wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Week 18 Final Test - Physical Science

Total questions: 193

Worksheet time: 3hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the unit for the period of a pendulum?

a)

second

b)

meter

c)

m/s/s

d)

Newton

2.

As a pendulum gets longer, what happens to the period?

a)

doesn't change

b)

decreases

c)

increases

3.

At what point in the swing of a pendulum is the bob moving fastest?

a)

at the top of the arc

b)

at the bottom of the arc

4.

Which of these does not affect the period of a pendulum?

a)

length

b)

gravity

c)

mass

5.

Which would have the longest period?

Pendulum A: A 200-g mass attached to a 1.0-m length string

Pendulum B: A 400-g mass attached to a 0.5-m length string

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Same

6.

Which of the following affects the period of a pendulum?

a)

What planet you're on

b)

What material is used to make the pendulum

c)

Which direction the pendulum starts swinging

d)

The frequency of the mass weight force grams

7.

Which of the following affects the period of a pendulum?

a)

mass

b)

length of the string

c)

tension of the string

d)

shape of the mass on the string

8.

Where does a pendulum have maximum potential energy?

a)

at the bottom of its arc

b)

at the end of its swing

c)

as it rises up

d)

as it falls

9.

Where does a pendulum have maximum kinetic energy?

a)

at the bottom of its arc

b)

at the end of its swing

c)

as it rises up

d)

as it falls

10.

A change in position of an object.

a)

position

b)

motion

c)

speed

d)

velocity

11.
Mechanical Advantage:  To drive objects apart.
a)
Pulley
b)
Inclined Plane
c)
Wedge
d)
Wheel and Axle
12.
What type of simple machine is shown here?
a)
Pulley
b)
Wheel and Axle
c)
Lever
d)
Wedge
13.
Something similar to a see-saw that can lift an object.
a)
Wedge
b)
Screw
c)
Lever
d)
Wheel and Axle
14.
Mechanical Advantage:  To move objects to a greater height.
a)
Pulley
b)
Wedge
c)
Lever
d)
Inclined Plane
15.
Mechanical Advantage:  To change the direction of a force.
a)
Wedge
b)
Pulley
c)
Screw
d)
Wheel and Axle
16.
Which of the following does a simple machine do?
a)
allows the users to apply less force over a longer distance
b)
reduce the amount of force needed to do work
c)
change the direction of the applied force
d)
all of the above
17.
Which is an example of someone using a simple machine to do work?
a)
a boy runs across a football field
b)
a banker counts money
c)
a mother pushes a stroller up a ramp
d)
a girl eats a sandwich
18.
The device used to raise a flag up a flag pole is an example of a 
a)
wheel and axle 
b)
lever
c)
inclined plane 
d)
pulley 
19.
Stairs
a)
wedge
b)
pulley
c)
inclined plane
d)
wheel and axle
20.
Name this simple machine. 
a)
Wheel and Axle
b)
Lever
c)
Pulley
d)
Wedge
21.
The fixed point on the lever is called 
a)
load
b)
resistance
c)
bar
d)
fulcrum
22.
The mechanical advantage of this inclined plane is.....
a)
2.4
b)
3.4
c)
4.4
23.

A weightlifter lifts two 300 newton weights 1.5 meters off the ground. How much work has she done?

a)

600 J

b)

450 J

c)

900 J

d)

1200 J

24.
You do 90 joules of work in 30 seconds. How much power have you generated?
a)
30 watts
b)
3 watts
c)
120 watts
d)
270 watts
25.

You move a 8 N object five meters in 4 seconds. How much power have you generated?

a)

160 watts

b)

10 watts

c)

6.4 watts

d)

17 watts

26.

When you rub your hands together on a cold day, you use friction to convert

a)

Mechanical energy into thermal energy

b)

Thermal energy into nuclear energy

c)

Chemical energy into mechanical energy.

d)

Electrical energy into thermal energy

27.

Which of the following is defined as work done per unit time?

a)

A. energy

b)

B. force

c)

C. power

d)

D. work

28.

50 J of work is done lifting a 20.0 N book in the air. How high was it lifted?

a)

2.5 m

b)

3.5 m

c)

0.4 m

d)

25 m

29.

The SI Unit for Energy is

a)

Joule

b)

Newton

c)

Calorie

d)

Watt

30.

