterized by the ability to complement activation in a classical way, enhancing phagocytosis, ADCC and neutralizing pathogens?

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

54.

Which cells can kill infected cells by fas-fasL and/or perforin-granzyme pathways?

a)

a) NK cells (natural killer)

b)

b) CTL (cytotoxic T cells)

c)

c) B cells

d)

d) Neutrophils

e)

A + B

55.

Which cells modulate the immune system to maintain tolerance to selfantigens?

a)

NK cells

b)

Th17

c)

Th1

d)

Th2

e)

T regs (T regulatory cells)

56.

Characteristics of γδT cells include:

a)

a) constitute around 5% of circulating T cells

b)

b) have specificity for recognition Ag such as heat shock proteins, phospholipids

c)

c) are found in the gut mucosa, skin, lungs and uterus

d)

d) recognize Ag only in association with classical MHC class I and II

e)

correct answer are A & B & C

57.

C reactive protein:

a)

protein found in blood plasma, whose circulating concentrations rise in response to inflammation

b)

it is an acute-phase protein of hepatic origin that increases following interleukin-6 secretion by macrophages and T cells

c)

it is a member of the pentraxin family of proteins.

d)

CRP is synthesized by the liver and activate the complement system via C1q

e)

all answers are correct

58.

The first cell type to respond to most infections are:

a)

ymphocytes B

b)

lymphocytes T

c)

neutrophils

d)

monocytes

e)

dendritic cells

59.

Choose the group of molecules where only DAMP (damage-associated molecular patterns) are listed:

a)

a) Uric acid, extracellular ATP, viral RNA, HSP

b)

b) Uric acid, extracellular DNA, HSP, LPS

c)

c) Uric acid, extracellular ATP, HSP, extracellular DNA

d)

d) Uric acid, mannose, viral RNA, HSP

e)

A + B

60.

Phagocytic receptors are:

a)

TCR, PRR, TLR, FcR

b)

TLR, PRR, FcR, CR

c)

TCR, BCR, PRR, FcR

d)

CR, BCR, TLR, MBL

e)

CRP, MBL, IL6, LPS

61.

Main function of CR – complement receptors are:

a)

facilitating binding and phagocytosis by phagocytic cells of particles or cells coated with antibodies

b)

removal of immune complexes

c)

regulation (mainly inhibition) of complement activation

d)

participation in several types of immune response.

e)

All of the above

62.

Differentiation of naive T cells into Th2 is mediated by:

a)

IL – 1

b)

IL – 2

c)

IL – 3

d)

IL – 4

e)

IL – 5

63.

Which of the following Interleukins role is to increase body temperature:

a)

IL - 1 and IL – 3

b)

IL - 1 and IL – 5

c)

IL - 4 and IL – 5

d)

IL - 1 and IL – 6

e)

IL - 2 and IL - 5

64.

Choose the right information about Polymorphonuclear cells:

1. Are the most numerous blood cell in blood sample

2. are capable of phagocytosis

3. Are able to present antigens to T-helper cells

4. Have a PRR receptors which only PAMPs molecule

5. Can kill pathogens in oxygen-dependent way

6. Are able to create NETs - neutrophil extracellular traps

a)

1, 2, 5, 6

b)

1, 3, 5, 6

c)

2, 4, 6, 1

d)

1, 2, 5, 3

65.

The blood sample from newborn with HDN (Hemolytic disorder of newborns) were taken and tested. Which of the following laboratory results belong to this child?

a)

Anemia, hyperbilirubinemia, Direct Coombs test (positive)

b)

Polycythemia, hyperbilirubinemia, Direct Coombs test (positive)

c)

Anemia, hyperbilirubinemia, indirect Coombs test (positive)

d)

Polycythemia, hyperbilirubinemia, indirect Coombs test (positive)

e)

None of them are correct

66.

what are specific and non-specific type of prevention of HDN (hemolytic disorders of the newborn):

a)

A. Avoid blood transfusion, especially with blood group type incompatibility

b)

B. Avoid intravenous drugs - heroin etc.

c)

C. Anti - D immunoglobulin (RhoGAM)

d)

A+B

e)

A+B+C

67.

