wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Unit 1 - 4 AP Bio Review

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 2hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following does not result from hydrogen bonding in water molecules?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Surface Tension

d)

Dissolving fats

2.

Why is water considered polar?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bonds in structure

b)

Ionic bonds in structure

c)

Polar covalent bonds in structure

d)

Hydrophobic interaction in structure

3.

Which macromolecule(s) have nitrogen?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Nucleic Acids & Proteins

4.

Which macromolecule(s) have phosphorus?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

5.

Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

6.

Describes the forming of a bond between monomers with the removal of a water molecule.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

7.

Describes the breaking of a bond within a polymer using water.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

8.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

pentose sugar

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

phosphate

d)

amino acid

9.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a protein?

a)

Amine Group

b)

R Group

c)

Carboxyl Group

d)

Nitrogenous Base

10.

Describe the orientation of the phospholipids in the membrane.

a)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophilic heads on exterior

b)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophilic head on extracellular

c)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophobic tails on exterior

d)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophobic tails on extracellular

11.

How is DNA/RNA synthesis directionally oriented?

a)

new nucleotides are added to 5' phosphate

b)

new nucleotides are added to 3' phosphate

c)

new nucleotides are added to 5' hydroxyl

d)

new nucleotides are added to 3' hydroxyl

12.

Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix

a)

A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds)

b)

A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds)

c)

A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds)

d)

A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)

13.

What component of the polypeptide is the next amino acid added forming the peptide bond?

a)

amino group

b)

hydrogen

c)

carboxyl group

d)

R groups

14.

Which protein involves R group bonding to form the final three dimensional structure?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

15.

Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

16.

DNA and RNA differ on many qualities, which of the following is NOT a difference?

a)

Sugar

b)

Nitrogenous Base

c)

Phosphate Group

d)

Strandedness

17.

Describe the difference between rough ER and smooth ER.

a)

Rough ER compartmentalizes cell; Smooth ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis

b)

Rough ER functions in ribosome synthesis; Smooth ER functions in lipid synthesis

c)

Rough ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis; Smooth ER compartmentalizes cell

d)

Rough ER functions in lipid synthesis; Smooth ER functions in ribosome synthesis

18.

Which organelle is a membrane-bound structure that functions in correct folding/chemical modification of proteins?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

19.

Which is membrane-enclosed sacs that contain hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

20.

Which is responsible for storage and release of macromolecules and cellular waster products. In plants, aids in turgor.

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

21.

Which of the following is the location for the light-dependent reactions?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

22.

Which of the following is the location for the Krebs cycle?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

23.

Which of the following is the location for the ATP synthesis in cellular respiration?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

24.

Which of the following is the location for the ATP synthesis in photosynthesis?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

25.

Describe the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratios.

a)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio increases

b)

As cells decrease in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

c)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

d)

Cell size has no effect on the SA:V ratio

26.

Describe the characteristics of a membrane-bound protein.

a)

Entire protein is hydrophilic

b)

Entire protein is hydrophobic

c)

Hydrophilic R group exterior cell & hydrophobic R group interior membrane

d)

Hydrophilic R group interior membrane & hydrophobic R group interior cell

27.

Identify which of the following will easily pass through the membrane.

a)

Water

b)

Protein Hormone

c)

Steroid Hormone

d)

Charged Ion

28.

Identify which of the following will bind to a membrane protein (and will not enter the cell).

a)

Water

b)

Protein Hormone

c)

Steroid Hormone

d)

Charged Ion

29.

Which of the following requires an input of energy for membrane transport?

a)

Charged ion moving against concentration gradient

b)

Water moving into a hypertonic cell

c)

Charged ion moving with concentration gradient

d)

Water moving out of a hypotonic cell

30.

What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?

a)

Endocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell entering

b)

Endocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to bring materials in cell

c)

Exocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell exiting

d)

Exocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to remove material from cell

31.

Which of the following correctly describe the movement of water?

a)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 1.0M exterior solution

b)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

c)

Cell with 1.0M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

d)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will lose water to the 0.5M exterior solution

32.

Why is a eukaryotic cell able to be larger than a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Membrane-bound organelles compartmentalize intracellular processes

b)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

c)

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

d)

Absence of membrane-bound organelles allows for enzymatic reactions.

33.

If ATP breakdown (hydrolysis) is inhibited, which of the following types of movement across cell membranes is also inhibited?

a)

Movement of oxygen into a cell

b)

Movement of water through aquaporins

c)

Passage of a solute against its concentration gradient

d)

Facilitated diffusion of a permeable substance

34.

