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WorksheetsBiology Final Exam
Total questions: 210
Worksheet time: 17hrs 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
As an undergraduate student you partake in an undergraduate research project. You decide to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. You decide to radioactively label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. Your reasoning is that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. After going through all the work of setting up and performing this experiment, your professor gives you an F! Why did your professor give you a failing grade?
a)
A) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive.
b)
B) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long.
c)
C) Avery et al. have already concluded that this experiment showed inconclusive results.
d)
D) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.
2.
Phosphorescent bacteria are those which emit light (glow). You decide to mix a living nonphosphorescent strain of bacteria with a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria. You then discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observation(s) is the best evidence to conclude that the ability to have phosphoresce is a heritable trait?
a)
A) The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright.
b)
B) Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
c)
C) Both DNA and protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
d)
D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent.
3.
Adenine makes up 12% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be cytosine?
a)
A) 12%
b)
B) 24%
c)
C) 38%
d)
D) 76%
4.
TOP2A is a gene responsible for the coding of a type of topoisomerase in humans, If TOP2A is mutated and topoisomerase can no longer function, which of the following will mostly likely occur?
a)
A) No proofreading will occur.
b)
B) Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
c)
C) No replication fork will be formed.
d)
D) The DNA will supercoil.
5.
What enzyme is responsible for joining Okazaki fragments together on the lagging strand during DNA replication?
a)
A) topoisomerase
b)
B) DNA polymerase III
c)
C) DNA ligase
d)
D) helicase
6.
Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disorder in which those individuals are hypersensitive to sunlight. Being exposed to even small amounts of UV rays from the sun can cause skin cancer. This occurs because their cells are impaired in what way?
a)
A) They do not recombine homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
b)
B) They cannot repair thymine dimers – damage to their DNA.
c)
C) They cannot undergo mitosis.
d)
D) They cannot replicate DNA.
7.
What would be a likely effect if a cell were unable to produce histone proteins?
a)
A) Nothing, histone proteins are a non-functioning protein in the cell.
b)
B) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.
c)
C) The cell's DNA could not be packed into its nucleus.
d)
D) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
8.
In DNA chromatin, heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact. Which of the following are true statements in regards to this? [select all that apply]
[ALL OF THEM ARE CORRECT]
[ALL OF THEM ARE CORRECT]
a)
A) Euchromatin is less transcriptionally active than heterochromatin
b)
B) Genes are typically located in the euchromatin area of chromatin
c)
C) Heterochromatin is an area of DNA where genes are “turned on”
d)
D) Telomeres are areas of heterochromatin
9.
The segment of DNA shown in the figure has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
10.
How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
a)
A) by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds
b)
B) by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
c)
C) by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
d)
D) by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
11.
Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
12.
A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest.Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate?
a)
A) Each of these students is heterozygous for this gene.
b)
B) The students with three fragments are said to have "fragile sites."
c)
C) The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region.
d)
D) The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene.
13.
Which is the smallest unit containing the entire human genome?
a)
A) one human somatic cell
b)
B) one human chromosome
c)
C) all of the DNA of one human
d)
D) the entire human population
14.
Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? [select all that apply]
[ALL ARE CORRECT]
[ALL ARE CORRECT]
a)
B) The species has 8 pairs of chromosomes per cell.
b)
C) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 16 separate chromosomes.
c)
E) A gamete from this species has 8 chromosomes.
15.
Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common? [select all that apply]
[ALL ARE CORRECT]
[ALL ARE CORRECT]
a)
A) Fertilization
b)
C) Gametes
c)
D) Meiosis
16.
All of the following are true EXCEPT:
a)
A) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).
b)
B) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
c)
C) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
d)
D) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
17.
The human X and Y chromosomes
a)
A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
b)
B) include genes that determine an individual's sex.
c)
C) are called autosomes.
d)
D) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
18.
Which of these is a way that the sexual life cycle increases genetic variation in a species?
a)
A) by increasing gene stability
b)
B) by allowing crossing over
c)
C) by conserving chromosomal gene order
d)
D) by allowing an increase in cell number
19.
If a cell has 16 chromosomes (in chromatin form) in the G1 phase of interphase, how many chromosomes will it have during each of the following stages of meiosis (number of chromosomes is per cell): -Metaphase I?-Telophase I?-Prophase II?-Anaphase II?-End of meiosis II?
a)
A) 16, 16, 8, 16, 8
b)
B) 16, 8, 8, 16, 8
c)
C) 32, 32, 16, 16, 8
d)
D) 32, 16, 8, 16, 8
20.
Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis?
a)
A) I
b)
B) II
c)
C) IV
d)
D) V
21.
The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following is the major reason?
a)
A) segregation of maternal and paternal alleles
b)
B) recurrent mutations forming new alleles
c)
C) different possible assortment of chromosomes into gametes
d)
D) crossing over during prophase I
22.
A hypothetical organism called Infiniarious collegorous is diploid, and has either purple or silver wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure.If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a purple gene and another chromosome 12 with a silver gene, and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes, she will produce which of the following egg types?
a)
A) three-fourths purple short and one-fourth silver short gene eggs
b)
B) one-half purple short and one-half silver short gene eggs
c)
C) only silver short gene eggs
d)
D) only purple short gene eggs
23.
A hypothetical organism called Infiniarious collegorous is diploid, and has either purple or silver wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure.Assuming purple is dominant to silver and long is dominant to short, a heterozygous purple and short Infiniarious collegorous mates with a silver and homozygous long Infiniarious collegorous. What is the probability they will produce an offspring that is purple and long?
a)
A) 0%
b)
B) 25%
c)
C) 50%
d)
D) 75%
24.
Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?
a)
A) 3/16
b)
B) 1/16
c)
C) 1/2
d)
D) 3/8
25.
Two individuals with the genotypes AaBbCcDdEe and AabbCCDdEe are mated. What is the probability of producing an offspring with the genotype AABbCcDDee (assuming independent assortment)?
a)
A) 1/32
b)
B) 1/128
c)
C) 1/256
d)
D) 1/1024
26.
Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
a)
A) 1/4
b)
B) 1/8
c)
C) 3/4
d)
D) 1
27.
Marfan syndrome in humans is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. It has a variable clinical presentation, ranging from mild to severe systemic disease. It is caused by an abnormality of the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Patients are usually very tall and thin, with long gangly fingers, curvature of the spine, sometimes weakened arterial walls, and sometimes ocular problems, such as lens dislocation. Based on the information provided, which of the following would you conclude about Marfan syndrome?
a)
A) It is recessive.
b)
B) It is dominant.
c)
C) It has a late age of onset (> 60).
d)
D) It is pleiotropic.
28.
Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
a)
A) Huntington's disease in humans
b)
B) the ABO blood group in humans
c)
C) skin pigmentation in humans
d)
D) pink flowers in snapdragons
29.
You are a genetic counselor that has just been assigned to a case with a couple who have a child recently diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. Neither parent has Tay-Sachs, nor does anyone in their families. Which of the following statements should this counselor make to this couple?
a)
A) “Because you have had one child with Tay-Sachs, you must both carry the allele. However, since the chance of having an affected child is 25%, you may safely have thee more children without worrying about having another child with Tay-Sachs.”
b)
B)
Because you have had one child with Tay-Sachs, you must each carry the allele. Any child you have has a 25% chance of having the disease.”