What percent energy is wasted by a machine if the energy input is 262 J and the energy output is 131 J?

a)

5%

b)

50%

c)

100 J

31.
True or false: when the distance an object moves is zero the work done on the object is also zero.  
a)
True
b)
False
32.
 The law of conservation of energy states that when one form of energy is converted into another,
a)
Energy is destroyed in the process
b)
Energy is created in the process
c)
No energy is destroyed in the process
d)
Energy is lost in the process
33.
How do we calculate work?
a)
W = F * d
b)
w = f * D
c)
W = F * D
d)
w = f * d
34.

A cart pulled up an incline of 40 °\degree  at 5 newtons of net force for 2 meters requires how many Joules of work energy?

a)

6.7 J

b)

7.7 J

c)

6.7 N

d)

7.7 N

35.

The rock in the picture is pushed over the edge and it begins to fall. Which type of energy conversion is taking place?

a)

mechanical to heat

b)

sound to mechanical

c)

potential to kinetic

d)

kinetic to potential

36.
What are the two types of Mechanical Energy? (ME)
a)
Kinetic and Potential Energy
b)
Kinetic and Nuclear Energy
c)
Potential and Chemical Energy
d)
Thermal and Kinetic Energy
37.
Which of the following objects has the most kinetic energy?
a)
A 20 kg toddler running at 5 m/s
b)
A 50 kg toddler running at  30 m/s
c)
A 90 kg toddler running at 30 m/s
d)
A 100 kg  toddler running at 2 m/s
38.
This is the energy that moves objects. 
a)
cool 
b)
nuclear 
c)
chemical 
d)
mechanical 
39.

Which of the following are examples of internal forces

a)

Spring

b)

Gravity

c)

Sandpaper

d)

Air

40.

Which of the following are examples of External forces

a)

Spring

b)

Gravity

c)

Sandpaper

d)

Air

41.

Name what defines the capacity for something to do work.

(a)  

42.

Name what defines the capacity for something to do work.

(a)  

43.

Name what defines the capacity for something to do work.

(a)  

44.

An object is held above the ground it has what kind of energy?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

45.

An object is dropped to the ground it has what kind of energy?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

46.

An object is thrown in to the sky it has what kind of energy?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

47.

An object is at rest on a planet with gravity it has what kind of energy?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

48.

An object is dragged along the ground other than kinetic energy it produces what kind of energy due to friction?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

49.

An object is dragged along the ground other than kinetic energy it produces what kind of energy due to friction?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Thermal

50.

A skateboarder takes off at point 1. Without friction what is the furthest point the skater can go?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

Off the track

51.

A skateboarder takes off at point 1. With friction what is the furthest point the skater can go?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

Off the track

52.

A skateboarder takes off at point 4 towards 1. What is the furthest point the skater can go?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

Off the track

53.

A skateboarder takes off at point 4 towards 1. Without gravity what is the furthest point the skater can go?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

Off the track

54.

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can’t be …

(a)  

55.

A battery that is heating up with foil around it is turning _________ energy into ____________.

a)

Chemical/thermal

b)

Thermal/chemical

c)

Chemical/mechanical

d)

Chemical/gravitational

56.

A turbine that is running by heating up water is turning _________ energy into ____________.

a)

Chemical/thermal

b)

Thermal/mechanical

c)

Chemical/mechanical

d)

Chemical/gravitational

57.

A turbine that generating electricity is turning _________ energy into ____________.

a)

Chemical/electric

b)

Thermal/mechanical

c)

electric/mechanical

d)

Mechanical/electric

58.

A meteor going through the atmosphere is turning _________ energy into ____________.

a)

Gravitational/thermal

b)

Thermal/mechanical

c)

Thermal/gravitational

d)

Mechanical/thermal

59.

Energy goes through out our universe in what form

a)

Matter

b)

Waves

c)

Particles

d)

Gravity

60.

You measure the energy of a chemical reaction and find that you lost energy that you you put in. What happened?

a)

It lost the energy

b)

chemical energy was converted into some other form of energy

c)

The energy was used up in the reaction

d)

Energy was transferred into matter

61.

Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

a)

microwaves

b)

UV rays

c)

Infrared

d)

Gamma rays

62.

Which of the following has the most energy?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

63.

Which of the following has the most energy?

a)

X-rays

b)

The color green

c)

Microwaves

d)

Infrared

64.

Which of the following has the least amount of energy?

a)

UV rays

b)

The color yellow

c)

Radio waves

d)

Gamma rays

65.