A common laboratory investigation involves putting a solution of starch and glucose into a dialysis bag and suspending the bag in a beaker of water, as shown in the figure below.


The investigation is aimed at understanding how molecular size affects movement through a membrane.


Which of the following best represents the amount of starch, water, and glucose in the dialysis bag over the course of the investigation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
35.

Cystic fibrosis is a recessively inherited disorder that results from a mutation in the gene encoding CFTR chloride ion channels located on the surface of many epithelial cells. As shown in the figure, the mutation prevents the normal movement of chloride ions from the cytosol of the cell to the extracellular fluid. As a consequence of the mutation, the mucus layer that is normally present on the surface of the cells becomes exceptionally dehydrated and viscous.


An answer to which of the following questions would provide the most information about the association between the CFTR mutation and the viscous mucus?

a)

Is the mucus also secreted from the cells through the CFTR proteins?

b)

How does the disrupted chloride movement affect the movement of sodium ions and water by the cell?

c)

How does the mutation alter the structure of the CFTR proteins?

d)

What is the change in nucleotide sequence that results in the CFTR mutation?

36.

You are a farmer growing crops. The concentration of your potatoes are 0.35M and you are advised to water your plants with a 0.35M saline solution to provide nutrients. What happens to the plant cells?

a)

Cells are normal since this is an isotonic solution.

b)

Cells become flaccid since this is an isotonic solution.

c)

Cell become plasmolyzed since this is an isotonic solution.

37.

You are a doctor. A patient comes in dehydrated. What type of solution would be best to place into their IV?

a)

A hypotonic solution to allow the cells to rehydrate.

b)

A slightly hypertonic solution to allow the cells to rehydrate.

c)

An isotonic solution to increase fluid in the body without causing harm to the cells.

d)

An isotonic solution to decrease fluid in the body without causing harm to the cells.

38.

Which of the following describes an appropriate water movement pathway?

a)

hypotonic solution to hypertonic solution

b)

hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution

c)

hypertonic solution to isotonic solution

d)

isotonic solution to hypotonic solution

39.

What is the difference between the molecule transported in facilitated diffusion versus simple diffusion?

a)

facilitated diffusion involves nonpolar solute transport through a membrane protein

b)

simple diffusion involves nonpolar solute transport through a membrane protein

c)

facilitated diffusion involves polar solute transport through a membrane protein

d)

simple diffusion involved polar solute transport through a membrane protein

40.

Which of the following describes the difference between passive and active transport?

a)

passive transport involves moving solutes against the concentration gradient using ATP.

b)

active transport involves moving solutes against the concentration gradient using ATP.

c)

passive transport involves moving solutes with the concentration gradient using ATP.

d)

active transport involves moving solutes with the concentration gradient using ATP.

41.

Which of the following describes the difference between channel and carrier transport proteins?

a)

channel proteins bind to solute to shuttle the solute across the membrane

b)

channel proteins provide a nonpolar channel through the membrane

c)

carrier proteins bind to solute to shuttle the solute across the membrane

d)

carrier proteins provide a nonpolar channel through the membrane

42.

Describe what would happen if you placed an animal cell in 1.0 M solution.

a)

The cell would lyse

b)

The cell would be flaccid

c)

The cell would shrivel

d)

The cell would be normal

43.

Describe what would happen if you placed a plant cell in a 0.0 M solution.

a)

The cell would lyse

b)

The cell would be turgid

c)

The cell would plasmolyze

d)

The cell would be flaccid

44.

What organelle found in a plant cell provides the plant cell with turgid pressure?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Central Vacuole

d)

Lysosome

45.

What property of the plasma membrane allows for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse by simple diffusion?

a)

Phospholipids are nonpolar allowing for small, nonpolar substances to dissolve.

b)

Phospholipids are polar allowing for small, polar substances to dissolve.

c)

Phospholipids are amphipathic allowing for a nonpolar interior for nonpolar substances to diffuse.

d)

Phospholipids are amphipathic allowing for polar interior for polar substances to diffuse.

46.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. Which organelle synthesized the protein?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

47.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. After being synthesized, where does it go to be modified, packaged, and sorted?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

48.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of cells. How can you determine these are eukaryotic cells?

a)

They have ribosomes.

b)

They have membrane bound organelles.

c)

They have DNA.

d)

The have a plasma membrane.

49.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of cell X.

a)

Detoxification.

b)

Secretion of Proteins.

c)

Mobility.

d)

Storage.

50.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of cell Y.

a)

Detoxification.

b)

Secretion of Proteins.

c)

Mobility.

d)

Storage.