Because you have had one child with Tay-Sachs, you must each carry the allele. Any child you have has a 25% chance of having the disease.”
c)
C) “Because you have had one child with Tay-Sachs, you must each carry the allele. Any child you have has a 50% chance of having the disease.”
d)
D) “Because no one in either of your families has Tay-Sachs, you are not likely to have another baby with Tay-Sachs. You can safely have another child.”
30.
A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene. This and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth. Of the following, which is the best use of this discovery?
a)
A) Design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele.
b)
B) Screen all newborns of an at-risk population.
c)
C) Introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns.
d)
D) Test school-age children for the disorder.
31.
The following question refers to the pedigree chart seen in the figure. Some of the family members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.What is the likelihood that the progeny (offspring) of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?
a)
A) 0%
b)
B) 25%
c)
C) 50%
d)
D) 75%
32.
The following question refers to the pedigree chart seen in the figure. Some of the family members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww?
a)
A) 1/2
b)
B) 1/4
c)
C) 1
d)
D) 3/4
33.
There is a family in which the grandfather, age 60, has just been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder. The father, age 40, is heterozygous for the Huntington’s allele. His daughter (the granddaughter), age 22, now has a 2-year-old son. No one else in the family has the disease. What is the probability that the 2-year-old will contract the disease?
a)
A) 0%
b)
B) 25%
c)
C) 50%
d)
D) 75%
34.
Sex-linked traits affect males more often than females because
a)
A) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
b)
B) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
c)
C) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
d)
D) male hormones such as testerone often alter the affects of mutations on the X chromosome.
35.
Black fur color in cats is caused by an X-linked allele (X+); the other allele at this locus causes orange coat color (Xo). The heterozygote is tortoiseshell (X+Xo). What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female cat and an orange male cat?
a)
A) tortoiseshell females; black males
b)
B) tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males
c)
C) orange females; orange males
d)
D) black females; orange males
36.
Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. If two normal color vision parents have a color-blind son, what would the genotypes of the parents be?
a)
A) XNXN and XNY
b)
B) XNXn and XNY
c)
C) XNXN and XnY
d)
D) XnXn and XNY
37.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a serious condition caused by a recessive allele of a gene on the human X chromosome. Patients with this disease have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin, which is a muscle protein. Rarely do these individuals live past their 20s. How likely is it for a woman to have this condition?
a)
A) Women can never have this condition.
b)
B) Very rarely: an affected male would have to mate with a carrier female.
c)
C) One-half of the daughters of an affected man would have this condition.
d)
D) One-fourth of the daughters of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition.
38.
All of the following are false about linkage EXCEPT -
a)
A) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
b)
B) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 100%.
c)
C) Linked genes are found on different chromosomes.
d)
D) All of the traits that Mendel studied–seed color, pod shape, flower color, and others–are due to genes linked on the same chromosome.
39.
The figure shows a map of four genes on a chromosome.Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
a)
A) E and G
b)
B) A and E
c)
C) A and W
d)
D) A and G
40.
A couple has a child with Down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the child's condition?
a)
A) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production.
b)
B) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in somatic cell production.
c)
C) One member of the couple carried a translocation.
d)
D) The woman inherited this tendency from her parents.
41.
A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
a)
A) half
b)
B) one out of four
c)
C) three out of four
d)
E) none
42.
A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?
a)
A) three out of four
b)
B) half
c)
C) none
d)
D) one out of four
43.
You are studying mitosis in human squamous (skin) cells. How many chromosomes would you expect to find: during S phase; during anaphase; in one new daughter cell?
a)
A) 92; 92; 46
b)
B) 23; 46; 23
c)
C) 46; 92; 46
d)
D) 46; 46; 46
44.
Some vertebrate osteoclast cells, while undergoing cell division through mitosis, do not enter the final stage of cytokinesis. As a biologist, what would you expect to find if this were to occur in an osteoclast cell you were observing?
a)
A) one cell that is multinucleated
b)
B) two cells, one cell that is multinucleated and a second cell that is denucleated.
c)
C) one cell with one nucleus containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell
d)
D) two cells, each cell with half of the genetic material of the parent cell
45.
Cancer drugs such as colchicine interfere with microtubule function or formation. What would a drug like this do to cells it was exposed to?
a)
A) Prevent cell to cell communication.
b)
B) Cause the cell to lyse (apoptosis).
c)
C) Prevent mitosis by affecting the formation of the mitotic spindle.
d)
D) Prevent S phase and chromatid assembly.
46.
Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 4 to 8 picograms per nucleus. How many picograms of DNA would be found at the end of G1 phase and at the end of G2 phase?
a)
A) G1: 4 picograms; G2: 4 picograms
b)
B) G1: 8 picograms; G2: 4 picograms
c)
C) G1: 4 picograms; G2: 8 picograms
d)
D) G1: 8 picograms; G2: 16 picograms
47.
Craniopharyngioma is a disease which causes excessive reproduction of nervous tissue in the brain (brain tumor). In order to treat this disease, scientist need to develop a drug with the potential to reverse or prevent this unregulated reproduction of the nervous tissue. Which processes would this drug need to target in order for it to be effective?
a)
A) Meiosis
b)
B) Erythroblast differentiation
c)
C) Mitosis
d)
D) DNA transcription
48.
Mesothelioma is a cancer that affects the lining of the lungs and/or abdomen. Advanced malignant Mesothelioma cancer cells will often have abnormal chromosomes and an abnormal number of chromosomes. Why would these malignant Mesothelioma cancer cells have chromosomal abnormalities?
a)
A) Cancer cells like Mesothelioma are no longer density dependent.
b)
B) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.
c)
C) Cancer cells like Mesothelioma are no longer anchorage dependent.
d)
D) The cell cycle checkpoints are not functioning correctly to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities.
49.
Name the structure that is important during cell division, present in the cytoplasm of animal cells, and functions as a microtubule-organizing center. (You must spell this correctly!)
a)
Centrioles
b)
Feet
50.
Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells? (select all that apply)
{ALL ARE CORRECT]
{ALL ARE CORRECT]
a)
A) They exhibit anchorage dependence
b)
B) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
c)
C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
d)
D) When they stop dividing, they do so at G1 phase in the cell cycle.
51.
You are an oncologist with a patient who has a family history of cancer. The patient’s family doesn’t always have the same type of cancer, but roughly 50% of the family members of your patient have been diagnosed with some type of cancer before the age of 60. After doing some genetic research on your patient’s genome, and several of your patient’s family members, you find that they have a mutation in a gene which can turn on other genes that promote DNA repair, this gene is also an activator for other genes, and the mutated version of this gene prevents suppression of the cell cycle if DNA mutations have occurred. What gene is most likely mutated in your patient and your patient’s family members?
a)
A) APC gene
b)
B) BRCA-1 gene
c)
C) p-53 gene
d)
D) ras gene
52.
The following picture shows what happens with the ras gene is mutated:What type of gene is a mutated ras gene called, and what is the overall outcome of this mutation?
a)
A) tumor suppressor gene; increased cell division
b)
B) oncogene; increased cell division
c)
C) proto-oncogene; normal cell division
d)
D) proto-oncogene; increased cell division
53.
Viruses can account for about 15% of human cancer cases. What virus is mainly responsible for cervical cancer?
a)
A) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
b)
B) Epstein-Barr virus
c)
C) HTLV-1
d)
D) HIV
54.