Which of the following would have the highest frequency?

a)

Gamma rays

b)

The color red

c)

X-rays

d)

UV rays

66.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
67.
As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, the amount of energy in that wave...
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
68.
The blue section of the wave is measuring _________________.
a)
wavelength
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
amplitude 
69.
Light behaves like both a particle and a ______.
a)
Mass
b)
Wave
c)
Current
70.

The _______ of a wave is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point per second.

a)

wavelength

b)

frequency

c)

amplitude

d)

speed

71.

Which type of radiation has the HIGHER frequency?

a)

(a)

b)

(b)

72.

Considering frequency of 109 Hz and frequency of 1011 Hz, which type of radiation has the LONGER wavelength?

a)

109 Hz

b)

1011 Hz

73.

How do Microwaves cook food?

a)

The electromagnetic waves cause the molecules to vibrate quicker. This creates friction and heats/cooks food

b)

The electromagnetic waves heat up the food molecules in a similar way as a conventional oven

c)

The electromagnetic waves create a dry heat that warms the molecules in the food

d)

The electromagnetic waves send heat to the molecules which makes them begin to vibrate and cook

74.

Which electromagnetic waves are used in radar and cell phone communications?

a)

Infrared rays

b)

ultraviolet rays

c)

microwaves

d)

radio waves

75.
What is infrared radiation?
a)
The circulation of a fluid caused by heating it.
b)
Transfer of heat inside a metal.
c)
Heat energy transfer by electromagnetic waves
d)
Transfer of light energy
76.

Sunlight is made of bundles of radiation called

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

photons

77.

The diagram above shows a wind turbine. Which section of the wind turbine converts wind energy to electrical energy?

a)

blades

b)

generator

c)

rotor

d)

pitch system

78.

Coal is burned to heat water so that the _______ can turn turbines.

a)

fire

b)

steam

c)

water

d)

heat

79.
A north pole and a south pole will attract.
a)
True
b)
False
80.
The picture is an example of an:
a)
Electric circuit
b)
Electromagnet
c)
Electric nail
d)
Electric power cell
81.

To make this electromagnet stronger you could:

a)

use less wire

b)

have fewer wire coils around the nail

c)

have more wire coils around the nail

d)

use a plastic core

82.
In large generators in power plants, ___________ rotate inside a coil of wire to produce an electric current.
a)
Wind
b)
Water
c)
Magnets
d)
Circuits
83.

What is created when a wire moves between the poles of a magnet?

a)

a ferromagnet

b)

a solenoid

c)

an electromagnet

d)

an electric current

84.

A coil of wire with that can be used to generate an electric current is called a(n)

a)

transformer.

b)

electric generator.

c)

electric motor.

d)

solenoid.

85.

Surrounding every moving electron in a wave/field at perpendicular angles is

a)

a magnetic field

b)

an electric field

c)

a photon field

d)

an electromagnetic field

86.

This contraption scatters electrons through a metal cage preventing certain types of macroscopic electromagnetic waves from entering or leaving.

a)

Faraday Cage

b)

Electrical Cage

c)

Microwave Cage

d)

Nicholas Cage

87.
At one point in time, many people thought disease was caused by fate or by incorrect behavior. Following the invention of the microscope, bacteria were discovered. After this, a new theory of what causes disease arose that was known as the germ theory.  Why was the original theory modified? 
a)
It quickly became obvious that germs cause disease.
b)
The person who invented the microscope became ill.
c)
New evidence prompted revision to the original ideas.
d)
The proponents of the germ theory had political power.
88.
Joe tells Mai his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtles would drown.” Joe says his uncle is a fisherman, who told Joe this information. Mai tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Which explanation supports Mai’s evaluation of Joe’s theory?
a)
Joe’s idea is already a scientific law. 
b)
Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence. 
c)
Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments. 
d)
Joe’s idea accurately explains why sea turtles nest on the beach. 
89.
Scientists discuss and debate experimental results and possible explanations in studying phenomena. Which best explains why scientists debate while searching for explanations?
a)
because debating helps scientists focus on empirical evidence, analyzing both the strengths and weaknesses of the evidence
b)
because debating helps the scientific community to present interesting and exciting science to the public
c)
because debating gives scientists an opportunity to express their feelings and opinions about the subject
d)
because every scientist wants to find an accurate explanation and disprove others’ explanations
90.
Unprotected exposure to the sun’s rays is a factor in the development of skin cancer. Which   of the following is an example of empirical evidence that supports this hypothesis?
a)
a model of a skin cell showing where DNA is in the cell
b)
a skin cancer survivor’s recollection that he had a bad sunburn as a child
c)
data demonstrating a relationship between amount of sun exposure and incidences of skin cancer
d)
an advertisement for a sun block product that claims it protects skin for ultraviolet rays
91.
Which explanation best describes why theories can change?
a)
Scientists like to make kids learn new things
b)
Textbooks need to be updated
c)
More money is needed for research
d)
Scientists are always learning new things.
92.