51.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of cell z.

a)

Detoxification.

b)

Secretion of Proteins.

c)

Mobility.

d)

Storage.

52.

How does the location of the ribosome affect the type of protein product?

a)

free ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins while bound ribosomes synthesize membrane proteins

b)

free ribosomes synthesize membrane proteins while bound ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins

c)

free ribosomes synthesize proteins for the mitochondria while bound ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins.

d)

free ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins while bound ribosomes synthesize proteins for the mitochondria.

53.

Where is the mRNA used for synthesis of proteins made?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

rough ER

d)

smooth ER

54.

What organelle is responsible for storing calcium?

a)

lysosome

b)

smooth ER

c)

rough ER

d)

Golgi Bodies

55.

Tay Sachs results from a build-up of fats due to an error in which organelle that is responsible for digesting macromolecules?

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosome

d)

Golgi Bodies

56.
Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes?
a)
Molecules such as cellulose can pull them in various directions.
b)
The interior of the membrane is filled with liquid water.
c)
There are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane.
d)
There are no covalent bonds between lipid and protein in the membrane.
57.
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease in humans in which chloride ion channels in cell membranes are missing or nonfunctional. If a young male child has cystic fibrosis, which of the following would affect his fertility?
a)
incomplete maturation of the testes
b)
inability to make sperm
c)
incorrect concentrations of ions in semen
d)
failure to form genital structures appropriately
58.
An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane would likely be impaired in which function?
a)
cell-cell recognition
b)
establishing the diffusion barrier to charged molecules
c)
transporting ions against an electrochemical gradient
d)
attaching to the cytoskeleton
59.
Cells of the pancreas will incorporate radioactively labeled amino acids into proteins. This "tagging" of newly synthesized proteins enables a researcher to track their location. In this case, we are tracking an enzyme secreted by pancreatic cells. What is its most likely pathway?
a)
Golgi -> ER -> lysosome
b)
nucleus -> ER -> Golgi
c)
ER -> Golgi -> vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
d)
ER -> Golgi -> nucleus
60.
All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
a)
ribosomes.
b)
an endoplasmic reticulum.
c)
a cell wall.
d)
DNA.
61.
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane?
a)
It exhibits a specificity for a particular type of molecule.
b)
It works against diffusion.
c)
It is a peripheral membrane protein.
d)
It has few, if any, hydrophobic amino acids.
62.
Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?
a)
desmosomes
b)
extracellular matrix
c)
gap junctions
d)
tight junctions
63.
In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to be which of the following?
a)
amphipathic
b)
hydrophobic
c)
hydrophilic
d)
exposed on only one surface of the membrane
64.
A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from
a)
an animal, but not a plant.
b)
any kind of organism.
c)
a plant, but not an animal.
d)
a plant or an animal.
65.
Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a predominance of free ribosomes?
a)
a cell that is constructing its cell wall or extracellular matrix
b)
a cell that is secreting proteins
c)
a cell that is producing cytoplasmic enzymes
d)
a cell that is enlarging its vacuole
66.
Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Using this information, which transport mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport pumps
d)
simple diffusion
67.
The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that
a)
plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells.
b)
the basic functions of plant cells are very different from those of animal cells.
c)
plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
d)
animal cells are more spherical, while plant cells are elongated.
68.
What is the function of nucleus?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
69.
What is the difference between active and passive transport?
a)
Active does not need energy and passive uses ATP (energy)
b)
Active uses ATP (energy) and passive does not need energy
c)
Active stores transport proteins and passive releases 
d)
Active uses hormones and passive does not 
70.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
71.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
72.
Bacteria are engulfed by
a)
Pinocytosis
b)
Receptor mediated endocytosis
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Phagocytosis
73.

Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?

a)

active site

b)

allosteric site

c)

C-terminus

d)

N-terminus

74.

Describe the effect on the free energy of doubling the amount of enzyme.

a)

double the free energy

b)

half the free energy

c)

triple the free energy

d)

no effect on free energy

75.

Which structure is unaffected by denaturation?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

76.

Which environmental conditions can cause denaturation of the enzyme?

a)

slight increase in temperature

b)

extreme increase in temperature

c)

decrease in temperature

d)

extreme increase in temperature and pH changes

77.

Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?

a)

increase product

b)

increase substrate

c)

increase inhibitor

d)

increase enzyme

78.

Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.

a)

increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles

b)

increase in temperature activates more enzyme to increase the rate

c)

increase in temperature results in increase in substrate available

d)

increase in temperature allows for a tighter fit in the active site

79.

Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.

a)

noncompetitive binds to active site and competitive binds to other site

b)

competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site

c)

competitive is irreversible and noncompetitive is reversible binding

d)

noncompetitive is irreversible and competitive is reversible binding

80.

In order to maintain order and power cellular processes,

a)

energy input must exceed energy loss

b)

energy input equals energy loss

c)

energy loss must exceed energy input

d)

energy loss equals energy input

81.

What is the process of an endergonic reaction being fueled by an exergonic reaction called?

a)

second law of thermodynamics

b)

energy coupling

c)

first law of thermodynamics

d)

endergonic/exergonic switch

82.

Where did photosynthesis first evolve?

a)

prokaryotic organisms

b)

alien organisms

c)

eukaryotic organisms

d)

abiotic processes

83.

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP & NADH

b)

CO2 & H2O

c)

NADPH & ATP

d)

Organic Compounds & O2

84.

What is the function of the electron transport chain between Photosystem II and Photosystem I?

a)

establish electrochemical gradient of protons

b)

to funnel electrons into photosystem I for the Calvin cycle

c)

transport electrons to oxygen to make water

d)

to synthesize ATP using ATP synthase

85.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

cristae

c)

stroma

d)

matrix

86.

Where does the electron transport chain take place?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

prokaryotic plasma membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

all of the choices

87.

Which of the following are electron carriers for the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?

a)

NADPH

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

NADH & FADH2

88.

Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Fermentation

89.

What is oxidation?

a)

loss of electrons

b)

loss of water

c)

gain of electrons

d)

gain of water

90.

In the electron transport chain of cellular respiration, where is the electrochemical gradient of protons generated?

a)

cytosol

b)

cristae

c)

matrix

d)

intermembrane space

91.

Which process does NOT require oxygen?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Aerobic respiration

92.

Describe the pathway of electrons in the light reactions.

a)

H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADPH

b)

H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADPH

c)

H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADH

d)

H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADH

93.

In 1944 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed transformation experiments using live, harmless bacteria and extracts from virulent bacteria treated with various enzymes. Which of the following enzymes were used and why?

a)

Proteases and RNases to rule out protein and RNA as the transforming factors

b)

Lipase (an enzyme that facilitates the breakdown of lipids) to rule out lipoproteins as the transforming factor

c)

Kinase (an enzyme that facilitates transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate molecule) to show that transformation is phosphorylation dependent

d)

ATPase to show that transformation is not dependent on ATP

94.

A student in a biology class crossed a male Drosophila melanogaster having a gray body and long wings with a female D. melanogaster having a black body and apterous wings. The following distribution of traits was observed in the offspring.


Which of the following is supported by the data?

a)

The alleles for gray body and long wings are dominant.

b)

The alleles for gray body and long wings are recessive.

c)

Genes for the two traits are located on two different chromosomes, and independent assortment occurred.

d)

Genes for the two traits are located close together on the same chromosome, and crossing over occurred between the two gene loci.

95.

If chemical signals in the cytoplasm control the progression of a cell to the M phase of the cell cycle, then fusion of a cell in G1 with a cell in early M phase would most likely result in the

a)

replication of chromosomes only in the G1 cell

b)

exiting of both cells from the cell cycle and into the G0 phase

c)

condensation of chromatin in preparation of nuclear division in both cells

d)

transfer of organelles from the G1 cell to the cell in the M phase

96.

Phase involving sister chromatids aligning on plate in middle of cell

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

97.

Phase involving pairing of sister chromatids and condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

98.

Which checkpoint involves ensuring all microtubules are attached to kinetochores?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

99.

Which checkpoint involves determining whether the cell should divide?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

100.

Which of the following occurs BEFORE the process of mitosis?

a)

Sister chromatids pair up

b)

DNA is replicated

c)

Chromatin is condensed to chromosomes

d)

Cytoplasm is divided between two cells

101.

Which of the following describes the order of processes in the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Interphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Cytokinesis, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Interphase, Cytokinesis, Telophase

102.

Which of the following describes the result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical, haploid cells

b)

4 non-identical haploid cells

c)

2 identical, diploid cells

d)

4 non-identical, diploid cells

103.

In a monohybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

104.

In a monohybrid cross of incomplete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

105.

In a dihybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

106.

In a population of 100 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous dominant in a cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

107.

In a population of 200 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous recessive in a cross between a heterozygous and a homozygous recessive?

a)

0

b)

50

c)

100

d)

150

e)

200

108.

In a cross between a white (recessive) and red (dominant), what is the probability of a pink offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

109.

In a cross between a white, terminal (recessive) and red, axial (dominant), what is the probability of a red, axial offspring?

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

9/16

d)

16/16

110.