Review the first law of thermodynamics, which of the following is a consequence to humans and other living organisms in reference to this law?
a)
A) An organism’s energy content is constant.
b)
B) The environment supplies all of the necessary energy an organism needs to sustain life.
c)
C) As an organism grows in complexity, the entropy of that organism decreases.
d)
D) The growth of an organism is achieved by converting energy into organic matter.
55.
Which of the following are examples of kinetic energy rather than potential energy?
[ALL ARE CORRECT]
[ALL ARE CORRECT]
a)
A) the muscle contractions of a person mowing grass
b)
B) water that is behind a dam
c)
C) light flashes emitted by a firefly
d)
D) a molecule of glucose
56.
An RNA molecule is similar in structure to
a)
A) glucose
b)
B) a phospholipid
c)
C) an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached
d)
D) ATP
57.
As energy moves through the different tropic levels of the ecosystem, it enters as sunlight and leaves as (hint: identify “X” in the diagram)
a)
Heat
b)
Feet
58.
Firefly luciferase catalyzes the following reaction:luciferin + ATP → adenyl luciferin + pyrophosphate Then, the next reaction occurs spontaneously:adenyl-luciferin + O2 → oxyluciferin + H2O + CO2 + AMP + light What is the role of luciferase?
a)
A) Luciferase makes the reaction irreversible.
b)
B) Luciferase alters the equilibrium point of the reaction.
c)
C) Luciferase makes the change of free energy of the reaction more negative.
d)
D) Luciferase lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
59.
A solution of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) stored in an opaque container (protecting it from light) at room temperature does not readily decompose to form the molecules water (H2O) and oxygen (O2) because
a)
A) the H2O2 solution has less free energy than the water and oxygen molecules.
b)
B) the hydrolysis of H2O2 to water and oxygen is endergonic.
c)
C) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot easily be surmounted at room temperature.
d)
D) H2O2 cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water.
60.
Lactose is found in milk products. It is converted by the body into a usable form in a series of chemical reactions. The diagram shows the series of reactions that convert lactose into a usable form. If Enzyme 4 is denatured, the levels of which substance will increase?
a)
A) Lactose
b)
B) Glucose-6-phosphate
c)
C) Galactose
d)
D) Galactose-1-phosphate
61.
Prescription drugs known as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be potent inhibitors of certain enzymes. High substrate concentrations reduce the efficacy of inhibition by these drugs. These drugs are known as
a)
A) prosthetic groups.
b)
B) allosteric regulators.
c)
C) noncompetitive inhibitors.
d)
D) competitive inhibitors.
62.
Iron is an essential trace element for most organisms. Di-iron (Fe2) is present in the active site of a particular hydrogenase enzyme. Fe2 most likely functions as a(n)
a)
A) coenzyme derived from a vitamin.
b)
B) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
c)
C) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity.
d)
D) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
63.
The stomach is an extremely acidic environment with a pH around 2. Very few enzymes will catalyze reactions at his low pH. Pepsin is an enzyme that helps to digest food in the stomach. If the stomach’s pH were to suddenly increase how would this affect pepsin’s ability to function?
a)
A) Pepsin would adapt to catalyze a different reaction with a different substrate
b)
B) It wouldn’t affect it. Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions
c)
C) Pepsin would become even more active and catalyze reactions faster
d)
D) Pepsin would be less likely to fit with its specific substrate
64.
Competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme are used as drugs to help manage the virus. Since HIV mutates frequently, the virus rapidly acquires changes that make it resistant to these competitive inhibitors. In these drug-resistant viruses, where in its reverse transcriptase enzyme would you expect to find changes in its amino acids to most likely occur?
a)
A) at an allosteric site
b)
B) at a cofactor binding site
c)
C) around or in the active site
d)
D) in regions of the protein that determine packaging into the virus capsid
65.
If this is an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how can the rate of this reaction be increased beyond the maximum velocity in this figure?
a)
A) There is no way to increase the rate of the reaction any further
b)
B) Increase the amount of enzyme.
c)
C) Increase the substrate concentrations
d)
D) Increase the amount of energy.
66.
Examine the image.What photosynthetic reaction/stage is occurring at the structure labeled “A”?What photosynthetic reaction/stage is occurring at the structure labeled “B”?
a)
Answer for blank # 1: calvin cycle(50 %)Answer for blank # 2: light reaction(50 %)
b)
Feet
67.
You are a botanist studying photosynthesis in cyanobacteria. Where would you expect to find chlorophyll in cyanobacteria?
a)
A) in the infolded plasma membrane
b)
B) in the nucleoid
c)
C) in the chloroplast membranes
d)
D) in the chloroplast stroma
68.
The Calvin cycle is often referred to as the “light-independent cycle”. However, this is not a completely accurate way to view the Calvin cycle. Why is the Calvin cycle actually dependent upon light?
a)
A) The Calvin cycle depends on the NADP+ and ADP produced in the light reactions.
b)
B) The Calvin cycle depends on the ATP and NADPH produced in the light reactions.
c)
C) The Calvin cycle utilizes the water molecule, which enters during the light reaction, to form sugars.
d)
D) The Calvin cycle utilizes the photons from light energy to form sugars.
69.
As a gardener you are constantly experimenting to optimize the growth of your plants. Which of the following spectrums of light will cause the most growth/photosynthesis to occur in a plant?
a)
A) White light
b)
B) Blue light
c)
C) Green light
d)
D) Red light
70.
Oxygen is a product of photosynthesis. What reactant of photosynthesis is responsible for all of the oxygen we breathe?
a)
Water
b)
Feet
71.
Plant leaves typically take in more carbon dioxide as light increases. If light intensity is too low, they will give off carbon dioxide. The graph shows carbon dioxide levels in a plant at different light intensities.Examining point X on the graph, the rate of which process is equal to the rate of photosynthesis?
a)
A) The Calvin cycle
b)
B) Transpiration
c)
C) Cellular respiration
d)
D) Cell division
72.
Which substances would you find at U in the diagram above?
a)
A) CO2 and H2O
b)
B) CO2 and C6H12O6
c)
C) O2 and C6H12O6
d)
D) H2O and C6H12O6
73.
Crassula ovata, otherwise known as a jade plant, is a type of CAM plant which keeps its stomata closed during the day. It does this to prevent evapotranspiration. Crassula ovata can do this because they
a)
A) fix CO2 into organic acids during the night.
b)
B) use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO2.
c)
C) use photosystem I and photosystem II at night.
d)
D) fix CO2into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells.
74.
The following illustration is an analogy of electron flow in which stage of photosynthesis? Which product is considered the electron carrier?
a)
Blank 1: Light reaction
Blank 2: NADPH
Blank 2: NADPH
b)
Feet
75.
What happens to chlorophyll a when exposed to ultraviolet light?
a)
A) Its excited electrons fall back to the ground state producing fluorescence.
b)
B) Its electrons go from a ground state to an excited state where it remains until the light is removed.
c)
C) Its excited electrons fall back to the ground state allowing it to absorb heat.
d)
D) Its electrons go from a ground state to an excited state where it then produces fluorescence.
76.
What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?
a)
A) To transport RuBP out of the chloroplast
b)
B) To generate G3P from carbon dioxide
c)
C) To split water and release oxygen
d)
D) To use ATP to release carbon dioxide
77.
Which stage of cellular respiration occurs in every living organism? Where does this stage take place?
a)
Answer for blank # 1: glycolysisAnswer for blank # 2: cytosol
b)
Feet
78.