When trying to get accurate information it is best to...

a)

Use multiple credible sources

b)

Use one single, credible source

c)

Use as many sources as possible, even if they are unreliable

d)

Not use any sources

93.

Which of the following are good steps to take when you encounter something online that you’re unsure about:

a)

Do a quick web search to see if other credible sources of information are reporting the same thing

b)

Assume that if your info is posted online, it had to be well-checked so it's credible

c)

If there are photos, it's automatically more authentic news

d)

Post the story on social media and crowdsource an opinion

94.
Where do most teens get their news from?
a)
Newspapers
b)
TV
c)
Parents or family
d)
Social Media
95.
Why is fake news a problem?
a)
The public is getting misinformation
b)
Most people who see fake news believe it's actual news
c)
Fake news often looks like real news
d)
all of the above
96.

Which of the following are ways to be sure that you should do to best choose your news?

a)

only trust .com URLs

b)

give it time- wait to see how a story develops

c)

only get news from sources where you know the media bias

d)

check other social media accounts

97.

If the speaker is a celebrity, you can believe what they are saying is valid and true.

a)

true

b)

false

98.

In the Dark Ages, how were books produced?

a)

Books were not produced in the dark ages.

b)

Books were carved into stone tablets.

c)

Books were copied by hand by people known as monks.

d)

Books were copied by hand by women who were imprisoned.

99.

The Gutenberg printing press truly changed the world. Which answer best summarizes how the invention of the printing press leads to world change?

a)

The Gutenberg printing press allows schools to begin teaching reading.

b)

The Gutenberg printing press allows for the development of an alphabet. Before the printing press, people only wrote in hieroglyphs.

c)

The Gutenberg printing press allowed for mass production of books, leading to an explosion of ideas being shared.

d)

The Gutenberg press was used to mass-produce the bible, which led to an expansion of religious ideas.

100.

Beyond the Gutenberg printing press, there were four major revolutions in communication. The development of the Gutenberg press was the first major revolution, what is the last?

a)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of TV.

b)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of t cellular phones in the 1980s.

c)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of social media and electronic technology for idea-sharing.

d)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of live radio broadcasting.

101.
You should be skeptical of media.  Skeptical means
a)
doubtful
b)
daring
c)
deceiving
d)
delighted
102.
Which phrase MOST accurately describes the relationship between bias and media? 
a)
If a piece of media is biased, it has no value
b)
bias can be avoided easily
c)
biased media is more interesting
d)
all media has a bias
103.
Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.
a)
Absolute Thinking 
b)
Genius Thinking 
c)
Critical Thinking 
d)
Awesome Thinking 
104.
A material in which electrons are able to move easily
a)
Circuit
b)
Insulator 
c)
Resistance 
d)
Conductor 
105.
A material in which electrons are not able to move easily 
a)
Circuit 
b)
Insulator 
c)
Resistance 
d)
Conductor
106.
Electric current that flows in only one direction. 
a)
Voltage 
b)
Direct Current 
c)
Alternating Current
d)
Series Circuit 
107.
The flow/movement of electric charges 
a)
Voltage
b)
Resistance 
c)
Current 
d)
Circuit 
108.
A closed path that electric current follows 
a)
Voltage
b)
Current
c)
Resistance 
d)
Circuit
109.
According to this law, the current in a circuit equals the voltage difference divided by the resistance. 
a)
Law of Conservation of Energy 
b)
Ohm's Law 
c)
Law of Conservation of Charges
d)
Newton's First Law 
110.
The current has only has one loop to flow through in this circuit. 
a)
Series Circuit 
b)
Parallel Circuit 
111.
This circuit contains two or more branches for current to move through. 
a)
Series Circuit 
b)
Parallel Circuit 
112.
The accumulation of excess electric charge on an object is called
a)
Static electricity 
b)
Electric discharge
c)
Resistance
d)
Circuit 
113.
What kind of circuit is this?
a)
series
b)
parallel
114.
What type of circuit is show in the image?
a)
Series Circuit
b)
Parallel Circuit
115.
What material would be safest to use as an insulator to cover electrical wires?
a)
rubber
b)
tin
c)
aluminum
d)
water
116.
Which of these substances conducts electricity the best?
a)
wood
b)
brick
c)
copper
d)
plastic
117.
What size resistor would produce a 3 Amp current flow with a 12 Volt battery
a)
1 Ohm
b)
3 Ohms
c)
4 Ohms
d)
12 Ohms
118.
What is current measured in?
a)
Ω (Ohms)
b)
V (Volts)
c)
A (Amps)
d)
W (Watts)
119.
What is the Voltage of a circuit that has a resistance of 5 Ω and a current of 2 A?
a)
25 V
b)
10 V
c)
2.5 V
d)
0.4 V
120.
How many Volts would we need to produce a current flow of 8 Amps through a 6 Ohm resistor
a)
12 volts
b)
24 volts
c)
1.3333
d)
48 volts
121.
What is the voltage across   the plates of the capacitor if  the capacitance is 10 uF and the Charge stored is  30 uC?
a)
0.333 V
b)
3 V
c)
300 V
122.