In a cross between an individual with A blood and an individual with B blood, what is the probability of an offspring with O blood?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

111.

In a cross between two roan cows, what is the probability of a white cow?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

112.

Identify which of the following descriptions about dominance are correct

a)

Incomplete dominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same.

b)

Incomplete dominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits.

c)

Codominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

d)

Codominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same.

113.

Griffith investigated R and S strains with mice. What did he conclude about the S strain and the R strain in the trial with heat-killed S strain and living R strain?

a)

The mouse lived as the R strain provided protection from the nonliving S strain.

b)

The mouse died as the R strain did not provide protection from the nonliving S strain.

c)

The mouse lived as the R strain was not affected by a transforming agent released from the nonliving S strain.

d)

The mouse died as the R strain was affected by a transforming agent released from the nonliving S strain

114.

What was the difference between the R and S strains in the Griffith experiment?

a)

R strain was pathogenic while S strain was not pathogenic

b)

R strain was not pathogenic while S strain was pathogenic

c)

R strain had antibodies against the S strain

d)

S strain had antibodies against the R strain

115.

What feature did Hershey and Chase use to differentiate between the protein and nucleic acid in their experiment?

a)

Proteins have phosphorus and Nucleic acids have sulfur

b)

Proteins have sulfur and Nucleic acids have phosphorus

c)

Proteins are single stranded and Nucleic acids are double stranded

d)

Proteins are double stranded and Nucleic acids are single stranded

116.

What technology did Rosalind Franklin use to produce the image of the DNA molecule used by Watson & Crick?

a)

X-ray crystallography

b)

Electron microscope

c)

Light microscope

d)

NMR

117.

Based on the conservative model, what are the predicted results from two rounds of replications in the Meselson-Stahl experiment where the initial strands are 15N and the new strands are 14N?

a)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a light (14N) band and a hybrid (14N-15N) band

b)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band

c)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band.

d)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N).

118.

Based on the semiconservative model, what are the predicted results from two rounds of replications in the Meselson-Stahl experiment where the initial strands are 15N and the new strands are 14N?

a)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a light (14N) band and a hybrid (14N-15N) band

b)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band

c)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band.

d)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N).

119.

Based on the dispersive model, what are the predicted results from two rounds of replications in the Meselson-Stahl experiment where the initial strands are 15N and the new strands are 14N?

a)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a light (14N) band and a hybrid (14N-15N) band

b)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band

c)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band.

d)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N).

120.

Which of the following did Watson & Crick determine from the image provided by Rosalind Franklin of DNA?

a)

approximate width of the DNA molecule

b)

length of one turn of the DNA molecule

c)

number of nucleotides in the DNA molecule

d)

nitrogenous bases order in the DNA molecule

121.

What information did Chargaff provide to Watson and Crick to aid in their understanding of base pairing?

a)

adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine.

b)

adenine pairs with guanine and thymine pairs with cytosine.

c)

adenine pairs with cytosine and guanine pairs with thymine.

d)

adenine pairs with adenine and thymine pairs with thymine.

122.

Which scientist(s) conclusively proved that DNA was the genetic material for organisms?

a)

Chargaff

b)

Watson & Crick (+ Rosalind Franklin)

c)

Griffith

d)

Hershey & Chase

e)

Meselson & Stahl

123.

Rosalind Franklin’s x-ray diffraction images taken in the 1950s most directly support which of the following claims about DNA?

a)

The ratios of base pairs are constant.

b)

The nucleotide sequence determines genetic information.

c)

The two strands of DNA are antiparallel.

d)

The basic molecular structure is a helix.

124.

A new mutation that arose in one copy of gene X in a somatic cell resulted in the formation of a tumor. Which of the following pieces of evidence best describes how the new mutation directly caused the tumor?

a)

Protein X normally stimulates cell division, and the mutation created an overactive version of protein X.

b)

Protein X normally activates a growth hormone receptor, and the mutation decreased the stability of protein X.

c)

Protein X normally prevents passage through the cell cycle, and the mutation created an overactive version of protein X.

d)

Protein X normally regulates gene expression, and the mutation created an underactive version of protein X that blocked the cell cycle.

125.

Which of the following is the best justification for why the rabbit hemoglobin proteins were found throughout the tadpole?

a)

Rabbit mRNA is composed of nucleotides that are more stable than those in frog mRNA.

b)

Rabbit hemoglobin is synthesized more efficiently than frog hemoglobin in frog cells.

c)

After differentiation, the rabbit hemoglobin proteins move through the circulatory system of the tadpole to every cell.

d)

The mRNA injected into the newly fertilized frog eggs is distributed in the cytoplasm of every daughter cell during cell division.