In glycolysis, how much of the ATP created is due to Substrate-level phosphorylation?
a)
A) 0%
b)
B) 100%
c)
C) 75%
d)
D) 10%
79.
Cyanide is a deadly poison which prevents an organism from being able to utilize oxygen by inhibiting cytochrome c oxidase. What specific stage does cyanide affect?
a)
A) glycolysis
b)
B) Electron transport chain
c)
C) Krebs Cycle
d)
D) Calvin cycle
80.
A poison that imitates the structure of glucose but is not metabolized would interfere with which stage?
a)
A) Calvin cycle
b)
B) Electron transport chain
c)
C) glycolysis
d)
D) Krebs Cycle
81.
As a pediatrician, a young child is brought into you. This child has never had much energy. You decide to conduct several diagnostic tests and discover that the child's mitochondria can use only fatty acids and amino acids for respiration, and the child's cells produce more lactate than normal. Of the following, which is the best explanation of the child’s condition?
a)
A) The child’s electron transport chain is defective. This causes glucose to turn into lactate instead of acetyl CoA.
b)
B) Pyruvate is not being moved across the outer mitochondrial membrane. This is probably due to a defective or missing transport protein in the mitochondria.
c)
C) The lungs are not absorbing enough oxygen, which inhibits an adequate amount of oxygen from being utilized by the mitochondria.
d)
D) NADH is not being transferred into the mitochondria. This is probably due to a defective dehydrogenase.
82.
NAD+ is regenerated from NADH during alcohol fermentation by
a)
A) oxidation of ethanol to acetyl CoA.
b)
B) reduction of pyruvate to form lactate.
c)
C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
d)
D) reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
83.
You discover a brand new organism in the Amazon rainforest! You find this organism interesting because it grows with or without oxygen being present. After doing some experimentation, you find that this organism consumes more sugar in anaerobic conditions, however, it doesn’t gain any additional mass in this situation. How would you classify this organism?
a)
A) This organism is a facultative anaerobe.
b)
B) This organism is an anaerobic organism.
c)
C) This organism is not special; it is a normal functioning eukaryote.
d)
D) This organism must be photosynthetic.
84.
You decide that this is the year to finally start doing some consistent exercise. You hire a trainer and she sets up a grueling exercise routine for you to do while you are in the gym. During your workout your skeletal muscle cells switch to fermentation. As this occurs, your body will increase its catabolism of
a)
A) carbohydrates only.
b)
B) fats and proteins only.
c)
C) fats only.
d)
D) proteins only.
85.
The template strand of a given gene includes the sequence 3'-G C C A C G T A T C A G-5'What is the mRNA sequence made?
a)
A) 5'-C G G T G C A T G G T-3'
b)
B) 5'-C G G U G C A U A G U-3'
c)
C) 3'-C G G U G C A U A G U-5'
d)
D) 3'-C G G T G C A T G G T-5'
86.
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?
a)
A) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
b)
B) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
c)
C) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
d)
D) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids.
87.
During RNA processing in eukaryotes, what is added to the mRNA strands 5’ end, 3’ end, and what is spliced out?
a)
A) 5’ end: A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide; 3’ end: a long string of adenine nucleotides otherwise known as a poly-A tail; spliced out: introns
b)
B) 5’ end: a long string of adenine nucleotides otherwise known as a poly-A tail; 3’ end: A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide; spliced out: introns
c)
C) 5’ end: a long string of adenine nucleotides otherwise known as a poly-A tail; 3’ end: A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide; spliced out: exons
d)
D) 5’ end: A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide; 3’ end: a long string of adenine nucleotides otherwise known as a poly-A tail; spliced out: exons
88.
Where does transcription and translation occur in a eukaryotic cell?
a)
A) transcription: nucleus; translation: nucleus
b)
B) transcription: cytoplasm/ribosomes; translation: cytoplasm/ribosomes
c)
C) transcription: cytoplasm/ribosomes; translation: nucleus
d)
D) transcription: nucleus; translation: cytoplasm/ribosomes
89.
Referring to the diagram, which of these (letters) is tRNA?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
90.
Alternative RNA splicing
a)
A) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA.
b)
B) increases the rate of transcription.
c)
C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
d)
D) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
91.
The following is a model of a eukaryotic transcript in the nucleus. (E = exon, I = intron). 5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3' Which components of the model transcript will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol?
a)
A) 5' I1 I2 I3 3'
b)
B) 5' UTR I1 I2 I3 UTR 3'
c)
C) 5' E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 3'
d)
D) 5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3'
92.
A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is TTT. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is
a)
A) UUU.
b)
B) AAA.
c)
C) UUA
d)
D) TTT.
93.
If the sequence ATGCCTATCGATTGA were mutated such that a base was inserted after the first G and the third T were deleted, how many amino acids would be changed in the mutant protein?
a)
A) none
b)
B) one
c)
C) two
d)
D) three
94.
A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The charged transfer RNA molecules shown in the figure (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form.What is the dipeptide that will be formed?
a)
A) cysteine-alanine.
b)
B) glycine-cysteine.
c)
C) alanine-alanine.
d)
D) proline-threonine.
95.
Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein's activity?
a)
A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation.
b)
B) It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site.
c)
C) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.
d)
D) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon.
96.
In the 1920s, Muller discovered that X-rays caused mutation in Drosophila. In a related series of experiments in the 1940s, Charlotte Auerbach discovered that chemicals—she used nitrogen mustards—have a similar effect. You’re hired on as a food scientist at a cereal company. You help to develop a new chemical food additive that you want to start including in your company’s cereal manufacturing. Why should you test this chemical for its ability to induce mutation?
a)
A) You want to make sure that it does not emit radiation.
b)
B) You worry about its ability to cause infection.
c)
C) You want to be sure that it increases the rate of mutation sufficiently.
d)
D) You want to prevent any increase in mutation frequency.
97.
The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in
a)
A) a base-pair substitution.
b)
B) a polypeptide missing an amino acid.
c)
C) a nonsense mutation.
d)
D) a nucleotide mismatch.
98.
Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?
a)
A) Translation requires antibiotic activity.
b)
B) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be translated.
c)
C) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.
d)
D) Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes require no initiation or elongation factors.
99.
The following questions refer to the simple metabolic pathway in the figure providedAccording to Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for this pathway?
a)
A) 0
b)
B) 1
c)
C) 2
d)
D) 3
100.
A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?
a)
A) an accumulation of B and C and no production of A
b)
B) an accumulation of A and no production of B and C
c)
C) an accumulation of A and B and no production of C
d)
D) an accumulation of B and no production of A and C
101.
A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be
a)
A) 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3'.
b)
B) 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5'.
c)
C) 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'.
d)
E) 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'.
102.
What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
a)
A) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
b)
B) met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
c)
C) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
d)
D) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
103.
How would a prokaryotic organism altering its patterns of gene expression help that organism survive?
a)
A) It allows each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
b)
B) It allows young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms
c)
C) It allows environmental changes to alter the prokaryote's genome
d)
D) It allows the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
104.
The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when
a)
A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.
b)
B) the cyclic AMP levels are low.
c)
C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.
d)
D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
105.
What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator?
a)
A) continuous transcription of the operon's genes
b)
B) reduced transcription of the operon's genes
c)
C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter
d)
D) buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon
106.
Which of the following mechanisms is used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells?
a)
A) A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes.
b)
B) The genes share a single common enhancer, which allows appropriate activators to turn on their transcription at the same time.
c)
C) A specific combination of control elements in each gene’s enhancer coordinates the simultaneous activation of the genes.
d)
D) The genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit.
107.
You would expect the activity of methylated DNA to be what?
a)
A) To be replicating nearly continuously.
b)
B) To have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription
c)
C) To be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis.
d)
D) To be very actively transcribed and translated.
108.
Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of
a)
A) chromosomal rearrangements.
b)
B) karyotypes.
c)
C) epigenetic phenomena.
d)
D) genetic mutation.
109.
When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?
a)
A) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core
b)
B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails
c)
C) DNA supercoiling at or around H1
d)
D) nucleotide excision and reconstruction
110.
Genes in the highly condensed region of the chromosome called ______ are not usually expressed. These regions tend to have a lot of DNA _____ which prevents transcription.
a)
A) euchromatin….methylation
b)
B) heterochromatin…methylation
c)
C) euchromatin…..acetylation
d)
D) heterochromatin….acetylation
111.
Gene expression levels can be changed during post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following?
a)
A) mRNAs of eukaryotes get 5' caps and 3' tails.
b)
B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell.
c)
C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns.
d)
D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size.
112.
As a geneticist you introduce a transgene into yeast cells and isolate five independent cell lines in which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all.Which of the following is a likely explanation for the lack of transgene expression in the fifth cell line?
a)
A) The transgene integrated into a euchromatic region of the genome.
b)
B) The transgene integrated into a heterochromatic region of the genome.
c)
C) The transgene integrated into a region of the genome characterized by high histone acetylation.
d)
D) The host cell lacks the enzymes necessary to express the transgene.
113.
Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?
a)
A) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.
b)
B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.
c)
C) It is the same as the DNA in one of your kidney cells.
d)
D) Most of the DNA codes for protein.
114.
At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for most of the rest?
a)
A) "junk" DNA that serves no possible purpose
b)
B) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed
c)
C) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function
d)
D) rRNA and tRNA coding sequences
115.
One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs?
a)
A) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
b)
B) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design
c)
C) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans
d)
D) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes
116.
Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?
a)
A) tRNA to aid in translation
b)
B) a protein needing to be destroyed
c)
C) mRNA in order to aid in transcription
d)
D) rRNA to speed up translation
117.
You’ve finally gotten your PhD in genetics and are now a post-doctoral researcher. In your lab you are studying breast cancer and trying to find better treatments for the disease. In one of your experiments, you have made cDNA from dozens of patients' breast tumor biopsies. These cDNAs will be used in a DNA microarray assay (DNA chip), and you will be looking for a -
a)
A) group of cDNAs that match those in non-breast-cancer control samples from the same.
b)
B) pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples.
c)
C) group of cDNAs that act differently from those on the rest of the grid.
d)
D) pattern of fluorescence that indicates the control samples have the same gene expression as the breast cancer samples.
118.
The first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo are considered to be what?
a)
A) the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins
b)
B) changes resulting from induction
c)
C) cell division occurring after fertilization
d)
D) changes in the size and shape of the cell
119.
If a mutation is embryonic lethal, what will this result in?
a)
A) phenotypes that prevent fertilization.
b)
B) failure to express maternal effect genes.
c)
C) homeotic phenotype changes.
d)
D) phenotypes that are never born/hatched.
120.
My adorable son Owen has just gotten a new model airplane for Christmas. I offered to help him put it together (he is 4 after all), but he insists he can do it himself. He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are analogous to which process in development?
a)
A) morphogenesis
b)
B) differentiation
c)
C) pattern formation
d)
D) induction
121.
Which of the following gene mutations would lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts?
a)
A) segmentation genes
b)
B) homeotic genes
c)
C) morphogens
d)
D) egg-polarity genes
122.
Being the curious scientist that you are, you decide to inject large amounts of the bicoid gene product into the posterior end of a developing Drosophila. The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. What do you think would occur due to your experimentation?
a)
A) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die.
b)
B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs.
c)
C) The embryo would develop normally.
d)
D) Anterior structures would form in both sides of the embryo.
123.
What process was used in 1997 to clone Dolly the sheep?
a)
A) separation of an early-stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated in a surrogate ewe
b)
B) fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
c)
C) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe
d)
D) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow
124.
One issue with clones that has arisen is premature death. What problem with animal cloning might produce this result?
a)
A) use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA
b)
B) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells
c)
C) abnormal gene regulation due to variant methylation
d)
D) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells
125.
Controversy surrounding stem cells often centered on the fact that stem cells would destroy an embryo. Recent advancements in science, however, has shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). In order for scientist to change adult cells into iPS, what has been done to the adult cells?
a)
A) A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes.
b)
B) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells.
c)
C) The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells.
d)
D) The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.
126.
Embryonic stem cells are different from adult stem cells in animals because
a)
A) embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells.
b)
B) adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells.
c)
C) embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells.
d)
D) embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells.
127.
Your aunt is the proud mother of 4 boys. She would love to have another child, but would really like to have a girl. She can't afford the cost of embryo selection, so she chooses a less costly alternative. Cell fractionation of her husband's sperm will increase her likelihood of getting a girl from 50% to about 75%. (1) Explain how cell fractionation works. (2) which layer (top or bottom) her doctor should use if she would like to conceive a female child, and (3) explain why that layer should be chosen in order to increase her odds of conceiving a female child.
a)
1. Cell fractionation breaks up cells and separates components using centrifugation.
2. The bottom layer should be used if they want to conceive a female child.
2. The bottom layer should be used if they want to conceive a female child.
b)
dont pick this one
128.
If you wanted to view the movement of a living "paramecium caudatum" cell under microscope, what type of microscope should you use?
a)
A. Phase contrast light microscope
b)
B. Scanning electron microscope
c)
C. Transmission electronic microscope
d)
D. Bright field light microscope with a fixed/stained specimen
129.
Which of the following do prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells BOTH contain (select all that apply)
a)
B. ribosomes
b)
C. DNA
c)
E. plasma membrane
d)
ALL OF THEM
130.
Pancreatic cells produce a lot of protein digesting enzymes. If you were able to examine a pancreatic cell under an electron microscope, what type of organelle would you expect to see a lot of?
a)
A. nucleus
b)
B. rough ER
c)
C. mitochondria
d)
D. centrioles
131.
The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Chronic administration of a drug (such as a barbiturate or narcotic) may cause the liver to all of the following EXCEPT
a)
A. increase the body's tolerance to the drug
b)
B. produce additional smooth ER
c)
C. increase the production of enzymes that detoxify the drug in question
d)
D. decrease the production of enzymes that break down certain other drugs
132.
You're a cytologist studying a certain cell type which is specialized in the production of steroids such as a testosterone and estrogen. Which type of organelle or structure would you expect to find in abundance in this cell, which is primarily involved in the synthesis of steroids?
a)
A. ribosome
b)
B. lysosome
c)
C. smooth ER
d)
D. mitochondria
133.
Batten's disease is a rare and fatal human genetic abnormality that results in the accumulation of a lipid substance known as lipofuscins (large, complex, undigested lipids) in the brain, as well as in tissue that does not contain nerve cells. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?
a)
A. the Golgi apparatus
b)
B. the lysosome
c)
C. mitochondria
d)
D. membrane-bound ribosomes
134.
Which one of the following statements is NOT true? The endomembrane system
a)
A. includes the nuclear envelope
b)
B. divides the cell into compartments
c)
C. includes the rough and smooth ER
d)
E. it contains its own DNA
135.
One of the key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotes from a prokaryotic ancestoris the endomembrane system. What eukaryotic organelles or features might have evolved as a part of, or as an elaboration of, the endomembrane system?
a)
A) plasma membrane
b)
B) chloroplasts
c)
C) mitochondria
d)
D) nuclear envelope
136.
Which structure-function pair ismismatched?
a)
A) nucleolus; production of ribosomal subunits
b)
B) lysosome; intracellular digestion
c)
C) ribosome; protein synthesis
d)
E) microtubule; muscle contraction
137.
Cyanide binds to at least one moleculeinvolved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed tocyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the
a)
A) mitochondria
b)
B) ribosomes.
c)
C) peroxisomes
d)
D) lysosomes.
138.
In a plant cell, DNA may be found
a)
A) only in the nucleus.
b)
B) only in the nucleus and mitochondria.
c)
C) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts
d)
D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts
139.
As an oncologist, you are constantly seeking treatments to help your patients win the fight against cancer. One drug you use, Alkaban-AQ®, is a drug that inhibits microtubule polymerization. It has shown to be promising in treating some forms of cancer. Cancer cells exposed to Alkaban-AQ® would be unable to
a)
A) maintain the shape of the nucleus.
b)
B) migrate by amoeboid movement.
c)
C) separate chromosomes during cell division.
d)
D) extend pseudopods
140.
Brefeldin A is a drug that disrupts transport from the ER to the Golgi apparatus. What other organelles and membranes would be affected?
a)
A) lysosomes, transport vesicles, plasma membrane
b)
B) mitochondria, peroxisomes, plasma membrane
c)
C) vacuoles, mitochondria, plasma membrane
d)
D) lysosomes, transport vesicles, nuclear membrane
141.
Zellweger syndrome, also called cerebrohepatorenal syndrome, is a rare congenital disorder characterized by the inability to break down very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA)
and branched chain fatty acids (BCFA). The organelle that is defective in these individuals is also responsible for the removal of hydrogen atoms in alcohol (thus metabolizing it). Which organelle is defective in individuals with Zellweger syndrome?
and branched chain fatty acids (BCFA). The organelle that is defective in these individuals is also responsible for the removal of hydrogen atoms in alcohol (thus metabolizing it). Which organelle is defective in individuals with Zellweger syndrome?
a)
A) mitochondria
b)
B) Golgi apparatus
c)
C) peroxisome
d)
D) centrosome
142.
Which of the following providesevidence that mitochondria and chloroplasts were once free-living prokaryotic organisms?
a)
A) They contain their own DNA.
b)
B) They capture the energy of sunlight to make ATP.
c)
C) They produce digestive enzymes on their rough ER
d)
D) They contain nucleotides.
143.
Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. The overuse of antibiotics, however, has caused bacterial resistance to these antibiotics to increase. Now there are so called "super bugs", which are bacterial species where few, if any, antibiotic treatments will work. As a research scientist, you are trying to solve this problem byengineering a virus to combat a bacterial infection, specifically the bacterium Escherichia coli. What type of virus must you utilize in your research?
a)
A) Tobacco mosaic virus
b)
B) T4 phage virus
c)
C) Influenza virus
d)
D) Adenovirus
144.
Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses?
a)
A) metabolism
b)
B) ribosomes
c)
C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid
d)
D) cell division
145.
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is an illness caused by a coronavirus. Symptoms, including a high fever, headaches, and body aches, typically occur two to seven days after infection by the virus. SARS is more serious in elderly patients. This information suggests that the reproductive cycle of the SARS virus is —
a)
A) lysogenic, because the virus is a coronavirus
b)
B) lytic, because the virus causes respiratory illness
c)
C) lysogenic, because the virus primarily affects older people
d)
D) lytic, because of the quick onset of symptoms after infection
146.
During lysogenic viral replication, viral DNA is integrated into the host cell's DNA. What is the viral DNA now called?
a)
Prophage
b)
Feet
147.
The drug AZT is an antiviral medication which is used to treat HIV infections. It is a modified nucleoside. Antiviral drugs, such as AZT, that have become useful are usually associated with which of the
following properties?
following properties?
a)
A) ability to remove all viruses from the infected host
b)
B) interference with viral replication
c)
C) prevention of the host from becoming infected
d)
D) removal of viral proteins
148.
You isolate an infectious substance that is capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium or a virus. You have four methods at your disposal that you can use to analyze the substance in order to determine the nature of the infectious agent. Which treatment would allow you to distinguish between these two possibilities?
I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determining whether it is still infectious
II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope
III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells
IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether it is still infectious
I. treating the substance with nucleases that destroy all nucleic acids and then determining whether it is still infectious
II. filtering the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope
III. culturing the substance by itself on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells
IV. treating the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether it is still infectious
a)
A) I
b)
B) II
c)
C) III
d)
D) IV
149.
Which of the following molecules make up the viral envelope? (Select all that apply)
a)
A) viral glycoproteins
b)
C) phospholipids from human host cell membrane
c)
D) membrane proteins from human host cell
d)
All of the above
150.
Which of the following most likely describes the vertical transmission of a plant virus?
a)
A) The plant shows symptoms of disease after being grazed on by herbivores.
b)
B) Sap from one plant is rubbed on the leaves of a second plant; both plants eventually show disease symptoms.
c)
C) Seeds are planted and reared under protected conditions, but mature plants show disease symptoms.
d)
D) After a gardener prunes several plants with the same shears, they all show disease symptoms.
151.
What are three ways a preexisting virus can become an emerging virus?
a)
1. Mutation of existing viruses2. Dissemination of a viral disease from an isolated human population3. Spread of existing viruses from animal population
b)
Feet
152.
Which of the following series best reflects what we know about how the flu virus, such as 2009's H1N1, moves between species?
a)
A) The flu virus in a pig is mutated and replicated in
alternate arrangements so that humans who eat the
pig products can be infected.
alternate arrangements so that humans who eat the
pig products can be infected.
b)
B) A flu virus from a human epidemic or pandemic infects birds; the birds replicate the virus differently and then pass it back to humans.
c)
C) An influenza virus gains new sequences of DNA from bacteria; this enables it to be transmitted to a human host.
d)
D) An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, and the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans.
153.
Name 1 way humans help protect themselves and prevent viral infections such as the flu?
a)
Vaccines
b)
Fee
154.
Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane fluidity?
a)
A) a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids
b)
B) a greater proportion of saturated phospholipids
c)
C) a lower temperature
d)
D) a relatively high protein content in the membrane
155.
The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals such as humans-
a)
A) enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily
when cell temperature drops.
when cell temperature drops.
b)
B) enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms
from saturated phospholipids
from saturated phospholipids
c)
C) enables the membrane to decrease its fluidity when cell temperature increases.
d)
D) A & C
156.
The movement of the small, hydrophobic gas nitrous oxide (N2O) (laughing gas) into a cell is an example of
a)
A) diffusion across the lipid bilayer.
b)
B) facilitated diffusion.
c)
C) active transport.
d)
D) osmosis.