With respect to the capacitor, which relationship is true? •

a)

C = Q×V

b)

V = C×Q

c)

V = Q/C

d)

Q = C/V

123.

A capacitor of capacitance 30μF is fully charged from a 10 V d.c. supply. Calculate the charged stored by the capacitor

a)

3.0 mC

b)

0.30 mC

c)

300 mC

d)

330 kC

124.

How to you calculate the total resistance in a series circuit?

a)

R1 + R2+ R3

b)

R1 - R2 - R3

c)

1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3

d)

R1 = R2 = R3

125.

How do you calculate total resistance in a parallel circuit?

a)

R1 + R2 + R3

b)

R1 - R2 - R3

c)

1/R1 +1/R2 + 1/R3 = 1/RT

d)

R1 = R2 = R3

126.

What is the equivalent or total resistance (Re) across this circuit?

a)

3 kΩ

b)

10 kΩ

c)

13 kΩ

d)

18 kΩ

127.

How would the equivalent resistance be determined?

a)

1 / Req = (1/5) + (1/8) + (1/3) Ω

b)

120 Ω

c)

1.5189873 Ω

d)

1 / Req = (1/5) * (1/8) * (1/3) Ω

128.
What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons only
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Electrons 
129.
Protons and Electrons balance the charge of an atom.
a)
True
b)
False
130.
Electric charges that are different _______ each other.
a)
Attract
b)
Repel
131.
What charge does a proton have?
a)
negative (-)
b)
positive (+)
c)
neutral or no charge (0)
132.
What charge does an electron have?
a)
negative (-)
b)
positive (+)
c)
neutral or no charge (0)
133.
If a substance has an excess number of electrons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?
a)
A negative charge
b)
A positive charge
c)
A neutral charge
d)
A nuclear charge
134.
The closer the charges, the ___________ the force between them
a)
closer
b)
further
c)
stronger
d)
weaker
135.
What is the SI unit used to measure force? 
a)
pounds 
b)
grams 
c)
newtons 
d)
friction
136.

According to Coulomb's Law, The greater the separation distance between two charges the greater the magnitude of the electric force. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

137.
What variable is a Coulomb the unit for?
a)
Charge
b)
Force
c)
Distance
d)
Mass
138.

Which of the following units provides the best measure for the amount of space that matter occupies (volume)?

a)

mL

b)

grams

c)

cm3

d)

Both mL and cm3

139.

Density =

a)

Mass x Volume

b)

Volume x Mass

c)

Mass / Volume

d)

Volume / Mass

140.
What is the density of water?
a)
1 mL
b)
1 gram
c)
1 g/cm3
d)
All of the above
141.

When a metal mailbox is rusting because of the weather, the rust is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

magnetism

d)

texture

142.

When a hammer breaks a large rock into smaller pieces, the broken rock is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

solubility

d)

density

143.

Properties of matter that can be measured or observed without changing the basic nature of the matter.

a)

Chemical properties

b)

property

c)

matter

d)

Physical properties

144.

A property of matter that can only be observed by changing the basic nature of the matter (e.g. combustibility)

a)

physical property

b)

physical change

c)

chemical change

d)

chemical property

145.
Where are electrons of an atom found?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Some are in the nucleus and some in the electron cloud.
d)
They are moving everywhere.
146.
Which of the following is a positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Quark
147.
What carries no charge 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Electrons
c)
Protons
148.

