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Worksheets

Week 18 FINAL - Chemistry

Total questions: 208

Worksheet time: 6hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the following chemical reaction.

2 NaBr + 1 Ca(OH)2 ----> 1 CaBr2 + 2 NaOH

a)

Synthesis (or combination)

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single displacement

d)

Double displacement

2.

Identify the following chemical reaction.

3 HBr + 1 Al(OH)3 ----> 3 H­2O + 1 AlBr3

a)

Synthesis (or combination)

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single displacement

d)

Double displacement

3.

Identify the following chemical reaction.

Pb + FeSO4 ----> PbSO4 + Fe

a)

Synthesis (or combination)

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single displacement

d)

Double displacement

4.

What reaction has the following general formula:

AB --> A + B

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

5.

What reaction has the following general formula:

A + CD --> C + AD

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

6.

What reaction has the following general formula:

A + B --> AB

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

7.

Which of the following is a compound?

a)

zinc (Zn)

b)

magnesium (Mg)

c)

sodium chloride (NaCl)

d)

potassium (K)

8.

Which of the following is an element?

a)

potassium chloride (KCl)

b)

water (H2O)

c)

carbon (C)

d)

calcium carbonate (CaCO3)

9.

What type of chemical reaction is this one?

CUO + CO2 --> CuCO3

a)

Decomposition

b)

Combustion

c)

Synthesis

d)

Single Replacement

10.

What type of chemical reaction is this one?

Ca + MgCl2 --> CaCl2 + Mg

a)

Decomposition

b)

Combustion

c)

Synthesis

d)

Single Replacement

11.

The right side of the equation below is called the

a)

products

b)

reactants

12.

What type of reaction is illustrated below?

2HI --> H2 + I2

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

13.

What type of chemical reaction is this one?

C2H2 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O

a)

Decomposition

b)

Combustion

c)

Synthesis

d)

Single Replacement

14.

When a scientist mixed two chemicals, an exothermic reaction takes place. Which of the following would be proof that the reaction was exothermic?

a)

a change of color

b)

a change of state

c)

a temperature decrease

d)

a temperature increase

15.

2Na +S → Na2S

a)

Double Replacement

b)

Decomposition

c)

Combustion

d)

Synthesis

16.

2 NO2 ---> 2 O2 + N2

a)

Synthesis

b)

Single Replacement

c)

Decomposition

d)

Combustion

17.
What coefficient should be used to make the following equation balanced?
N2+O2--> _NO 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
18.

Which equation is balanced?

a)

PbO2 + 2H2

b)

SO2 + H20 --> H2SO4

c)

2Na + 2H2O --> 2NaOH + H2

19.
How many HCl molecules do you need to balance this equation? 
Mg +  __HCl --->  MgCl2 + H2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
20.

What are the coefficients that would properly balance this equation?

__Ca + __H2O --> __Ca(OH)2 + __H2

a)

2,1 --> 2,1

b)

1,2 --> 1,1

c)

1,2 --> 2,4

d)

1,2 --> 2,1

21.

Determine the coefficients to make the following equation balanced?

__N2 + __O2--> __NO

a)

1, 1, 1

b)

1, 1, 2

c)

2, 2, 2

d)

1, 2, 2

22.

What is the left part of a chemical equation called?

2H2 + O2 ---> 2H2O

a)

Reactants

b)

Yields

c)

Products

d)

Chemical equation

23.

Which of the following equations are correctly balanced?

a)

12CO2 + H2O ---> C6H12O6 + O2

b)

CO2 + H2O ---> 3C6H12O6 + O2

c)

CO2 + 9H2O ---> C6H12O6 + O2

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O ---> C6H12O6 + 6O2

24.

When something burns, it reacts with the __________ in the air.

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Neon

25.

When magnesium is burnt, a white substance is formed. This substance is ____________________.

a)

Oxygen Magnetite

b)

Magnesium sulfide

c)

Magnesium oxide

d)

Magnesium chloride

26.

Burning magnesium is an example of a __________ reaction.

a)

chemical

b)

physical

c)

biological

27.