157.
The solutions in the two arms of this U-tube are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half-filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half-filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose. Initially, the liquid levels on both sides are equal.
Initially, in terms of tonicity, the solution in side A with respect to that in side B is
Initially, in terms of tonicity, the solution in side A with respect to that in side B is
a)
A) hypotonic.
b)
B) plasmolyzed.
c)
C) isotonic.
d)
D) saturated.
158.
after the system reaches equilibrium, whatchanges are observed?
a)
A) The molarity of sucrose is higher than that of glucose on side A.
b)
B) The molarity of glucose is higher in side A than in side B.
c)
C) The water level is higher in side A than in side B.
d)
D) The water level is unchanged.
159.
Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semipermeable membrane that is impermeable to sucrose, were filled with
various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M
sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed) and the percent change in mass of each
bag was graphed
Which line in the graph represents the bag that contained a solution isotonic to the 0.6 M solution at the beginning of the experiment?
various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M
sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed) and the percent change in mass of each
bag was graphed
Which line in the graph represents the bag that contained a solution isotonic to the 0.6 M solution at the beginning of the experiment?
a)
A) A
b)
B) B
c)
C) C
d)
D) D
160.
Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semipermeable membrane that is impermeable to sucrose, were filled with
various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M
sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed) and the percent change in mass of each bag was graphed, which line in the graph represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose?
various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M
sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed) and the percent change in mass of each bag was graphed, which line in the graph represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose?
a)
A) A
b)
B) B
c)
C) C
d)
D) D
161.
A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled water-equal to the volume of blood lost-is transferred directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?
a)
A) It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria.
b)
B) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid has become hypotonic compared to the cells.
c)
C) The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid has become hypotonic compared to the cells.
d)
D) The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid has become hypertonic compared to the cells.
162.
You are working on a team that is designing a new drug. In order for this drug to work, it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells. Which of the following would be a factor that determines whether the molecule selectively enters the target cells?
a)
A) blood or tissue type of the patient
b)
B) hydrophobicity of the drug molecule
c)
C) lack of charge on the drug molecule
d)
D) similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells
163.
The cellular process known as the sodium-potassium pump was discovered in the 1950s by Jens Christian Skou, a Danish scientist. This process is a form of active transport that moves three sodium ions to the outside of a cell for every two potassium ions that it moves into the cell. Which of these best explains why energy is needed for active transport?
a)
A) Ions are negatively charged.
b)
B) Ions are attached to large proteins.
c)
C) Ions are trapped inside the plasma membrane.
d)
D) Ions are moved against the concentration gradient.
164.
Familial hypercholesterolemia is
characterized by which of the following?
characterized by which of the following?
a)
A) defective LDL receptors on the cell membranes
b)
B) poor attachment of the cholesterol to the extracellular matrix of cells
c)
C) a poorly formed lipid bilayer that cannot incorporate cholesterol into cell membranes
d)
D) inhibition of the cholesterol active transport system in red blood cells
165.
What is the name of the protein in the cell membrane which allows for the movement of water into and out of the cell?
a)
Aquaporins
b)
Feet
166.
Cells (e.g., bacteria) are taken up by other cells (e.g., an immune cell) by which of the following?
a)
A) pinocytosis
b)
B) exocytosis
c)
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis
d)
D) phagocytosis
167.
A steroid hormone, such as testosterone, binds to an intracellular receptor. When it does, the resulting complex is able to do which of the following?
a)
A) open channels in the membrane for other
substances to enter
substances to enter
b)
B) open channels in the nuclear envelope for cytoplasmic molecules to enter
c)
C) mediate the transfer of phosphate groups to/from ATP
d)
D) act as a transcription factor in the nucleus
168.
Earl W. Sutherland discovered how the hormone epinephrine acts on cells. He suggested that cells receiving signals undergo three general processes. What are these three processes? List them in the correct order (start to finish)
a)
1. Reception2. Transduction 3. Response
b)
Feet
169.
During your senior year you get the opportunity to travel to the Amazon rainforest. You spend a lot of time in the area of Lago Grande in Brazil. You are in awe of all the living organisms that inhabit this particular area in this vast jungle. What type of biological organization was described?
a)
A) biosystem
b)
B) community
c)
C) population
d)
D) ecosystem
170.
The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is
a)
the Sun
b)
feet
171.
Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material and have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope? (select all that apply)
[ALL ARE CORRECT BESIDES BACTERIA]
[ALL ARE CORRECT BESIDES BACTERIA]
a)
A) animal
b)
B) plant
c)
E) protists
d)
D) fungi
172.
The hummingbird's body has several features that allow its form to fit a particular function. For instance, the bone structure of its wings allows the bird to rotate its wings in all directions, enabling it to fly backward and to hover while it feeds. Describe another example of form fitting function. What is the function of this structure? Why did it adapt the way it did?
a)
The hummingbird's beak is long and narrow to get the pollen from inside the flower. It adapted to this because of evolution and the shape of the it gets the nectar from.
b)
Feet
173.
To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecular structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of which concept to the study of biology?
a)
A) evolution
b)
B) emergent properties
c)
C) reductionism
d)
D) the cell theory
174.
You travel to the Dead Sea, anincredibly high saline body of water with a pH range of 5.8-6.0. A water sample from theDead Sea contained a single-celled organism that had a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
a)
A) Eukarya
b)
B) Archaea
c)
C) Animalia
d)
D) Protista
175.
You're on the first human mission to Mars. While there you discover fossil evidence of life! From the fossil evidence you infer that the organism was unicellular but showed clear evidence of a nuclear membrane. The fossil also appears to be located in an area that strongly suggests it was once a lake or ocean. Using the current kingdom classification system. Which kingdom would you classify this organism as?
a)
Protists
b)
Feet
176.
Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
a)
A) ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems
b)
B) near universality of the genetic code
c)
C) structure of the nucleus
d)
D) structure of cilia
177.
Which of these species is likely to be most successful in an evolutionary sense? Species 1: Long life span, 2 offspringSpecies 2: Long life span, sterileSpecies 3: Short life span, 20 offspringSpecies 4: Short life span, 1 offspring
a)
Species 3
b)
Feet
178.
Imagine there is a species-
specific fishing regulation that mandates only adult fish of this species that are 75 cm or longer may be kept and shorter fish must be released. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average length of the adult fish population will
specific fishing regulation that mandates only adult fish of this species that are 75 cm or longer may be kept and shorter fish must be released. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average length of the adult fish population will
a)
A) remain unchanged.
b)
B) gradually decline.
c)
C) rapidly decline.
d)
D) gradually increase.
179.
Why is it important that an
experiment include a control group?
experiment include a control group?
a)
A) The researcher predetermines the results for the control group
b)
B) The control group provides a reserve of experimental subjects.
c)
C) A control group is required for the development of an "If...then" statement.
d)
D) A control group assures that an experiment will be repeatable.
180.
Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
a)
A) The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
b)
B) The plant's height is 25 centimeters (cm).
c)
C) The fish swam in a zigzag motion.
d)
D) The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.
181.
After living in Africa for many years you notice a lump on your throat/neck area that starts to develop. You also suffer from fatigue and frequent constipation. Which of the following trace elements are you probably lacking in your diet that is required by humans and other vertebrates in minute quantities, but not by other organisms such as bacteria or plants?
a)
A) nitrogen
b)
B) calcium
c)
C) iodine
d)
D) sodium
182.
The stability of the atom'snucleus is mostly due to the number of:
a)
A) protons
b)
B) neutrons
c)
C) electrons
d)
D) protons and electrons
183.
A radioactive isotope is one that
a)
A) has the same atomic mass, but a different atomic number than the common variant of the element.
b)
B) is stable.
c)
C) has more protons than the common variant of the element.
d)
D) decays.
184.
The nucleus of a boron atom contains 5 neutrons and 5 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning boron?
a)
A) The boron atom has a mass number of approximately 5 and an atomic number of 10
b)
B) The boron atom has a mass number of approximately 10 and an atomic number of 10.
c)
C) The boron atom has a mass number of approximately 5 and an atomic number of 15.
d)
D) The boron atom has a mass number of approximately 10 and an atomic number of 5.
185.
Nitrogen-7 is the most common
isotope of nitrogen and has a mass number of 14. However, the atomic mass of nitrogen is slightly more than 14 daltons. Why?
isotope of nitrogen and has a mass number of 14. However, the atomic mass of nitrogen is slightly more than 14 daltons. Why?
a)
A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
b)
B) Some nitrogen atoms in nature have more neutrons.
c)
C) Some nitrogen atoms in nature have an extra proton.
d)
D) Some nitrogen atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
186.
Table salt and glass are formed of
a)
A) covalent bonds
b)
B) hydrogen bonds
c)
C) metallic bonds
d)
E) ionic bonds
187.
The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the following elements. Which of the atoms has the same valence as oxygen ( 8 O)?
a)
A) 7 N nitrogen
b)
B) 9 F fluorine
c)
C) 14 Si silicon
d)
D) 16 S sulfur
188.
If an atom of chlorine (atomic number 17) were allowed to react with atoms of hydrogen (atomic number 1), which of the following molecules would be formed?
a)
A) Cl-H
b)
B) H-Cl-H
c)
C) H-Cl- H I
d)
D) H
189.
Oxygen (O) is much more
electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is correct about the atoms in water (H2O)?
electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is correct about the atoms in water (H2O)?
a)
A) The oxygen atom has a full positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a full positive charge.
b)
B) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the oxygen atom has a partial negative charge.
c)
C) Each hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge; the oxygen atom has a full positive charge.
d)
D) The oxygen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge.
190.
Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?
a)
A) covalent bond
b)
B) hydrogen bond
c)
C) van der Waals interaction
d)
D) ionic bond
191.
Which of the following would be regarded as compounds?
a)
A) H2O, O2, and CH4
b)
B) H2O and O2
c)
C) O2 and CH4
d)
E) H2O and CH4, but not O2
192.
If a gecko lizard relied on hydrogen bonds to cling to surfaces instead of Van der Waals interactions, what type of surface would cause the most problems for this animal?
a)
A) a surface coated with a thin film of water
b)
B) a surface made with carbon and hydrogen atoms covalently bonded together
c)
C) a surface made with carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together
d)
D) a surface made with carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together
193.
Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the
a)
A) small size of the water molecules.
b)
B) high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
c)
C) absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
d)
D) fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
194.
Which of the following solutions would require the greatest amount of acid to be added to bring the solution to neutral pH?
a)
A) soda at pH 2
b)
B) vinegar at pH 3
c)
C) black coffee at pH 5
d)
E) household bleach at pH 12
195.
If the pH of a solution is decreased from 10 to 9, it means that the
a)
A) concentration of H+ has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 10.
b)
B) concentration of H+ has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 10.
c)
C) concentration of OH- has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 10.
d)
E) concentration of H+ has increased tenfold(10X) and the concentration of OH- has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what they were at pH 10.
196.
Buffers are substances that helpresist shifts in pH by
a)
A) releasing H+ to a solution when acids are added.
b)
B) donating H+ to a solution when bases are added.
c)
C) releasing OH- to a solution when bases are added.
d)
D) accepting H+ from a solution when acids are added.
197.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readilysoluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO2 into the bloodstream. What will be the effect on the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells?
a)
A) Blood pH will decrease slightly.
b)
B) Blood pH will increase slightly.
c)
C) Blood pH will remain unchanged.
d)
D) Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO2 combines with hemoglobin.
198.
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
a)
A) Table salt
b)
B) Glass
c)
C) H2O
d)
D) Sugar
199.
Which one of the following statements about the functional groups of organic compounds is not true?
a)
A) Functional groups help make organic compounds soluble in water.
b)
B) Many biological molecules have two or more functional groups.
c)
D) Functional groups participate in chemical reactions
d)
E) All functional groups are composed only of carbon atoms
200.
Which one of the following
statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is not true?
statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is not true?
a)
A) The monomers used to make polymers are essentially universal.
b)
B) Monomers serve as building blocks for polymers.
c)
C) DNA is built from just four kinds of monomers.
d)
D) Polymers are joined together to form monomers
201.
Which of the following is amonomer/polymer pairing?
a)
A) glucose/monosaccharide
b)
B) triglyceride/phospholipid bilayer
c)
C) amino acid/protein
d)
D) cellulose/polysaccharide
202.
Which one of the following listscontains only polysaccharides?
a)
A) sucrose, starch, and cellulose
b)
B) cellulose, starch, and glycogen
c)
C) starch, galactose, and glycogen
d)
D) fructose, cellulose, and glucose
203.
Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?
a)
A) starch
b)
B) glycogen
c)
C) insulin
d)
D) cellulose
204.
The storage form ofcarbohydrates in animals is __________ and in plants is __________.
a)
A) cellulose . . . glycogen
b)
B) glycogen . . . starch
c)
C) sucrose . . . glycogen
d)
D) glycogen . . . cellulose
205.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in thefigure below? FYI - atherosclerosis is a type of cardiovascular disease
a)
A) It is an unsaturated fatty acid.
b)
B) A diet low in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
c)
C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
d)
D) It is a saturated fatty acid, and a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
206.
What major type of lipid makes up a cell membrane?
a)
phospholipids
b)
feet
207.
Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because
a)
A) the monomer of starch is glucose, whereas the monomer of cellulose is galactose
b)
B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the α glycosidic linkages of starch but not the βglycosidic linkages of cellulose.
c)
C) the monomer of starch is glucose, whereas the monomer of cellulose is glucose with a nitrogen-containing group.
d)
D) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the digestive tract.
208.
A new "wonder food" is being distributed by a rival company. The researchers in your company determine that the "wonder food" contains only carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen. At this point, your researchers can say with certainty that the food
a)
A) includes proteins.
b)
B) includes nucleic acids.
c)
C) could only be made of triglycerides.
d)
E) does not include proteins or nucleic acids.
209.
Which of the following factors can result in the denaturation or destruction of a protein? (select all that apply)
a)
A) chemicals that destroy hydrogen bonds B) changes in salt concentration C) changes in pHD) heat
b)
Feet
210.
Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer consisting of two molecules of β hemoglobin andtwo molecules of α hemoglobin. Sickle-cell disease results when a single amino acid is changed in the hemoglobin protein. Changing a single amino acid in a protein, such as hemoglobin, would
a)
A) alter the primary structure of the protein but not its tertiary structure or function.
b)
B) cause the tertiary structure of the protein to unfold.
c)
D) always alter the primary structure of the protein and disrupt its biological activity.
d)
E) always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the protein, and sometimes affect its biological activity.
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