126.

Possessing a single copy of the HbS allele has been shown to provide some resistance to infection by Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite that causes malaria. Which of the following individuals represented in the pedigree would have the greatest selective advantage in an area where malaria is common?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

V

127.

What is the result of meiosis?

a)

2 haploid unique cells

b)

2 diploid identical cells

c)

4 haploid unique cells

d)

4 diploid identical cells

128.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

129.

When does independent assortment occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

130.

During meiosis I, which of the following are paired, aligned, and separated?

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

kinetochore microtubules

d)

signaling molecules

131.

During meiosis II, which of the following are paired, aligned, and separated?

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

kinetochore microtubules

d)

signaling molecules

132.

How does mitosis and meiosis differ?

a)

mitosis has 1 round of replication and 2 rounds of division while meiosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division

b)

mitosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division while meiosis has 1 round of replication and 2 rounds of division

c)

mitosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division while meiosis has 2 rounds of replication and 2 rounds of division

d)

mitosis has 2 rounds of replication and 2 rounds of division while meiosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division

133.

At the end of telophase I, the resulting daughter cells are?

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

134.

Which of the following resulted from nondisjunction?

a)

Three copies of chromosome 21

b)

Three copies of all chromosomes

c)

Two copies of all chromosomes

d)

Two copies of chromosome 21

135.

When observing a karyotype, how can one determine that a case of nondisjunction occurred?

a)

There are two sets of all chromosomes

b)

There is only one of an autosomal chromosome

c)

There are two X chromosomes.

d)

There is a only one X and Y chromosome.

136.

What happens to the additional X chromosome found in female cells?

a)

The extra X chromosome produces extra protein products.

b)

The extra X chromosome is deactivated and stored as Barr body

c)

There is no extra X chromosome found in female cells.

d)

The extra X is stored in the eggs in the ovaries of females for future usage.

137.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for synthesizing the new DNA strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA ligase

138.

What is the difference between leading and lagging strands?

a)

DNA is synthesized in a 5' to 3' direction on the lagging strand and a 3' to 5' direction on the leading strand

b)

DNA is synthesized in a 3' to 5' direction on the lagging strand and a 5' to 3' direction on the leading strand

c)

DNA is synthesized continuously on the leading strand and discontinuously on the lagging strand

d)

DNA is synthesized discontinuously on the leading strand and continuously on the lagging strand

139.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for joining the Okazaki fragments?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA ligase

140.

Which of the following explains the base pairing rules?

a)

G pairs with T with 3 hydrogen bonds and A pairs with C with 2 hydrogen bonds

b)

G pairs with T with 2 hydrogen bonds and A pairs with C with 3 hydrogen bonds

c)

A pairs with T with 2 hydrogen bonds and G pairs with C with 3 hydrogen bonds

d)

A pairs with T with 3 hydrogen bonds and G pairs with C with 2 hydrogen bonds

141.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds between nucleotides?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA ligase

142.

Which of the following explains why DNA polymerase requires primase for synthesis of a new strand?

a)

DNA polymerase requires an open 3' end

b)

DNA polymerase requires an open 5' end

c)

DNA polymerase requires ATP

d)

DNA polymerase requires a promoter

143.

Which of the following describes the 5' end?

a)

phosphate attached to the pentose sugar

b)

hydroxyl attached to the pentose sugar

c)

nitrogenous base attached to the pentose sugar

d)

the next nucleotide attached to the pentose sugar

144.

Which of the following describes how DNA replication differs between a prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes have circular DNA requiring one origin of replication while eukaryotes have multiple origins on linear DNA

b)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA requiring one origin of replication while eukaryotes have multiple origins on circular DNA

c)

Prokaryotes have circular DNA requiring multiple origins of replication while eukaryotes have one origin on linear DNA

d)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA requiring multiple origins of replication while eukaryotes have one origin on circular DNA

145.

Which of the following describes why there is a leading and lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

DNA is antiparallel

b)

DNA is negatively charged

c)

DNA has a phosphate group

d)

DNA has hydrogen bonds

146.

Which of the following strands would be more stable at a higher temperature?

a)

AATTAATTAATT

b)

CCGGCCGGCCGG

c)

ATCGATCGATCGAT

d)

CGATCGATCGATCG

147.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

148.

Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction?

a)

secondary messengers

b)

protein modification

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

ligands

149.

Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway?

a)

cell growth

b)

gene expression

c)

secretion of molecules

d)

all of the above are responses

150.

Describe what occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor.

a)

confirmation change in shape of receptor

b)

phosphorylation of ligand

c)

ligand passes through the membrane

d)

receptor binds additional ligands

151.

Describe the impact of a mutation in any domain of the protein components of the transduction signaling pathway.

a)

receptor unable to bind to ligand

b)

no changes in transduction due to initial signal transduction from ligand

c)

alters response of the cell

d)

amplification of signaling pathway to bind more ligands

152.

Which feedback mechanism involves homeostasis of a particular condition by regulating physiological processes?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

153.

Which feedback mechanism involves amplifying responses and processes in biological organisms?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

154.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

155.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

156.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

157.

Which of the following is NOT a role of mitosis?

a)

gametes

b)

tissue repair

c)

growth

d)

asexual reproduction

158.

Which checkpoint is responsible for ensuring nondisjunction does not take place?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

159.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

160.

Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

161.

Which of the following is NOT a step in cellular respiration?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

d)

Calvin Cycle

162.

Where does glycolysis take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial Matrix

c)

Mitochondrial Cristae

d)

Stroma

e)

Thylakoid Membrane

163.

What is the input of glycolysis?

a)

glucose

b)

pyruvate

c)

NADH

d)

G3P

164.

What is the output of glycolysis?

a)

glucose

b)

2 pyruvate

c)

2 NADH

d)

2 ATP

e)

2 FADH2

165.

What is the main function of glycolysis?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

166.

What is the main function of glycolysis?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

167.

Where does Krebs cycle take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial Matrix

c)

Mitochondrial Cristae

d)

Stroma

e)

Thylakoid Membrane

168.

What is the input of Krebs cycle?

a)

pyruvate

b)

acetyl CoA

c)

glucose

d)

NADH

169.

What is the output of Krebs cycle (one turn)?

a)

3 NADH

b)

1 FADH2

c)

1 ATP

d)

2 CO2

e)

acetyl CoA

170.

What is the main function of Krebs cycle?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

171.

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial Matrix

c)

Mitochondrial Cristae

d)

Stroma

e)

Thylakoid Membrane

172.

What is the output of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

glucose

173.

What is the main function of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

174.

Which step of cellular respiration REQUIRES oxygen?

a)

glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Calvin cycle

175.

Which step can be performed by prokaryotes AND eukaryotes?

a)

glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Calvin cycle

176.

Which of the following is NOT a part of photosynthesis?

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Light reactions

c)

Light independent reactions

d)

Krebs cycle

177.

Where do the light reactions take place?

a)

cytosol

b)

thylakoid membrane

c)

stroma

d)

mitochondrial matrix

178.

What is the input for the light reactions?

a)

light energy

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

H2O

179.

What is the output for the light reactions?

a)

light energy

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

H2O

180.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

cytosol

b)

thylakoid membrane

c)

stroma

d)

mitochondrial matrix

181.

What is the input for the Calvin cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

NADPH

d)

ATP

e)

G3P

182.

What is the output for the Calvin cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

NADPH

d)

ATP

e)

G3P

183.

How many CO2 molecules are needed to make 1 G3P?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

184.

How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required for 1 G3P to be synthesized?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

185.

How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required for 1 G3P to be synthesized?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

186.

How many NADPHs are required for the Calvin cycle?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

9

187.

How many ATPs are required for the Calvin cycle?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

9

188.

Which of the following describes the pathway of electrons in the light reactions?

a)

O2 -> PS II -> PS I -> NADH

b)

O2 -> PS II -> PS I -> NADPH

c)

O2 -> PS I -> PS II -> NADPH

d)

O2 -> PS I -> PS II -> NADH

189.

Which of the following include an electron transport chain?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Mitochondria & Chloroplast

d)

Plasma Membrane

190.

Where are the ATP and the NADPH synthesized in photosynthesis?

a)

thylakoid space

b)

stroma

c)

mitochondria

d)

cytosol

191.

Where are the ATP and the NADPH synthesized in photosynthesis?

a)

thylakoid space

b)

stroma

c)

mitochondria

d)

cytosol

192.

Which direction are the protons pumped in the electron transport chain found in photosynthesis?

a)

into the thylakoid space

b)

into the stroma

c)

into the intermembrane space

d)

into the cytosol

193.

Which direction are the protons pumped in the electron transport chain found in cellular respiration?

a)

into the thylakoid space

b)

into the matrix

c)

into the intermembrane space

d)

into the cytosol

194.

What is the difference between endergonic and exergonic reactions?

a)

Endergonic requires input of energy from the environment and exergonic released energy to the environment

b)

Endergonic releases energy to the environment and exergonic requires input of energy from the environment

c)

Endergonic is catabolic, dehydration reactions and exergonic is anabolic, hydrolysis reactions

d)

Endergonic is anabolic, hydrolysis reactions and exergonic is catabolic, dehydration reactions

195.