Magnesium is a/an __________________.

a)

compound

b)

ion

c)

element

d)

electron

28.

In a chemical reaction,

a)

no new substance is formed

b)

a new substance is formed

c)

products and reactants have the same properties

d)

reactants are not needed

29.

Complete the word equation below.


Magnesium + oxygen --> .....

a)

Magnesium

b)

Magnesium oxide

c)

Oxides

d)

Magnesium oxide + water

30.

What ions are present in molten aluminium oxide?

a)

Al3+, O2-, H+, OH-

b)

Al3+, O2-

c)

Al3+, OH-

31.
Explain why the electrolyte has to be a liquid.
a)
So the ions can move
b)
So the electrons can move
c)
So that it doesn't get too hot
d)
So the fish are ok
32.
What happens at the positive electrode?
a)
Positive non-metal ions are attracted
b)
Positive metal ions are attracted
c)
Negative non-metal ions are attracted
d)
Negative metal ions are attracted
33.
What particle carries the charge in the wire?
a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
ion
d)
atom
34.
What particle carries the charge in the electrolyte?
a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
ion
d)
atom
35.

Predict the products for the decomposition of aluminum oxide, Al2O3 →

a)

Al + O2

b)

O + Al2

c)

Al2 + O3

d)

Al + O

36.

What is the missing product?


2 NO2 ➔ O2 + _________

a)

N2

b)

N

c)

NO

37.

What reactant would make the following equation true?

______________ → zinc oxide + carbon dioxide

a)

zinc carbonate

b)

zinc oxide

c)

zinc dioxide

d)

zinc hydrogen carbonate

38.

The number 6.022 x 1023 is called...

a)

A dozen

b)

Bohr's number

c)

Buckley's number

d)

Avogadro's number

39.

Which has more molecules?

a)

1 mole H2O

b)

1 mole CH4

c)

1 mole Cl2

d)

They're are all the same.

40.

One mole of sulfur (S) is equal to home many atoms?

a)

32 atoms

b)

16 atoms

c)

1.20 x 1023 atoms

d)

6.022 x 1023 atoms

41.

5.11 x 1023 atoms of lithium (Li) is equal to how many moles?

a)

1.18 moles

b)

0.351 moles

c)

1.34 moles

d)

0.849 moles

42.

What happens when magnesium reacts with oxygen?

a)

Nothing happens

b)

It becomes very bright

c)

Magnesium chloride is formed

d)

It is extremely hot

43.

Copper + oxygen → ?

a)

Copper oxide

b)

Copper chloride

c)

Copper chlorine

d)

Oxygen copper

44.

The charge on a lithium ion in its ionic

compound is _____.

a)

+1

b)

+2

c)

+3

d)

-1

e)

Varies

45.

A chemical bond between a metal and a non-metal

a)

Ionic Bond

b)

James Bond

c)

Covalent Bond

d)

Polar Bond

46.

What type of bond is NaCl?

a)

Ionic Bond

b)

James Bond

c)

Covalent Bond

d)

Polar Bond

47.
a substance that is formed as the result of a chemical reaction
a)
Product 
b)
Reactant
c)
Starters
d)
Enders
48.
The students measured length during a science experiement, they got 12 cm. But the actual measurement was 14.25 cm. What was the percent error?
a)
15.79%
b)
18.75%
c)
2.25%
d)
18%
49.
What is the limiting reactant if 10 moles of NH3  react  with 30.0 moles of NO?
4NH3+6NO --> 5N2 + 6H2O
a)
NH3
b)
NO
c)
N2
d)
water
50.
When reacting Na with Cl2, we calculated that the theoretical yield should be 12.5 grams. Our actual yield was 13.0 grams. What is the percent yield?
a)
100%
b)
104%
c)
96%
d)
1.04
51.
How many steps are in a gram to mole conversion?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
52.
What are the units for molar mass?
a)
grams
b)
amu
c)
grams/mole
d)
liters
53.

Avogadro’s number is:

a)

6.02 x 1022

b)

6

c)

6.02 x 1023

d)

3.01 x 1023

54.

If you want 1.55 moles of nitrogen trichloride, how many grams should you measure out?

a)

0.0129 g

b)

120. g

c)

187 g

d)

9.33 g

55.
What is the atomic number?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the number of protons and neutrons
c)
the number of neutrons
d)
the number of protons and electrons
56.

What is the molar mass of PbSO4?

a)

303.27 g/mol

b)

255.27 g/mol

c)

163.87 g/mol

d)

372.27 g/mol

57.
How many molecules are in 2.5 mol of NaCl?
a)
1.51x1023
b)
146
c)
4.15
d)
1.51x1024
58.
How many atoms of carbon are in 6.00g of carbon?
a)
1.20x1024atoms C
b)
6.02x1023atoms C
c)
3.01x1023atoms C
d)
1.50x1023atoms C
59.
How many grams are in 1.2 x 1024 molecules of CO?
a)
28 grams
b)
56 grams
c)
6.02 grams
d)
1.2 grams
60.

How many water molecules are in 5.2 moles of water?

a)

6.0 x 1023 molecules

b)

5.2 molecules

c)

3.1 x 1024 molecules

d)

8.6 x 10-24 molecules

61.

What is the molar mass of PbSO4?

a)

303.27 g/mol

b)

255.27 g/mol

c)

163.87 g/mol

d)

372.27 g/mol

62.

Shivani measures out 6.0 moles of epsom salt (MgSO4) to put in her bath. How many grams of MgSO4 went in the bath?

a)

3.6 x 1024 g

b)

720 g

c)

0.050 g

d)

340 g

63.
How many molecules are there in 31.8 moles of water?
a)
5.28 x 10-23 molecules
b)
1.91 x 1025 molecules
c)
5.28x 10-25
d)
1.91 x 1022
64.

Determine the mass of 4.20 moles of C6H12

a)

353 g

b)

0.0499 g

c)

337 g

d)

2.53 x 1024 g

65.

Calculate the number of atoms in 0.0340 g Zn.

a)

5.20 x 10-4 atoms Zn

b)

3.13 x 1023 atoms Zn

c)

3.13 x 1020 atoms Zn

d)

2.05 x 1022 atoms Zn

66.

Nonmetals tend to

a)

gain electrons

b)

lose electrons

67.

Metals tend to

a)

gain electrons

b)

lose electrons

68.
When metals bond with non-metals they form what type of bonds
a)
covalent
b)
ionic
c)
cooperative
d)
lewis
69.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Na1+  F1-         
a)
NaF
b)
NaF3
c)
Na3F
d)
Na1F2
70.

When a nonmetal gains electrons, it becomes this type of ion.

a)

Anion

b)

Cation

71.

When a metal loses electrons, it becomes this type of ion.

a)

anion

b)

cation

72.
When an ionic compound is formed, its charge is 
a)
negative
b)
neutral (no charge)
c)
positive
73.
Which is the correct formula for sodium chloride?
a)
SoCl
b)
SdCl
c)
NaCl
d)
NaCl2
74.
Which of the following BEST describes ionic bonds?
a)
Bond held together by a sea of electrons
b)
Bond of two ions of opposite charges held together by electrostatic forces
c)
Bond held together by the sharing of electrons
d)
Bond between hydrogen and an anion or polyatomic ion.
75.

When electrons are shared a(an) ________ bond is formed

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

metallic

76.
How many valence electrons in this structure?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
4
d)
7
77.

Which category of elements usually form negative ions?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

noble gases

78.

A charged particle that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n) _____.

a)

molecule

b)

ion

c)

isotope

d)

element

79.

Which part of the atom is responsible for chemical bonding?

a)

Core Electrons

b)

Valence Electrons

c)

Protons

d)

Neutrons

80.

How many valence electrons does an atom of phosphorus have?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

5

d)

8

81.
The number of valence electrons is equal to the ____________ for the representative elements (group A elements)
a)
period number
b)
Atomic number
c)
group number
d)
oxidation number
82.