Which is the smallest particle of an atom?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

atom

d)

neutron

149.
The negatively charged particles of an atom are the ______.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
150.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
151.

What is the atomic number?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

152.
Which is an electron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
153.

After mixing two substances you notice some bubbling has occurred. What can you infer about this interaction?

a)

It's a chemical reaction

b)

It's a physical reaction

c)

It's a magical reaction

d)

It's a physical change

154.

When moving a metal bar next to some iron shavings you notice that the iron shavings stick to the metal bar. This is an example of what property of matter?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Electricity

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Plasma

155.

Electricity was summarized in class by the _________ of electrons.

a)

Flow

b)

Waves

c)

Particles

d)

Field

156.

Light, electricity and magnetism are all part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

Which of the following statements is an observation. (Checkboxes mean there may be more than 1 correct answer)

a)

The light got brighter

b)

The light is powered by electricity

c)

The electrons are flowing through the light bulb.

d)

The light got dimmer

158.
The pH scale is a range from:
a)
1-7
b)
0-14
c)
1-5
d)
1-20
159.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
160.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
161.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

162.

An acid

a)

is a substance that releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

b)

is a substance that does not release any ions when dissolved in water

c)

is a substance that releases OH- when dissolved in water

d)

releases an equal amount of OH- and H+ ions when dissolved in water

163.

Water has a neutral pH because

a)

it has more H+ ions than OH-

b)

it has more OH- ions than H+

c)

it does not produce any ions

d)

it has an equal amount of H+ and OH- in solution

164.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if H ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
165.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
166.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
167.

Bright Red pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

168.

Dark blue pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

169.
A  pH and a pOH will add up to:
a)
0
b)
7
c)
14
d)
1.0 x 10-14
170.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the Hydronium (H+) concentration?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

171.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the pH?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

172.

According to the video, H+ and H3O+ are symbols essentially representing the same idea.

a)

True

b)

False

173.
What is the force that causes objects to fall to Earth?
a)
Air resistance
b)
Gravity
c)
Water resistance
d)
Pressure
174.
What is the name of the units that we measure force in?
a)
Einsteins 
b)
Newtons
c)
Kg
d)
Metres
175.
What will cause an object to move?
a)
Applied forces
b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
176.
If an object is stationary (not moving) the forces acting upon it are _____________
a)
unbalanced
b)
weak
c)
balanced
d)
Hulk Smash!
177.
What is the net force?
a)
20 N 
b)
0 N 
c)
400 N 
d)
40 N 
178.
What is the net force?
a)
10 N
b)
0 N
c)
25 N
d)
1 N
179.

A skateboard rolls down a hill, reaches the level surface and eventually comes to a stop. The fact that the skateboard ultimately stops is best explained by ____.

a)

an unbalanced force would be required to keep the sled moving forward at constant speed

b)

the presence of an unbalanced force (e.g., friction) can cause a moving object to stop

c)

the presence of inertia causes it to stop

d)

the natural tendency of any object is to ultimately stop

180.

The rate something is traveling in a certain direction.

a)

speed

b)

inertia

c)

velocity

181.

The amount of MATTER in an object.

a)

momentum

b)

velocity

c)

mass

182.

Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist a change in its ___________.

a)

temperature

b)

shape

c)

size

d)

motion

183.

the tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion

a)

acceleration

b)

inertia

c)

mass

d)

frame of reference

184.

A force has both strength and _____.

a)

power

b)

direction

c)

color

d)

balance

185.

Velocity is speed with __________________________.

a)

a unicycle helmet

b)

direction

c)

fight

186.
Which of the following is a unit for acceleration?
a)
km/s
b)
m/s2
c)
mi/hr
d)
ft
187.
This type of force resist motion between two surfaces that are pressed together
a)
contact
b)
gravity
c)
friction
188.
A person’s body is thrown outward as a car rounds a curve on a highway.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
189.
A picture is hanging on a wall and does not move.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
190.
Pushing a child on a swing is easier than pushing an adult on the same swing, because the adult has more inertia.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
191.
Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a mass. The greater the mass (of the object being accelerated) the greater the amount of force needed (to accelerate the object).
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
192.
An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced force. An object in motion continues in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
193.
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them

Similar Resources on Wayground

2022 Conceptual Physics 2nd Semester Final Exam Review

190 questions

2022 Conceptual Physics 2nd Semester Final Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade

Benchmark Winter Review 2022

189 questions

Benchmark Winter Review 2022

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade