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WorksheetsPower System Operator
Total questions: 38
Worksheet time: 19mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:
a)
Energy Ratio
b)
Energy Intensity
c)
Per Capita Consumption
d)
None
2.
Star rating is a part of ______ programme of BEE
a)
DSM
b)
BLY
c)
S&L
d)
None
3.
As per IEGC (latest amendment) “frequency band” in Hz is
a)
49.90 – 50.05
b)
49.5 – 50.3
c)
49.7 – 50.2
d)
49.5 – 50.2
4.
Action for non-compliance of IEGC may be taken by
a)
Central Electricity Authority (CEA) on recommendation by RPC or RLDC
b)
Regional Power Committee (RPC) on report by RLDC
c)
Central Electricity Regulatory Commission(CERC) on report by RPC and RLDC only
d)
Central Electricity Regulatory Commission(CERC) on report by any person or suo-motu
5.
A part of the grid can be deliberately isolated from the rest of the National/Regional grid, only
a)
under an emergency, or to prevent collapse of grid
b)
for safety of human life
c)
when serious damage to a costly equipment is imminent and such isolation would prevent it,
d)
All of these
6.
As per IEGC, restricted governor mode of operation is to be implemented for generating stations synchronized with grid ( with exceptions mentioned in IEGC) of the following category.
a)
All thermal generating units of 200 MW and above
b)
All hydro units (except those with upto three hours pondage) of 10 MW and above,
c)
Thermal units >=200MW and Hydro units >=10MW owned by central sector Generating companys
d)
All coal/lignite based thermal generating units of 200MWand above, open cycle gas turbine/CCGT of capacity more than 50MW and all hydro units of 25MW and above
7.
As per stipulations in IEGC, the control Area jurisdiction of any generating station
a)
Can not change once decided
b)
May be in one control area (i.e. SLDC) at one point of time and another control area (i.e. RLDC) at another point of time
c)
As decided by RPC
d)
As decided by RLDC
8.
As per IEGC Var charges are applicable when
a)
voltage at the metering point is below 97%
b)
voltage is above103%.
c)
In case of voltage below 97% or greater than 103% at the metering point.
d)
Voltage at metering point is below 95 % or above 105 %
9.
If the state has a share of more than 50% in an IPP, then the scheduling and other functions shall be performed by-----
a)
SLDC
b)
RLDC
c)
Neither SLDC nor RLDC
d)
Either SLDC or RLDC
10.
If the state has a share of 50% or less in an IPP, then the scheduling and other functions shall be performed by-----
a)
SLDC
b)
RLDC
c)
Neither SLDC nor RLDC
d)
Either SLDC or RLDC
11.
A 'Bulk consumer' avails supply at :
a)
220 kV and above
b)
33 kV and above
c)
132 kV and above
d)
400 kV <br />and above
12.
The maximum possible voltage unbalance in 33 to 132 kV shall be:
a)
0.02
b)
0.01
c)
0.03
d)
0.05
13.
The total harmonic distortion in 33 to 132 kV system shall not exceed:
a)
0.015
b)
0.02
c)
0.025
d)
0.05
14.
The category GI-1 incident means no loss of Grid integrity at :
a)
132 kV
b)
220 kV
c)
400 kV
d)
765 kV
15.
The category GD-2 disturbance means loss of __ % generation or load in the region
a)
0 to 10
b)
10 to 20
c)
20 to 30
d)
30 to 40
16.
With reference to CEA's Grid Connectivity Standards, the preferable switching scheme for a 220 kV substation is: <br />
a)
main and transfer scheme
b)
double main and transfer scheme or double main with breaker by pass scheme
c)
one and half breaker scheme or double main and transfer bus scheme
d)
double bus double breaker scheme
17.
The maximum fault clearance time for system voltage of 220 kV is
a)
100 milliseconds
b)
160 milliseconds
c)
300 milliseconds
d)
100 microseconds
18.
Maximum Continuious Rating is determined
a)
after deducting station auxilary load on manufacturer guarented rated MW
b)
at the Genrator Terminals manufacturer guarented rated MW
c)
after deducting station auxilary load on manufacturer guarented average MW/day
d)
at the Genrator Terminals manufacturer guarented average MW/day
19.
The Generating transformer windings HV side need to achieve Earth Fault Factor of ….
a)
1.0 or more
b)
1.0 or less
c)
1.4 or more
d)
1.4 or less
20.
The governers of thermal generating units shall have a droop in the range of ….
a)
0-5 %
b)
5-8%
c)
3-8%
d)
3-6 %
21.
The total Harmonic Distortion of a 11 kV consumer for current drawn from transmission system at the connection point shall not exceed …
a)
0.1
b)
0.05
c)
0.03
d)
0.08
22.
Generation is a …… activity as per the Electricity Act 2003
a)
Licensed
b)
Delicensed
c)
Restricted
d)
Commercial
23.
On which of the following fields does the Study Committee C2 of the International council on Large Electric Systems (CIGRE) deal with?
a)
Electricity Markets
b)
Equipment Standardisation
c)
Environmental Concerns
d)
System Operation and Control
24.
On which of the following fields does the Study Committee C5, of the International Council on Large Electric Systems (CIGRE) deal with?
a)
Electricity Markets
b)
Equipment Standardisation
c)
Environmental Concerns
d)
System Operation and Control
25.
If the voltages at ends A & B of a transmission line are 200∠30º kVand 220∠15ºkV respectively then, _____
a)
MW flows from A to B
b)
MW flows from B to A
c)
No MW flows in the line
d)
Can not be determined from the given data
26.
The voltages at the two ends of a 400 kV line of 66 ohms reactance are 380∠0º and 408∠5º then steady state maximum power that can be transmitted in p.u is
a)
6.06
b)
60.6
c)
23.49
d)
2.349
27.
A long line having line reactor at one end should be charged from the end where there _________ line reactor.
a)
Is a
b)
Is no
c)
Either end
d)
None of the above
28.
Which option best describes the relation between Gross Station heat rate in a closed cycle operation and open cycle operation of a combined cycle gas station?
a)
GSHR in closed cycle is same as in open cycle
b)
GSHR in closed cycle is greater than than in open cycle
c)
GSHR in open cycle is greater than than in closed cycle
d)
It depends on the unit size
29.
The generator protection that is most likely to operate in a situation when there is "HIGH Voltage" and "LOW Frequency" in the grid:
a)
Low forward power
b)
Overflux
c)
Differential
d)
Loss of field
30.
What is the component which senses the frequency variations on the system and adjusts the MW output of the turbine generator called ?
a)
exciter
b)
governor
c)
OLTC
d)
frequency relay
31.
With reference to the turbine generator, the load angle is the phase angle difference between:
a)
rotor and stator
b)
turbine and generator
c)
boiler and turbile
d)
generator and transformer
32.
When the load angle exceeds the maximum limit, then the power output of the generator will _____
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remains constant
d)
increases by 100%
33.
In order that the frequency of the system remains constant, the electrical power output of the generator must be ___ the power required by the system load plus losses.
a)
greater than
b)
less than
c)
equal to
d)
No relationship
34.
What is the response of the turbine-governor when there is a drop in load?
a)
The governor opens the turbine control valve to increase turbine input
b)
The governor waits several minutes to see what happens
c)
The governor closes the control valve position some what to decrease turbine input
d)
None of <br />the above
35.
Two machines, 'A' & 'B' of equal capacity have speed droop settings of 3% and 6% respectively. How will they share an increase in load?
a)
Machine 'B' picks up large portion of load
b)
Machine 'A' picks up large portion of load
c)
Share the increase in load equally
d)
Neither A nor B pick up the load
36.
Frequency response from loads is better in respect of:
a)
Lighting load
b)
Rotating loads
c)
A combination of lighting loads and rotating loads
d)
Silicon loads
37.
A generating unit running at 50 Hz and its rated capacity of 300 MW has 3 % speed droop. What will be the value of frequency if the unit's output requirement is reduced to 200 MW?
a)
50 Hz
b)
49.5 Hz
c)
50.5 Hz
d)
51.0 Hz
38.
If the system frequency is at 49.0 Hz then the RPM of a cylindrical rotor machine is ____
a)
3000
b)
2940
c)
3060
d)
2880
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