Looking at your Periodic Table, what kind of bond would NaF create?

a)

Covalent

b)

Molecular

c)

Ionic

d)

Metallic

83.
If I gain electrons I become
a)
Positive because I've added to my atom
b)
negative because I've added electrons
c)
same because i'm balanced
d)
equal because now I have electrons
84.

what is the name of the ion - Mg+1

a)

manganese metal

b)

magnesium metal

c)

manganese ion

d)

magnesium ion

85.

which of the elements below is a metal

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon

c)

sodium

d)

sulfur

86.

which element is a nonmetal

a)

aluminum

b)

fluoride

c)

lead

d)

potassium

87.
If my charge becomes 2+ what does that say about me?
a)
I am stealing 2 electrons
b)
I am losing 2 electrons
c)
I am in period 2
d)
I have an atomic # of 2
88.
The molecular formula for water is
a)
W
b)
H2O
c)
2HO
d)
H2O
89.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
90.

You place electrodes in a solution and you observe a current! This solution must include

a)

ionic bonds

b)

covalent bonds

c)

ions

d)

salt

91.
 In a Hydrogen bond the slightly positive hydrogen in water is attracted to:
a)
positive ions
b)
negative ions
92.

A molecule that has a partial positive end and a partial negative end because of unequal sharing of electrons is a _______________.

a)

nonpolar molecule

b)

polar molecule

c)

ionic compound

d)

metalic compound

93.

Polar molecules will dissolve in other polar molecules and nonpolar molecules will dissolve in other nonpolar molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Polar molecules have

a)

no charges.

b)

slight positive and negative charges on opposite ends of the molecules.

c)

only positive charges.

d)

either positive or negative charges, but not both.

95.
Which particle is negatively charged?
a)
proton
b)
atom
c)
neutron
d)
electron
96.

Is water an element or a compound?

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

neither

d)

both

97.

In this Lewis structure, the symbol above F means...

a)

Partial positive charge

b)

Electrons are less attracted to F than H

c)

Partial negative charge

d)

Fluorine has formed a cation

98.

Which atom has the LOWER electronegativity?

a)

Na

b)

Li

99.
The pH scale is a range from:
a)
1-7
b)
0-14
c)
1-5
d)
1-20
100.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
101.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
102.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

103.

An acid

a)

is a substance that releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

b)

is a substance that does not release any ions when dissolved in water

c)

is a substance that releases OH- when dissolved in water

d)

releases an equal amount of OH- and H+ ions when dissolved in water

104.

Water has a neutral pH because

a)

it has more H+ ions than OH-

b)

it has more OH- ions than H+

c)

it does not produce any ions

d)

it has an equal amount of H+ and OH- in solution

105.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if H ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
106.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
107.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
108.

Bright Red pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

109.

Dark blue pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

110.
A  pH and a pOH will add up to:
a)
0
b)
7
c)
14
d)
1.0 x 10-14
111.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the Hydronium (H+) concentration?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

112.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the pH?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

113.

According to the video, H+ and H3O+ are symbols essentially representing the same idea.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Which is an example of an ionic compound?

a)

Water

b)

Table Sugar

c)

Table salt

d)

Olive oil

115.

Covalent bonds form when...

a)

Atoms share electrons

b)

Atoms give away electrons

c)

Atoms gain electrons

d)

Atoms are near eachother

116.

Which of the following can form covalent bonds? Choose the best answer

a)

Metals

b)

Nonmetals

c)

Both Metals and nonmetals

d)

Only nuclear compounds.

117.

Atoms joined by covalent bonds form?

a)

Atoms

b)

Elements

c)

Molecules

d)

Ionic compounds

118.

Oxygen has 6 valence electrons, Hydrogen has 1. How many hydrogens need to bond to 1 oxygen atom to form a stable valence shell of 8?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

119.

If an atom shares 2 pairs of electrons it forms a...

a)

Single Bond

b)

Double Bond

c)

Triple Bond

d)

Quadruple Bond

120.

If an atom shares 3 pairs of electrons it forms a...

a)

Single Bond

b)

Double Bond

c)

Triple Bond

d)

Quadruple Bond

121.

Oxygen shares two pairs of electrons. It forms a __________ covalent bond

a)

Single

b)

Double

c)

Triple

d)

Quadruple

122.

What is the formula for sodium bromide?

a)

NaBr

b)

NaBr2

c)

Na2Br

d)

SoBr

123.

What is the formula for diphosphorus pentoxide?

a)

P2O5

b)

PO5

c)

P5O2

d)

Po2O5

124.

What is the name for SiCl4?

a)

silicon tetrachloride

b)

silicon quadchloride

c)

monosilicon tetrachloride

d)

silicon chloride

125.

What is the chemical formula of sulfur hexabromide?

a)

SBr₆

b)

S₆Br

c)

S(VI)Br

d)

SBr4

126.

What is the name of P₄S₁₀?

a)

phosphorous sulfide

b)

phosphorus sulfite

c)

tetraphosphorus decasulfide

d)

tetraphosphide decasulfide

127.
What is the formula for Hydrosulfuric Acid?
a)
H2(SO3)
b)
H2S
c)
H2(SO2)
d)
H2(SO4)
128.
Name HF
a)
hydrofluoric acid
b)
Hypofluoric acid
c)
hydrogen fluorine acid
d)
fluoric acid
129.
What is the formula for hydrochloric acid?
a)
HCl
b)
HClO
c)
H3ClO3
d)
HClO3
130.

Binary acids start with "____________"

a)

acid

b)

nitric

c)

hydraulic

d)

hydro

131.

Always add the word "________" to the end when naming acids

a)

base

b)

hydro

c)

acid

d)

Baumstark

132.

When naming binary acids, the ending always changes to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ite

c)

-ic

d)

-ous

133.

When naming oxyacids, change "-ite" to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ic

c)

-ous

d)

-ite

134.

When naming oxyacids, change "-ate" to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ic

c)

-ous

d)

-ite

135.

The "Polyatomic Ion" chart is needed to name:

a)

binary acids

b)

oxyacids

c)

jack acids

d)

all acids

136.
How many electrons should Oxygen have around its Lewis dot model?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
7
d)
8
137.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for the compound PBr3?
a)
structure A
b)
structure B
c)
structure C
d)
structure D
138.
According to the octet rule most elements need _______ valence electrons.
a)
2
b)
8
c)
6
d)
18
139.
In the correct Lewis structure for CH4, how many unshared electron pairs surround the carbon?
a)
2
b)
8
c)
0
d)
4
140.
This is a correct dot diagram for oxygen (O)
a)
true
b)
false
141.
This is a correct dot diagram for fluorine (F)
a)
true
b)
false
142.
This is the correct dot diagram for nitrogen (N)
a)
true
b)
false
143.
How many sigma bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
144.
How many pi bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
145.
How many sigma bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
146.
How many sigma and pi bonds does this have?
a)
1 sigma and 1 pi
b)
2 sigma and 1 pi
c)
1 sigma and 2 pi
d)
2 sigma and 2 pi
147.
How many pi bonds does this have? 
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
148.

How many sigma bonds are in the following molecule?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

5

e)

6

149.
At one point in time, many people thought disease was caused by fate or by incorrect behavior. Following the invention of the microscope, bacteria were discovered. After this, a new theory of what causes disease arose that was known as the germ theory.  Why was the original theory modified? 
a)
It quickly became obvious that germs cause disease.
b)
The person who invented the microscope became ill.
c)
New evidence prompted revision to the original ideas.
d)
The proponents of the germ theory had political power.
150.
Joe tells Mai his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtles would drown.” Joe says his uncle is a fisherman, who told Joe this information. Mai tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Which explanation supports Mai’s evaluation of Joe’s theory?
a)
Joe’s idea is already a scientific law. 
b)
Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence. 
c)
Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments. 
d)
Joe’s idea accurately explains why sea turtles nest on the beach. 
151.
Scientists discuss and debate experimental results and possible explanations in studying phenomena. Which best explains why scientists debate while searching for explanations?
a)
because debating helps scientists focus on empirical evidence, analyzing both the strengths and weaknesses of the evidence
b)
because debating helps the scientific community to present interesting and exciting science to the public
c)
because debating gives scientists an opportunity to express their feelings and opinions about the subject
d)
because every scientist wants to find an accurate explanation and disprove others’ explanations
152.
Unprotected exposure to the sun’s rays is a factor in the development of skin cancer. Which   of the following is an example of empirical evidence that supports this hypothesis?
a)
a model of a skin cell showing where DNA is in the cell
b)
a skin cancer survivor’s recollection that he had a bad sunburn as a child
c)
data demonstrating a relationship between amount of sun exposure and incidences of skin cancer
d)
an advertisement for a sun block product that claims it protects skin for ultraviolet rays
153.
Which explanation best describes why theories can change?
a)
Scientists like to make kids learn new things
b)
Textbooks need to be updated
c)
More money is needed for research
d)
Scientists are always learning new things.
154.

When trying to get accurate information it is best to...

a)

Use multiple credible sources

b)

Use one single, credible source

c)

Use as many sources as possible, even if they are unreliable

d)

Not use any sources

155.

Which of the following are good steps to take when you encounter something online that you’re unsure about:

a)

Do a quick web search to see if other credible sources of information are reporting the same thing

b)

Assume that if your info is posted online, it had to be well-checked so it's credible

c)

If there are photos, it's automatically more authentic news

d)

Post the story on social media and crowdsource an opinion

156.
Where do most teens get their news from?
a)
Newspapers
b)
TV
c)
Parents or family
d)
Social Media
157.
Why is fake news a problem?
a)
The public is getting misinformation
b)
Most people who see fake news believe it's actual news
c)
Fake news often looks like real news
d)
all of the above
158.

Which of the following are ways to be sure that you should do to best choose your news?

a)

only trust .com URLs

b)

give it time- wait to see how a story develops

c)

only get news from sources where you know the media bias

d)

check other social media accounts

159.

If the speaker is a celebrity, you can believe what they are saying is valid and true.

a)

true

b)

false

160.

In the Dark Ages, how were books produced?

a)

Books were not produced in the dark ages.

b)

Books were carved into stone tablets.

c)

Books were copied by hand by people known as monks.

d)

Books were copied by hand by women who were imprisoned.

161.

The Gutenberg printing press truly changed the world. Which answer best summarizes how the invention of the printing press leads to world change?

a)

The Gutenberg printing press allows schools to begin teaching reading.

b)

The Gutenberg printing press allows for the development of an alphabet. Before the printing press, people only wrote in hieroglyphs.

c)

The Gutenberg printing press allowed for mass production of books, leading to an explosion of ideas being shared.

d)

The Gutenberg press was used to mass-produce the bible, which led to an expansion of religious ideas.

162.

Beyond the Gutenberg printing press, there were four major revolutions in communication. The development of the Gutenberg press was the first major revolution, what is the last?

a)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of TV.

b)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of t cellular phones in the 1980s.

c)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of social media and electronic technology for idea-sharing.

d)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of live radio broadcasting.

163.
You should be skeptical of media.  Skeptical means
a)
doubtful
b)
daring
c)
deceiving
d)
delighted
164.
Which phrase MOST accurately describes the relationship between bias and media? 
a)
If a piece of media is biased, it has no value
b)
bias can be avoided easily
c)
biased media is more interesting
d)
all media has a bias
165.
Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.
a)
Absolute Thinking 
b)
Genius Thinking 
c)
Critical Thinking 
d)
Awesome Thinking 
166.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
167.
Which is the electron configuration for an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s23p64s2
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p6
168.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
169.
How many valence electrons does Chlorine have?
a)
5
b)
2
c)
7
d)
5
170.
How many electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
171.
How many electrons can the d sublevel hold?
a)
8
b)
10
c)
2
d)
4
172.

Choose the correct shortcut configuration for iodine.

a)

[Ar]4s24d104p5

b)

[Kr]5s24d105p5

c)

[Xe]5s25d105p5

d)

none of the above

173.

Which area on the periodic table represents the electrons in the "d" sublevel (d orbitals)?

a)

representative elements

b)

columns 3-8

c)

rare earth elements

d)

transition elements

174.

What is incorrect about this orbital diagram?

a)

Both arrows in the 2p box should be pointing up

b)

There is nothing incorrect with this diagram

c)

In the 2p box there should only be 1 electron in the first 2p box and one in the 2nd 2p box pointing in the same direction.

d)

All the arrows should be pointing up.

175.
What's a valence electron?
a)
electrons in the second energy level
b)
electrons in the outermost energy level
c)
the atomic number
d)
electrons in the first level
176.

The vertical (up and down) columns in the Periodic Table are called

a)

groups

b)

towers

c)

periods

d)

atomic numbers

177.
The Modern Periodic Table of Elements is arranged by
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
178.
The atoms along the staircase are called 
a)
metals
b)
nonmetals
c)
metalloids
d)
noble gases
179.
Which is an alkali metal?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Iron
c)
Sodium
d)
Europium
180.
Which is a halogen?
a)
Helium
b)
Chlorine
c)
Oxygen
d)
Neptune
181.
Which of the following will have a larger radius than Zinc?
a)
Gallium
b)
Aluminum
c)
Magnesium
d)
Strontium
182.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
183.
Francium (Fr) has the lowest ionization energy in Group 1 because - 
a)
it has the smallest number of valence electrons
b)
it has the greatest atomic mass
c)
it has the greatest number of protons, so it attracts its electrons the strongest
d)
its 1 valence electron is very far from the nucleus, so little energy is needed to remove it
184.
Which of the following will have a lower ionization energy than Scandium (Sc)?
a)
Helium (He)
b)
Titanium (Ti)
c)
Calcium (Ca)
d)
Magnesium (Mg)
185.
Electronegativity is...
a)
the ability of an atom to attract/ accept electrons
b)
the ability of an atom to lose electrons
c)
the energy required to remove an electron from a specific atom
d)
how easy it is to make friends. 
186.
Which has the greater Electronegativity: 
N or C?
a)
C
b)
N
187.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
188.
A negatively charged subatomic particle that exists in various energy levels outside the nucleus of an atom
a)
neutron
b)
electron
c)
proton
d)
subatomic particle
189.

Which of the following units provides the best measure for the amount of space that matter occupies (volume)?

a)

mL

b)

grams

c)

cm3

d)

Both mL and cm3

190.

Density =

a)

Mass x Volume

b)

Volume x Mass

c)

Mass / Volume

d)

Volume / Mass

191.
What is the density of water?
a)
1 mL
b)
1 gram
c)
1 g/cm3
d)
All of the above
192.

When a metal mailbox is rusting because of the weather, the rust is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

magnetism

d)

texture

193.

When a hammer breaks a large rock into smaller pieces, the broken rock is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

solubility

d)

density

194.

Properties of matter that can be measured or observed without changing the basic nature of the matter.

a)

Chemical properties

b)

property

c)

matter

d)

Physical properties

195.

A property of matter that can only be observed by changing the basic nature of the matter (e.g. combustibility)

a)

physical property

b)

physical change

c)

chemical change

d)

chemical property

196.
Where are electrons of an atom found?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Some are in the nucleus and some in the electron cloud.
d)
They are moving everywhere.
197.
Which of the following is a positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Quark
198.
What carries no charge 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Electrons
c)
Protons
199.

Which is the smallest particle of an atom?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

atom

d)

neutron

200.
The negatively charged particles of an atom are the ______.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
201.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
202.

What is the atomic number?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

203.
Which is an electron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
204.

After mixing two substances you notice some bubbling has occurred. What can you infer about this interaction?

a)

It's a chemical reaction

b)

It's a physical reaction

c)

It's a magical reaction

d)

It's a physical change

205.

When moving a metal bar next to some iron shavings you notice that the iron shavings stick to the metal bar. This is an example of what property of matter?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Electricity

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Plasma

206.

Electricity was summarized in class by the _________ of electrons.

a)

Flow

b)

Waves

c)

Particles

d)

Field

207.

Light, electricity and magnetism are all part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

True

b)

False

208.

Which of the following statements is an observation. (Checkboxes mean there may be more than 1 correct answer)

a)

The light got brighter

b)

The light is powered by electricity

c)

The electrons are flowing through the light bulb.

d)

The light got dimmer

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