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QC Main

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Patient motion during exposure results in _____ artifact.

a)

a processing

b)

an exposure

c)

a handling

d)

no

2.

A chemical fog artifact

a)

is an exposure artifact.

b)

appears as streaks.

c)

results in lower contrast.

d)

results in lower optical density.

3.

Data for determining repeat rates should include at least ____ patients to obtain a statistical

sample large enough for valid results.

a)

100

b)

150

c)

250

d)

500

4.

Wet pressure sensitization would be classified as _____ artifact.

a)

an exposure

b)

a processing

c)

a handling

d)

no

5.

Which of the following can occur as a result of a double set of grid lines?

a)

Grid misalignment

b)

Film fog

c)

Static artifacts

d)

Moiré effect

6.

Which of the following artifacts can occur in both CR and film/screen radiography?

a)

Static electricity

b)

Wet-pressure sensitization

c)

Moiré pattern

d)

Water spots

7.

_____ can appear as dark bands at the interfaces of structures that differ widely in

brightness level such as barium examinations or metal prosthesis.

a)

Electronic noise

b)

Halo artifacts

c)

Dirt or debris on the front of the

d)

Dropped pixels

8.

A photocathode is a device that emits

a)

light photons

b)

x-ray photons

c)

electrons

d)

All of the answer options are correct

9.

A reduction in brightness at the periphery of the image captured with an image intensifier

tube is referred to as

a)

pincushion distortion

b)

vignetting

c)

barrel distortion

d)

quantum mottle

10.

The input phosphor of an image intensifier tube converts a(n) _____ image into a(n) _____

image

a)

x-ray; light

b)

light; electron

c)

electron; light

d)

x-ray; electron

11.

In standard broadcast television, one image frame consists of

a)

one television field

b)

two television fields

c)

262.5 scan lines

d)

17 ms

12.

The television camera most commonly used to capture the fluoroscopic image from a tube

type image intensifier is the:

a)

image orthicon

b)

plumbicon

c)

vidicon

d)

charge-coupled device

13.

Which type of distortion that can occur with tube-type fluoroscopic image intensifiers is

most often caused by the presence of strong magnetic fields?

a)

Veiling glare

b)

S distortion

c)

Pincushion distortion

d)

Vignetting

14.

Performance testing of fluoroscopic systems must include all the following except

a)

x-ray tube housing

b)

automatic film processor

c)

total filtration

d)

automatic brightness control

15.

Which type of test tool may be used to demonstrate pincushion distortion?

a)

Dosimeter

b)

Wire mesh tool

c)

Ion chamber

d)

Homogenous phantom

16.

Quality control tests of fluoroscopic systems should be performed

a)

daily

b)

weekly

c)

semiannually

d)

annually

17.

At any combination of tube potential and current, fluoroscopic equipment with an automatic

brightness control should not produce an entrance skin exposure exceeding ____ R/min.

a)

2.5

b)

5

c)

10

d)

20

18.

Photoconductors convert x-ray energy into

a)

light energy

b)

heat energy

c)

radiofrequencies

d)

electric current

19.

The most important component affecting the spatial resolution in digital subtraction

angiography is the

a)

focal spot size

b)

image intensifier

c)

television camera

d)

computer matrix size

20.

Going from a 256 x 256 to a 512 x 512 matrix doubles an image’s

a)

spatial resolution

b)

pixels

c)

gray levels

d)

contrast resolution

21.

The DICOM standard does not specify an image’s

a)

matrix depth

b)

bit depth

c)

display settings

d)

examination time

22.

Benefits of digital PACS images do not generally include

a)

convenient storage

b)

image transmission

c)

computer-aided diagnosis

d)

improved spatial resolution

23.

Which of the following uses photostimulable phosphors?

a)

Indirect conversion DR system

b)

Direct conversion DR system

c)

CR systems

d)

Flat panel fluoroscopic systems

24.

The limiting spatial resolution is also known as the

a)

modulation transfer function

b)

Nyquist frequency

c)

fill factor

d)

detective quantum efficiency

25.

CRT monitors for viewing digital images by the technologist should have a luminance value

higher than ____ nit.

a)

100

b)

170

c)

1500

d)

3500

26.

The contrast ratio of a viewing monitor should be higher than

a)

100

b)

170

c)

250

d)

500

27.

Film utilized in dry laser printers uses silver _____ emulsions.

a)

bromide

b)

iodide

c)

behenate

d)

sulfide

28.

Two common quality control tests that should be performed on grids are grid _____ and grid

_____ tests.

a)

ratio; frequency

b)

alignment; uniformity

c)

ratio; alignment

d)

uniformity; ratio

29.

The minimum filtration required for general-purpose radiographic systems is _____ mm Al.

a)

2.0

b)

2.1

c)

2.5

d)

3.0

30.

The maximum dose to the fetus of an occupational worker for the entire gestation period is

_____ rem.

a)

0.05

b)

0.1

c)

0.5

d)

5.0

31.

Relative screen speed values and screen resolution capability can be said to be

a)

directly proportional

b)

inversely proportional

c)

exponentially proportional

d)

none of the above