Severe hemolytic disease of newborn are treated with: (RBC - Red Blood Cells)

a)

Exchange transfusion with AB Rh negative RBC and phototeraphy

b)

Exchange transfusion with AB Rh positive RBC and phototeraphy

c)

Exchange transfusion with O Rh negative RBC and phototeraphy

d)

Exchange transfusion with O Rh positive RBC and phototeraphy

e)

only phototeraphy are needed

68.

Natural killer T cells (NKT cells) - choose the FALSE statement:

a)

NKT cells make up approximately 10% of the lymphocytes

b)

They express T cell antigen receptors

c)

Have a cytotoxic ability

d)

Play role in regulation of immunological system

e)

None is true

69.

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections the most prevalent type of SCID is:

a)

Omenn syndrome

b)

XSCID

c)

ADA deficiency

d)

RAG1 or/and RAG2 deficiency

e)

CVID

70.

Which of the following receptor are involved in ADCC?

a)

A. FcγRIII

b)

B. FcγRI

c)

C. FcγRII

d)

A + B

e)

A + B + C

71.

MHC class II shows peptides to:

a)

CD8+ cells

b)

CD4+ cells

c)

CD9+ cells

d)

B cells

e)

epithelium cells

72.

Which of the following does NOT contain C3b?

a)

A. classic-pathway C5 convertase

b)

B. alternative-pathway C5 convertase

c)

C. classic-pathway C3 convertase

d)

D. alternative-pathway C4 convertase

e)

C and D

73.

A hematopoietic stem cell is:

a)

A. a cell isolated from the blood or bone marrow

b)

B. can renew itself

c)

C. can differentiate to a variety of specialized cells

d)

D. undergo programmed cell death

e)

all answers

74.

Each of the following statements concerning haptens is correct EXCEPT:

a)

Haptens must be processed by CD8+ cells to become immunogenic.

b)

The hapten-carrier complex, unlike free hapten, can act as an immunogen

c)

In both penicillin-induced anaphylaxis and poison ivy, the allergens are haptens

d)

A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to induce antibody

e)

A hapten can combine with (bindto) an antibody

75.

Natural killer cells are:

a)

able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization.

b)

Professional antigen presenting cells

c)

Increased by immunization

d)

Cytotoxic T cells

e)

B cells that can kill without complement

76.

Cytokines secreted by PAMP-stimulated cells acting on B cells, CD4+ T cells, and CD8+ cells;

a)

A. IL-1, IL-6 stimulate the differentiation of naive CD4+ T cells to the Th17 subset of...

b)

B. IL-12 stimulates the differentiation of naive CD4+ T cells to the Th1 subset of effector....

c)

C. IL-15 promotes the survival of mempry CD8+ T cells

d)

A + B + C

e)

A + B

77.

Professional APCs are:

a)

monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils

b)

dendritic cells, B lymphocytes and Kuppfer cells

c)

B cells, dendritic cells and basophils

d)

B cell, T cells and NK cells

e)

monocytes, neutrophils, B cells

78.

C3 is cleaved to form C3a and C3b by C3 convertase. C3b is involved in all of the following EXCEPT

a)

altering vascular permeability

b)

promoting phagocytosis

c)

forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase

d)

forming C5 convertase

e)

is potent in opsonization

79.

Costimulation molecules (second signal) is important in the induction of immune response. They involved: B7 family molecules expressed on antigen presenting cells, CD28 and CTLA-4 on T-cells

a)

true, however moreimportant is ICOS and GITR

b)

false, costimulation involves HLA class II and T-cell receptor

c)

true, CD28 has a positive costimulatory effect and CTLA-4 negative

d)

first sentence is true, second is false

e)

first sentence is false, second is true

80.

Characteristics of γδT cells includes:

a)

A. constitute around 5% of circulating T cells

b)

B. have specificity of recognition Ag such as: heat shock proteins, phospholipids

c)

C. are found in the gut mucosa, skin, lungs and uterus

d)

D. recognize Ag only in association with classical MHC class I and II

e)

A + B + C

81.