What is the difference between endergonic and exergonic reactions?

a)

Endergonic requires input of energy from the environment and exergonic released energy to the environment

b)

Endergonic releases energy to the environment and exergonic requires input of energy from the environment

c)

Endergonic is catabolic, dehydration reactions and exergonic is anabolic, hydrolysis reactions

d)

Endergonic is anabolic, hydrolysis reactions and exergonic is catabolic, dehydration reactions

196.

Describe energy coupling.

a)

Pairing an endergonic reaction requiring energy with an exergonic reaction providing energy.

b)

Pairing two exergonic reactions together.

c)

Pairing two endergonic reactions together.

d)

Pairing an endergonic reaction providing energy with an exergonic reaction requiring energy.

197.

Describe the function of fermentation.

a)

To synthesize ATP in the absence of oxygen.

b)

To regenerate NADH required for glycolysis.

c)

To synthesize ATP in the presence of oxygen.

d)

To regenerate NADH required for electron transport

198.

Which of the following is oxidized in cellular respiration?

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

carbon dioxide

199.

Which of the following is oxidized in photosynthesis?

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

carbon dioxide

200.

Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

NADH

d)

NADPH

201.

Which of the following is the reduced in the Calvin cycle?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

NADH

d)

NADPH

202.

Which of the following is NOT found in the Calvin cycle?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

NADPH

203.

Which of the following is NOT found in the Krebs cycle?

a)

Glucose

b)

FADH2

c)

ATP

d)

NADH

204.

Which of the following questions is most relevant to understanding the Calvin cycle?

a)

How does chlorophyll capture light?

b)

How is ATP used in the formation of 3-carbon carbohydrates?

c)

How is NADP+ reduced to NADPH?

d)

How is ATP produced in chemiosmosis?

205.

Which of the following provides the best indication that light is required for the activation of electron transfer reactions in chloroplasts?

a)

Calculating the rate of change of the absorbance for sample 1

b)

Comparing the observed results for sample 2 and sample 3

c)

Repeating the entire experimental procedure at night

d)

Including multiple trials for all the samples

206.

Which of the following can be reasonably concluded from the experimental results?

a)

Chloroplasts must be suspended in a buffer solution to function properly.

b)

The optimal temperature for activation of electron transfer is 25°C.

c)

DCPIP inhibits biochemical reactions in suspended chloroplasts.

d)

Light from a lamp can substitute for sunlight in stimulating chloroplast processes

207.

If an additional sample containing the chloroplast/DCPIP solution was placed at a distance of 90 cm from the lamp, which of the following predictions would be most consistent with the experimental results?

a)

The concentration of DCPIP in the solution will increase exponentially.

b)

The absorbance at 60 minutes will be roughly equal to 1.4.

c)

The change in absorbance over time in the solution will be less than that of the other samples.

d)

The temperature of the solution will exceed 75°C.

208.

Which of the following descriptions of photosynthesis best explains the results of the experiment?

a)

Availability of electrons for transfer to DCPIP depends on light energy.

b)

Movement of DCPIP across chloroplast membranes occurs in less than 60 minutes.

c)

Chlorophyll molecules degrade rapidly in the presence of DCPIP.

d)

DCPIP can only be used to measure photosynthetic activity at low light levels.

209.

Which of the following scientific questions could be investigated using a similar experimental setup?

a)

How much carbon dioxide is required by a plant cell to produce one molecule of glucose?

b)

What wavelength of light best activates electron transfer reactions in chloroplasts?

c)

Which molecule in chloroplasts accepts activated electrons from DCPIP during photosynthesis?

d)

Are the same genes that are expressed in chloroplasts also expressed in mitochondria?

210.

Students in a class measured the mass of various living organisms. They then kept the organisms in the dark for 24 hours before remeasuring them. None of the organisms were provided with nutrients during the 24-hour period. The data are as follows.


Which of the following is the best explanation for the pattern of change in mass of the organisms over time?

a)

Water loss due to evaporation

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

The law of conservation of matter

d)

Growth and reproduction

Similar Resources on Wayground

Keystone Review

210 questions

Keystone Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

BÀI 16, 17 SINH 10 CÁNH DIỀU

208 questions

BÀI 16, 17 SINH 10 CÁNH DIỀU

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

MEGA Biology EOC Review

211 questions

MEGA Biology EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Biology 20 UD Review II

211 questions

Biology 20 UD Review II

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade