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WorksheetsGMO Winter Final
Total questions: 210
Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the spheres would include crystals?
a)
Geosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
2.
In which of the major spheres do fish live (swim in)?
a)
Geosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
3.
Which of the spheres is responsible for the weather on earth?
a)
Geosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
4.
Which sphere is NOT in this room right now?
a)
Geosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
e)
none of these
5.
Soil is composed of which spheres?
a)
Geosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
e)
all of these
6.
Which of the following is NOT one of the main spheres?
a)
Geosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
e)
Ionosphere
7.
Which sphere does lava belong to?
a)
Geosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
8.
Which of the following is NOT a criterion for defining something as a mineral?
a)
Orderly crystalline structure
b)
Generally inorganic
c)
Naturally occurring
d)
Hard
9.
Why are boulders NOT considered a mineral?
a)
They do NOT have an orderly crystalline structure.
b)
They do NOT have a well-defined chemical composition.
c)
They are NOT naturally occurring.
d)
They are organic.
e)
They are NOT solid.
10.
Which of the following is a mineral as defined by a geologist?
a)
salt
b)
sugar
c)
water
d)
boulder
e)
concrete
11.
Which one of the following is NOT true for minerals?
a)
They have a specific, internal, crystalline structure.
b)
Many have a specific, predictable chemical composition.
c)
They can be identified by characteristic physical properties.
d)
They can be a liquid, solid, or gas.
12.
Angles are important when looking at which physical properties of minerals?
a)
color streaks
b)
conchoidal fractures
c)
cleavages
d)
bands of different luster
13.
The resistance of a mineral to abrasion/scratching is known as ________.
a)
cleavage
b)
luster
c)
streak
d)
hardness
14.
Geologists may choose to lick a mineral to identify it. What mineral is the geologist expecting to identify with this test?
a)
a sulfide bearing rock which will taste like rotten eggs
b)
NaCl (halite) or KCl (sylvite)
c)
None, it clears the dust off the sample so he/she can see if more clearly.
d)
None, they are clearing the hydrochloric acid from the sample to rerun a test for calcite.
15.
What mineral is the hardest known substance in nature?
a)
muscovite
b)
diamond
c)
silicate
d)
native gold
16.
Which of the following physical properties is NOT generally used to identify most minerals?
a)
cleavage
b)
luster
c)
smell
d)
hardness
17.
Which of the following describes the light reflecting and transmission characteristics of a mineral?
a)
luster
b)
color streak
c)
fluorescence
d)
virtual absorption
18.
The most unreliable (variable) diagnostic property of minerals such as quartz is ________.
a)
color
b)
hardness
c)
habit
d)
specific gravity
19.
Galena is a lead-rich member of the ________ group.
a)
carbonate
b)
silicate
c)
halide
d)
sulfide
20.
The basic building block of a silicate is composed of ________.
a)
3 oxygens and 1 silicon
b)
4 oxygens and 1 silicon
c)
2 oxygens and 1 silicon
d)
1 oxygen and 1 silicon
21.
Which common mineral is composed entirely of silicon and oxygen?
a)
quartz
b)
calcite
c)
olivine
d)
diamond
22.
Which two elements combine to make most of the common rock forming minerals in the crust?
a)
carbon and oxygen
b)
carbon and nitrogen
c)
nitrogen and oxygen
d)
silicon and nitrogen
e)
silicon and oxygen
23.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
a)
helium gas
b)
coal
c)
ice
d)
rock salt
24.
A naturally occurring concentration of one or more metallic minerals that can be extracted economically is a(n) ________.
a)
ore
b)
tailing
c)
reserve
d)
resource
25.
What kind of time span is required to produce most mineral deposits?
a)
tens of thousands to millions of years
b)
1-100 years, or about a human life span
c)
billions of years
d)
We have no way of knowing this, but most were formed at the same time as the Earth.
26.
Does this rock have a high or low silica (Gabbro) content?
a)
high
b)
low
27.
In Bowen's reaction series, what has to happen to the temperature of magma in order for crystals of minerals to form?
a)
It has to increase.
b)
It has to decrease.
c)
It has to remain the same.
d)
It has to increase then decrease.
28.
If rocks have a low percentage of silica and are dark colored, they are said to be
a)
Felsic
b)
Andesitic
c)
Granitic
d)
Basaltic
29.
According to Bowen's reaction series, what is the last mineral to crystallize as magma cools?
a)
Olivine
b)
Quartz
c)
Plagioclase-feldspar
d)
biotite
30.
Is the mineral content if this rock more basaltic or granitic? (Basalt)
a)
Basaltic
b)
Granitic
31.
What type of rock can an igneous rock become?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Another Igneous rock
d)
Any of these.
32.
What is the process of becoming an igneous rock called?
a)
Lithification
b)
Crystallization
c)
Metamorphosis
d)
Weathering
33.
Is the mineral content of the rock more basaltic or granitic? (Granite)
a)
Basaltic
b)
Granitic
34.
What type of rock forms from crystallization?
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Rocks???
35.
What determines crystal size of an igneous rock?
a)
The origin of the magma.
b)
The chemical content of the magma.
c)
The rate at which the magma cools.
d)
The month in which it cools.
36.
A rock that has a high silica content may be referred to as...
a)
Felsic
b)
Mafic
c)
Ultramafic
d)
Extra lucky.
37.
For a rock to be fine-grained, it would have to cool...
a)
Quickly
b)
Slowly
c)
It never cools.
d)
Slowly then quickly.
38.
Which type of rocks have visible pieces of angular sediment that are cemented together?
a)
Marble
b)
Conglomerate
c)
Limestone
d)
Breccia
39.
Which type of sedimentary rock forms from evaporites?
a)
clastic
b)
chemical
c)
biochemical
40.
Which class of sedimentary rock once came from living things?
a)
Clastic
b)
Chemical
c)
Biochemical
41.
Wind, water, glaciers and gravity are all forces of
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
metamorphism
d)
the rock cycle
42.
When sediment settles at the bottom of a body of water or other area, it is called
a)
deposition
b)
layering
c)
erosion
d)
cross bedding
43.
Sedimentary rock formed from sediment that contains a high quantity of once living organisms is classified as
a)
clastic
b)
chemical
c)
biochemical
44.
Once living things that become stuck between layers of rock become
a)
alive again
b)
fossils
c)
rocks
d)
lost in time
45.
The process of sediment fusing together to become a rock is called
a)
weathering
b)
melting
c)
lithification
d)
erosion
46.
Which of the following is NOT an agent of erosion?
a)
wind
b)
water
c)
earthquakes
d)
gravity
e)
glaciers
47.
The term for a sedimentary rock that is formed from broken rock is called
a)
clastic
b)
chemical
c)
biochemical
48.
Which type of rocks have visible pieces of rounded sediment that are cemented together?
a)
Marble
b)
Conglomerate
c)
Limestone
d)
Breccia
49.
The process of sedimentary rock formation begins with
a)
heat and pressure
b)
weathering
c)
lithification
d)
melting
50.
Mountain building causes metamorphism because .
a)
mountains are heavy and they compress the rocks under them.
b)
mountains are heavy and they push shallow, cool rocks to the depths where they get heated.
c)
mountains form from gradual buildup of material that comes from other areas and can produce an uneven pressure on rocks.
d)
All of the above.
51.
Some metamorphic rock is easily identified because the minerals form layers called
a)
cementation
b)
lithification
c)
foliation
d)
crystallization
52.
The most important metamorphism, according to your text, is (are) ______.
a)
chemically active fluids
b)
heat
c)
differential stress
d)
confining pressure
53.
Metamorphic rocks that have no banding and only have crystals of equal sizes are called
a)
foliated
b)
non-foliated
c)
igneous
d)
sedimentary
54.
When rocks experience high temperatures and differential stresses deep in the Earth, their grains tend to ______.<br />
a)
break in small fragments like a piece of fine crystal.
b)
fracture along planes of weakness.
c)
flatten and elongate
d)
form new minerals
55.
Metamorphism occurs when a rock ___________.
a)
experiences conditions that include high temperatures
b)
experiences conditions that include high pressures.
c)
experiences conditions that are significantly different from those that formed the rock.
d)
experiences conditions that are similar to those that formed the rock.
56.
The common rock produced by metamorphism of limestone is
a)
marble
b)
mica schist
c)
phyllite
d)
gniess
57.
A metamorphic rock changes to a new rock by way of
a)
fusing minerals together with iron oxide or calcium carbonate.
b)
lithification.
c)
weathering and erosion.
d)
the recrystallization of the minerals.
58.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a foliation in a metamorphic rock?
a)
compositional banding.
b)
bedding planes and strata.
c)
parallel alignment of flattened pebbles
d)
parallel alignment of platy or flat minerals.
59.
Re-crystallization during metamorphism causes grains to grow longer in the ________.
a)
direction of maximum differential stress.
b)
direction perpendicular to the compressional stress.
c)
direction parallel to the compressional stress
d)
horizontal direction.
60.
The primary agent of contact metamorphism is
a)
folding
b)
heat
c)
stress
d)
strain
61.
Any rocks that are subjected to great heat and pressure will turn in what type of rock (if they do NOT melt)?
a)
sedimentary
b)
igneous
c)
metamorphic
d)
alien
62.
India and Asia crashed about 55 million years ago. What mountain range was produced?
a)
The Rockies
b)
The Andes
c)
The Himalayas
d)
The Alps
63.
A map of the ages of the sea floor shows ________.
a)
the location of modern plate boundaries
b)
how fast the plates are moving
c)
how much material was produced at the ridges during a given period of time
d)
the direction of the plate motions
64.
A subduction zone is formed...
a)
when one tectonic plate sinks below another
b)
at transform boundaries
c)
at every type of convergent plate boundary
65.
The figure below shows a ________ boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
transform
c)
hot spot
d)
convergent
66.
Deep ocean trenches are evidence on the the surface of the Earth for ________.
a)
sinking of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle at a subduction zone
b)
rifting beneath a continental plate and the beginning of continental drift
c)
transform faulting between an oceanic plate and a continental plate
d)
rising of hot asthenosphere from deep in the mantle
67.
The Hawaiian Island chain formed as a result of ________.
a)
transform plate boundary activities
b)
hot spot activities
c)
convergent plate boundary activities
d)
divergent plate boundary activities
68.
The change from thinking the continents are stationary to understanding that the outer layer of the earth moves slowly nearly all of the time occurred primarily because ________.
a)
we began to make global observations that required recognition that the continents and oceans had NOT always been in their current positions
b)
we got space travel and could see the motions
c)
we had two world wars and learned a lot from them about the oceans that explained how continents moved
d)
we improved our surveying instruments significantly
69.
An identifying characteristic of convergent boundaries is ________.
a)
long linear valleys with faults along the sides
b)
seamounts and atolls on the seafloor
c)
linear mountain chains on the seafloor
d)
deep, linear trenches in the seafloor
70.
Name the boundary
a)
Divergent Ocean - Ocean
b)
Transform Ocean-Continent
c)
Convergent Continent-Continent
d)
Divergent Continent-Continent
71.
What type of boundary does the following image depict?
a)
Convergent Ocean-Ocean
b)
Divergent Ocean-Ocean
c)
Convergent Ocean-Continent
d)
Divergent Ocean-Continent
e)
Convergent Continent-Continent
72.
The ________ is an example of an active, continent-continent collision.
a)
westward movement of the South American plate over the Nazca plate
b)
northward movement of India into Eurasia
c)
Arabian Peninsula slamming into North Africa under the Red Sea
d)
northern movement of Baja California and a sliver of western California toward the Hawaiian Islands
73.
The major driving force of Plate Tectonics is ________.
a)
decompression melting and the rise of magmas at spreading ridges
b)
convection currents within the mantle
c)
heating of magma near the surface of the lithosphere
d)
subduction of cold, dense lithosphere
74.
Iceland is a good example of an island arc, formed from an oceanic-oceanic plate collision.
a)
true
b)
false
75.
Oceanic Ridges are wider than most mountain belts.
a)
true
b)
false
76.
Oceanic crust has a mafic composition and therefore is denser than continental crust.
a)
true
b)
false
77.
A major problem with Wegener's Continental Drift Hypothesis was that he could NOT find rocks or other geologic features that would have been continuous from one continent to the next if the continents had been together.
a)
true
b)
false
78.
The Himalayan Mountains are the tectonic product of a collision between India and Eurasia that began 50 million years ago and still continues.
a)
true
b)
false
79.
What are your choices to avoid a tsunami?
a)
Move to lower ground.
b)
Move to higher ground.
c)
Run into the ocean (you will just float).
d)
Get on a boat.
80.
P waves are known as
a)
primary waves
b)
shear waves
c)
Love waves
d)
Rayleigh waves
81.
Which earthquake body wave has the greatest velocity?
a)
P wave
b)
S wave
82.
________ have the highest velocities (move fastest)
a)
Primary waves (P-waves)
b)
Surface waves
c)
Secondary waves (S-waves)
d)
Refracted S-waves
83.
Earthquake prediction is ________.
a)
somewhat good for very long term statistical analyses based on ideas like mapping seismic gaps
b)
NOT possible
c)
generally good if you live in an area along a plate boundary because we know how fast the plates are moving and can measure the stress accumulation
d)
possible for short times before some earthquakes based on things like animal behavior, but the U.S. does NOT make use of this method.
84.
Earthquake prediction is ________.
a)
epicenter
b)
intensity
c)
focus or hypocenter
d)
magnitude
85.
What is elastic rebound?
a)
the sudden return of deformed rock to its undeformed shape
b)
the gradual return of deformed rock to its undeformed shape
c)
the sudden return of undeformed rock to its deformed shape
d)
the gradual return of undeformed rock to its deformed shape
86.
The location on the surface directly above the earthquake focus is called the
a)
ephemeral
b)
epicycle
c)
epicenter
d)
epitagh
87.
How many seismograph stations are needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
5
88.
The cool, rigid layer of Earth that includes the entire crust as well as the aesthenosphere is called the
a)
asthenosphere
b)
lower crust
c)
lithosphere
d)
oceanic crust
89.
Overall, this type of seismic wave is the most destructive.
a)
S wave
b)
surface wave
c)
tsunami
d)
P wave
90.
When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source. The source is also referred to as the ________.
a)
seismic zone
b)
focus
c)
inertial point
d)
epicenter
91.
About how many earthquakes occur in California each month?
a)
4
b)
400
c)
1600
d)
4000
92.
P waves travel through
a)
Solids only
b)
Liquids and gases only
c)
Both solids and liquids
d)
Liquids only
93.
What happens to tsunamis as they approach the shore?
a)
They decrease in height.
b)
They die out.
c)
They turn into riptides.
d)
They increase in height.
94.
Animals can predict earthquakes.
a)
true
b)
false
95.
Earthquakes don't kill people; buildings and their contents do.
a)
true
b)
false
96.
People can stop earthquakes.
a)
true
b)
false
97.
Two earthquakes occurring on the same day must be related to each other.
a)
true
b)
false
98.
Which volcano erupted in 79 A.D. and destroyed Pompeii?
a)
Stromboli
b)
Ambryn
c)
Vesuvius
d)
Mt. Masama
99.
Which volcano discussed in the video was in the United States?
a)
Merapai
b)
Mt. Ranier
c)
Ambryn
d)
Eyjafjallajokull
100.
A(n)_________is a large, nearly symmetrical volcano built of interbedded strata of lavas and pyroclastic deposits.
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood-basalt
d)
stratovolcano/composite
101.
The most explosive volcanoes are shield volcanoes.
a)
true
b)
false
102.
Which type of lava forms underwater?
a)
Aa
b)
Pahoehoe
c)
Pillow lava
103.
A(n)____________is a rather small volcano with steep slopes built from ejected lava fragments.
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood- basalt
d)
caldera
104.
Which type of volcano is pictured?
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood- basalt
d)
stratovolcano/composite
105.
A mudflow mixed with melted ice and snow is called a
a)
pyroclastic flow
b)
lahar
c)
tsunami
106.
Which of the following is a way to monitor the activity of volcanoes?
a)
GPS
b)
Muons
c)
Drilling
d)
Seismometers
e)
All of these are used.
107.
A material's _______________ is a measure of its resistance to flow.
a)
viscosity
b)
stickiness
c)
fluidity
d)
cohesion
108.
What type of volcano is pictured here?
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood basalt
d)
stratovolcano/composite
109.
What type of volcano is pictured here?
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood basalt
d)
stratovolcano/composite
110.
The most violent type of volcanic activity is associated with
a)
cinder cones
b)
composite cones
c)
shield cones
d)
sills
111.
Large amounts of gases in magma result in quiet eruptions.
a)
true
b)
false
112.
Cinder cone volcanoes are formed by erupted volcanic fragments.
a)
true
b)
false
113.
Volcanoes that have a high content of silica are more explosive.
a)
true
b)
false
114.
Which spheres are mainly on the SURFACE of the earth? (choose all that apply)
a)
Hydrosphere
b)
Biosphere
c)
Atmosphere
d)
Geosphere
115.
Which major sphere is nitrogen gas a part of ?
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Geosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Biosphere
116.
Which sphere would owls by classified in?
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Biosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Geosphere
117.
Which of the sphere's is largest?
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Biosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Geosphere
118.
Which of the following best defines a mineral and a rock?
a)
In a mineral the constituent atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of different mineral grains.
b)
A rock consists of atoms bonded in a regular, geometrically predictable arrangement; a mineral is a consolidated aggregate of different rock particles.
c)
A mineral consists of its constituent atoms arranged in a geometrically repetitive structure; in a rock, the atoms are randomly bonded without any geometric pattern.
d)
A rock has an orderly, repetitive, geometrical, internal arrangement of minerals; a mineral is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of rocks.
119.
Limestone is composed almost entirely of calcite which has the chemical formula CaCO3. As a result, limestone is classified as ________.
a)
a mineral
b)
a rock
c)
both a mineral and a rock
d)
neither a mineral nor a rock because it is organic
120.
The strong tendency of certain minerals to break along smooth, parallel planes is known as ________.
a)
cleavage
b)
streak
c)
cracking luster
d)
habit
121.
When a mineral fractures along a cleavage plane, what does this suggest about the crystal structure of the mineral?
a)
The crystal structure contains planes along which chemical bonding is much weaker than other directions.
b)
The crystal contains warped planes called twin planes that weaken the crystal structure and allow it fracture along a planar surface, causing cleavage.
c)
The crystal grows only planar faces that become weak zones that form cleavage.
d)
The atoms are arranged in a simple orderly arrangement with uniform bonding.
122.
What does the tendency of micas to produce thin cleavage flakes suggest about its crystal structure?
a)
The atoms are arranged in orderly arrangements that form strongly bonded sheets separated by weak bonds between the sheets.
b)
The crystal structure is characterized by complex polymerized mats that form a sheetlike structure.
c)
The structure is produced by flow in the igneous rock, aligning glass layers within the crystal structure.
d)
The structure is characterized by rings that form an interlocking network, forming planar sheets.
123.
Gypsum, which is widely used in plaster and wallboard, is a member of the ________ group.
a)
carbonate
b)
silicate
c)
halide
d)
sulfate
124.
Which one of the following mineral groups exhibits a sheet-like silicate structure?
a)
pyroxenes
b)
micas
c)
feldspars
d)
carbonates
125.
The most common group of rock forming minerals is ________.
a)
the sulfates
b)
the halides
c)
carbonate
d)
the silicates
126.
Ore deposits of the element ________ do NOT require extreme concentrations because it is one of the most abundant elements in the Earth's crust.
a)
aluminum
b)
boron
c)
uranium
d)
carbon
127.
Where do volcanic/extrusive rocks form?
a)
Deep in the Earth
b)
On the surface of the Earth
c)
In Earth's core
d)
In space
128.
Which of the following would result from a fast rate of cooling?
a)
Fine-grained texture
b)
Coarse-grained texture
c)
Porphyritic texture
d)
None of these.
129.
Rocks that form when magma cools inside the Earth are called
a)
Plutonic
b)
Volcanic
c)
Extrusive
d)
dangerous
130.
If rocks have a high percentage of silica and are light colored, they are said to be
a)
Felsic
b)
Andesitic
c)
Granitic
d)
Basaltic
131.
Does this rock have a high or low silica content? (Rhyolite)
a)
High
b)
Low
132.
Igneous rocks that form on the surface of the earth are called
a)
Plutonic
b)
Volcanic
c)
Intrusive
d)
peaceful
133.
Which of the following textures will result from a slow cooling rate?
a)
Fine-grained
b)
Coarse-grained
c)
Porphyritic
d)
Glassy
134.
Which of the following is NOT a common cement in sedimentary rocks?
a)
silica
b)
gypsum
c)
calcite
d)
iron oxide
135.
Rocks that are formed from broken down pieces of other rocks are called
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Igneous
136.
If particles in a sedimentary rock are sharp and angular, how far did the particles travel from their original larger source before they became a new rock?
a)
somewhat far.
b)
very far.
c)
NOT far at all.
137.
The traces or remains of prehistoric life trapped within rock are called
a)
lithification
b)
fossils
c)
detrital sedimentary rocks.
d)
cross bedding.
138.
Rocks that form from minerals left behind after water evaporates are called
a)
Igneous
b)
Clastic
c)
Evaporites
d)
Metamorphic
139.
The rock type that forms when sediment is lithified is
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Igneous
140.
Which of the following changes may occur during metamorphism?
a)
Certain minerals may crystallize.
b)
The rock becomes more compact.
c)
Crystals may grow larger.
d)
All of the above.
141.
Of the three ways metamorphic rock form, the largest amount is formed by
a)
regional metamorphism
b)
contact metamorphism
c)
hydrothermal metamorphism
142.
The major role of thermal energy (heat) in metamorphism is .
a)
reducing the strength of rocks so that stress can be an effective agent of change.
b)
increasing the processes of dissolution and flow of different minerals.
c)
driving chemical reactions that lead to recrystallization.
d)
providing energy for physical changes that occur during metamorphism.
143.
Hot water reacting with rock to alter its chemical and mineral composition is called
a)
regional metamorphism
b)
contact metamorphism
c)
hydrothermal metamorphism
144.
Confining pressure is where .
a)
forces are applied equally in all directions.
b)
forces are applied from the top and bottom equally.
c)
pressure is applied in a cubic region.
d)
pressure is parallel to bedding planes.
145.
The rock that a metamorphic rock has formed from is called a
a)
daughter rock.
b)
parent rock.
c)
a non-rock.
d)
an offspring rock.
146.
What type of boundary does the following image depict?
a)
Convergent Ocean-Ocean
b)
Divergent Ocean-Ocean
c)
Convergent Ocean-Continent
d)
Divergent Ocean-Continent
e)
Divergent Contient-Continent
147.
Name the boundary
a)
Divergent Continent-Continent
b)
Transform Continent-Continent
c)
Convergent Continent-Continent
148.
The largest lithospheric plate is the ________.
a)
Pacific Plate
b)
Caribbean Plate
c)
Eurasian Plate
d)
North American Plate
149.
Why do scientists think that lithosphere has to be destroyed somewhere on or in the earth?
a)
The moon is moving away from the earth and this would NOT happen if the earth had more lithosphere to increase its mass.
b)
The earth is getting smaller as the new oceanic crust cools and contracts.
c)
Lithosphere is created at divergent boundaries and the earth is NOT getting any larger.
d)
There is NOT enough lithosphere on the earth to account for what has been produced in the last 200 million years.
150.
What type of boundary does the following image depict?
a)
Convergent Ocean-Ocean
b)
Divergent Ocean-Ocean
c)
Convergent Ocean-Continent
d)
Divergent Ocean-Continent
e)
Convergent Continent-Continent
151.
What type of boundary does the following image depict?
a)
Convergent Ocean-Ocean
b)
Divergent Ocean-Ocean
c)
Convergent Ocean-Continent
d)
Divergent Ocean-Continent
e)
Convergent Continent-Continent
152.
Where is the youngest rock found?
a)
near subduction zones
b)
closer to the south pole
c)
closer to the north pole
d)
Near mid ocean ridges
153.
When two continents converge, ________.
a)
a volcanic arc forms on the upper plate
b)
the lighter continent is subducted
c)
the heavier continent is subducted
d)
the sediments trapped between them are pushed up and deformed to make a mountain range
154.
What type of boundary does the following image depict?
a)
Convergent Ocean-Ocean
b)
Divergent Ocean-Ocean
c)
Convergent Ocean-Continent
d)
Divergent Ocean-Continent
e)
Convergent Continent-Continent
155.
The Himalayas formed as a result of ________.
a)
an ocean-continent convergence
b)
an ocean-ocean convergence
c)
a continent-continent convergence
d)
a hot spot
156.
Hawaii is the oldest island of the Hawaiian Island chain.
a)
true
b)
false
157.
Earth's radius and surface area are slowly increasing to accommodate the new oceanic crust being formed at mid-ocean ridges.
a)
true
b)
false
158.
As the South Atlantic basin widens by seafloor spreading, Africa and South America are moving closer together.
a)
true
b)
false
159.
Lithosphere is destroyed at transform plate boundaries.
a)
true
b)
false
160.
Earthquakes along the San Andreas fault zone, for example, are repetitive—they reoccur in roughly the same regions over and over again—separated by decades or centuries because ________.
a)
faults are always moving or creeping so an earthquake will occur whenever two sides meet that have the right properties for an earthquake
b)
there are areas that are weak and always break when small amounts of energy are applied to them
c)
plate boundaries move at regular rates so the interactions across plate boundaries are predictable and regular
d)
stress continues to build up all the time and when it is great enough to overcome friction there will be an earthquake and then the process will start over again
161.
In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
a)
P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
b)
S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
c)
Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
d)
Surface waves, then P waves, then S waves
e)
S waves, then surface waves, then P waves
162.
If you are indoors during an earthquake, you should
a)
stay away from doors
b)
get under a desk or table
c)
scream and panic
d)
run outside as quickly as possible
163.
One measurement that is widely used to determine how far the focus of an earthquake is from the seismograph where it is recorded is ________.
a)
the amplitude of the S-wave
b)
the difference in travel time between the P and the S wave
c)
the difference in amplitude between the P and the S wave
d)
the amplitude of the P-wave
164.
Liquifaction, where normally solid material behaves more like a fluid during an earthquake, occurs because ________.
a)
cracking in the rocks allows fluids to flow into the area and increase the amount of liquids in the subsurface
b)
rock particles dissolve and mix with the fluids in the subsurface to become a liquid
c)
pore spaces between particles in unconsolidated sediments close and displace fluids
d)
friction from the vibrations melt rock and produce magmas
165.
S waves are also know as
a)
Love waves
b)
compression waves
c)
Secondary waves
d)
Rayleigh waves
166.
Rayleigh waves cause the ground to move
a)
in a horizontal direction
b)
in a back and forth direction
c)
in a jerky, up and down movement
d)
in an elliptical rolling motion
167.
Which best describes a tsunami wave?
a)
The are very high and long and move very slowly.
b)
They are very high and long and move very quickly.
c)
They are relatively low but long and fast.
d)
They are relatively low but long and slow.
168.
Where do most earthquakes occur?
a)
Along dikes
b)
Along faults
c)
Along folds
d)
Along joints
e)
Along unconformities
169.
To locate the epicenter of an earthquake, readings from a minimum of how many stations are required?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
2
d)
5
170.
The 2011 earthquake and tsunami in Japan killed approximately 21,000 people while the 2010 earthquake in Haiti killed approximately 316,000 people because ________.
a)
the construction methods in Haiti were NOT as good as those used in Japan
b)
the earthquake in Haiti generated a very large tsunami that killed most of the people
c)
the population of Haiti was much greater than that of northern Japan where the earthquake occurred
d)
the earthquake in Haiti was a larger magnitude (released more energy) than the one in Japan
e)
All of the above were factors.
171.
Long term earthquake prediction is based on ________.
a)
measurements of strain accumulation
b)
measurements of the plate motions and rate of stress accumulation
c)
observations of things like animal behavior, radon gas emissions, and changes in topography
d)
the assumption that large faults break in a cyclical manner
172.
Structural damage from seismic vibrations would be worse ________.
a)
where the focus is about 800 kilometers below the surface
b)
where buildings were built to code on solid rock
c)
where buildings are made mostly of wood
d)
where older buildings were built on a thick layer of sediment
173.
Where was the worst earthquake in U.S. history?
a)
California
b)
Alaska
c)
Missouri
d)
Texas
174.
Which of the following is NOT a body wave?
a)
P waves
b)
S waves
c)
Rayleigh wave
175.
More can be done to learn, prepare and educate people about earthquakes.
a)
true
b)
false
176.
Earthquakes can only occur on the US West coast
a)
true
b)
false
177.
Earthquakes are sudden rolling or shaking events caused by movement under the surface.
a)
true
b)
false
178.
You can't plan ahead for an earthquake.
a)
true
b)
false
179.
Which of the following is NOT pyroclastic material?
a)
Cinders
b)
Lava flow
c)
Ash
d)
Pumice
180.
A type of mudflow associated with violent eruptions is known as a(n)
a)
lava flow.
b)
lahar.
c)
pyroclastic flow.
d)
ash cloud.
181.
A flow of fluid basaltic lava that issues from cracks or fissures and commonly covers and extensive area to the thickness of a hundred meters is called a(n)
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood-basalt
d)
caldera
182.
Which factor does NOT determine the violence of a volcanic eruption?
a)
Temperature of the magma.
b)
Amount of dissolved gases in magma.
c)
Silica content of the magma.
d)
Location in the world.
183.
The particles of pulverized rock, lava, and glass fragments blown from the vent of a volcano are referred to as
a)
pyroclastic material.
b)
laccolith.
c)
crater.
d)
intrusions.
184.
Which country was the first to use muons to study the interior of volcanoes?
a)
Iceland
b)
Japan
c)
Indonesia
d)
Mexico
185.
Which of the following is NOT a type of material that can come from a volcano?
a)
Water vapor.
b)
Ash.
c)
Asthenospheric material.
d)
Pyroclastic materials.
186.
A lava flow that has rough, jagged blocks is called a(n)
a)
pahoehoe flow
b)
aa flow
c)
pyroclastic flow
d)
lava flow
187.
Which is a major gas ejected by a volcanic eruption?
a)
sulfur dioxide
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
sulfur
188.
A volcano that takes the shape of a broad, slightly domed structure is called a(n)
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood-basalt
d)
caldera
189.
The quietest eruptions occur from shield volcanoes.
a)
true
b)
false
190.
If the Yellowstone volcano erupted, is would NOT cause much destruction.
a)
true
b)
false
191.
For a rock to have a coarse-grained texture, it would have to
a)
Cool quickly.
b)
Cool slowly.
c)
Never cool.
d)
Cool quickly then slowly.
192.
The adjustments of material that follow a major earthquake often generate smaller earthquakes called
a)
tremors
b)
aftershocks
c)
foreshocks
d)
liquifaction
193.
The figure below shows the intensity of an Earthquake in northern California that affected much of the same areas that were damaged by the 1906 earthquake in a very similar manner. Based on this information, ________.
a)
construction methods are clearly inadequate in the high intensity areas, and all homes in those areas need to be reinforced
b)
in general, the current building codes are adequate, but people should be aware of the hazards in this area
c)
people who live in the high intensity regions should be required to carry earthquake insurance
d)
people should NOT be allowed to build homes in the intensity VIII regions because the U.S. taxpayer has to pay to rebuild after such an earthquake
194.
Earthquakes with a very deep focus are usually located along ________.
a)
a convergent boundary such as the Peru-Chile trench
b)
a transform boundary such as the San Andreas
c)
a hot spot chain such as the Hawaiian Islands
d)
a divergent plate boundary such as the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
195.
S waves canNOT pass through
a)
solids
b)
the mantle
c)
the earth's outer core
d)
the asthenosphere
196.
At what location does the first motion of an earthquake occur?
a)
the focus
b)
the seismic gap
c)
the mantle
d)
the epicenter
197.
Why do earthquakes usually occur at plate boundaries?
a)
The rock on the edges of the tectonic plates is soft and gives easily to various pressure.
b)
Rock in environments near tectonics plates experience great stress.
c)
The boundaries near tectonic plates have been seismically active for millions of years.
d)
Rocks in environments near tectonic plates experience little stress.
198.
By analyzing the difference in the time it takes for P waves and S waves to arrive at a seismograph station, scientists can determine an earthquake’s
a)
Epicenter
b)
L waves
c)
Fault Zones
d)
Intensity
199.
What causes tsunamis?
a)
magnetic pole shifts, seismic gaps, extreme tides during winter
b)
tornadoes, volcanoes, landslides
c)
changes in the Earth's ozone layer, world climate changes, glaciers
d)
undersea earthquakes, landslides or volcanic eruptions
200.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
a)
P and S waves travel through liquids, but S waves do NOT travel through solids.
b)
P and S waves travel through solids and P waves travel through liquids.
c)
P and S waves travel through liquids, but P waves do NOT travel through solids.
d)
P waves travel through solids; S waves do NOT.
201.
The study of earthquakes is called
a)
seismogram
b)
seismology
c)
seismogony
d)
seismography
202.
Which of the following choices describes liquifaction?
a)
Buildings and roads on the Earth's surface that are shaken and knocked around until they collapse
b)
The shaking of the ground that liquefies water-saturated sediment, causing the ground to move like a liquid
c)
A huge sea wave resembling a large rising tide that arises from an ocean earthquake
d)
A portion of the ground that loosens and slides downhill during an earthquake
203.
On a typical seismogram, ________ will show the highest amplitudes.
a)
S waves
b)
P waves
c)
surface waves
d)
body waves
204.
A foreshock is
a)
a major earthquake
b)
a small earthquake
c)
another name for a seismic gap
d)
a small earthquake that takes place befor the main quake
205.
Approximately how much stronger is a 6.5 Richter magnitude earthquake than in one with a Richter magnitude of 5.5?
a)
10 times
b)
900 times
c)
30 times
d)
100 times
206.
Earthquakes can be stopped with nuclear explosions.
a)
true
b)
false
207.
People can cause earthquakes.
a)
true
b)
false
208.
We can predict earthquakes extremely accurately.
a)
true
b)
false
209.
A(n)________is a large, nearly symmetrical volcano built of interbedded strata of lavas and pyroclastic deposits.
a)
cinder cone
b)
shield
c)
flood-basalt
d)
stratovolcano/composite
210.
Which of the following is determined by making direct observations of desctruction in the area affected by an earthquake?
a)
epicenter
b)
intensity
c)
focus or hypocenter
d)
magnitude
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