BCR

a)

A. is an immunoglobulin receptor and can recognize peptides, proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipids and small chemicals

b)

B. is an immunoglobulin-like receptor and can recognize only short linear peptides

c)

C. consists of two identical heavy (H) chains & two identical light (L) chains

d)

D. circulating antibodies are structorally identical tl the primary B cell antigen receptors

e)

A + C + D

82.

The lymphocyte antigen receptor repertoire is mostly generated

a)

By cutting and splicing V,D J or D gene segments

b)

mutation of the TCR

c)

in the periphery following exposure to antigen

d)

following vaccination

e)

mutation of BCR and immunoglobulins

83.

Adhesion molecules can control leucocyte migration by

a)

binding to specific antigen

b)

changing lymphocyte

c)

Binding to ligands on the vascular endothelium

d)

agglutinating pathogens in the tissues

e)

binding of opsonizing antibodies to phagocyte

84.

Subset of Th1 cells

a)

A. produced mainly IFN gamma that stimulate macrophages to phacytosis and to antigen presentation

b)

B. produced mainly IL-4, IL-13 and IL-5 that promote the B cells differentiation

c)

C. produces mainly IL-1 and IL-6 that stimulates neutrophils to phagocytosis

d)

B + C

e)

all are false

85.

MHC class I:

a)

A. found on surface of all nucleated cells

b)

B. found on surface of professional antigen presenting cells only

c)

C. include 3 genes called: HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

d)

D. include 4 genes called: HLA-DR, HLA-DM, HLADP, HLA-DQ

e)

A + C

86.

CRP:

a)

A. is an acute phase protein

b)

B. is an opsonine and supress the phagocytosis

c)

C. is the pattern recognition receptor and initiate the classical pathway complement

d)

incorrect answer is B

e)

Correct answer are A + B + C

87.

Adaptive immunity:

a)

A. can be transferred from an immune host to a naive recipient

b)

B. transfer of antibodies is called active immunization

c)

transfer of immune cells is called passive immunization

d)

A + B

e)

A + B + C

88.

Which of the following statements is true about the IgM of humans?

a)

IgM can cross the placenta

b)

IgM can protect the mucosal surface

c)

IgM is produced by high affinity plasma cells

d)

IgM is primarily restricted in the circulation

e)

IgM can induce the process called ADCC

89.

Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT?

a)

Allotypes are found only on heavy chains

b)

Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes

c)

Allotypes are confined to the variable regions

d)

Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species

e)

Allotypes are confined to the IgG superfamily protein

90.

Which one of the following is FALSE?

a)

bone marrow produces B cells, pre-T cells and NK

b)

thymus gland produce T-cells

c)

secondary lymphatic organs is a site of most immune responses

d)

lymph nodes and spleen are surrounded by connective tissue capsule

e)

lymphatic nodules are surrounded by capsule

91.

Neutrophils

a)

A. are the majority of the blood leukocytes and develop from the same early precursors as monocytes and macrophages

b)

B. are the first type of leukocyte to be recruited from the blood into a site of infection or tissue injoury

c)

A + B

d)

C. are the professional antigen presenting cells

e)

A + B + C

92.

Spleen white pulp:

a)

A. contains T cells, B cells and accessory cells

b)

B. at the edge of the T zone is a region known as the marginal zone where larger mechanical filtration of red blood cells

c)

C. lymphocytes & antigen presenting dendritic cells are located

d)

D. reserved of monocytes

e)

A + C

93.

In human, the lymph node marginal zone does not develop fully until 2 years of age. The functional consequence of this delay in developement of the marginal zone is:

a)

reduced ability to respond to blood-bone infections with encapsulated bacteria

b)

reduced ability to respond to infections with fungi

c)

reduced ability to respond to infections with viruses

d)

all answers correct

e)

all answers are false

94.

Innate immune system serves:

a)

A. initial respons to microbes that prevents, controla, or eliminates infection of the host by many microbes

b)

B. recognize the products of damaged & dead host cells & severe to eliminate these cells & to initiate the process of tissue repair

c)

C. is the first line of defense against infections and recognizes molecular structures that are characteristic of mammalian cells

d)

A + B

e)

all answers correct

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