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Giant Diagnostic aids quiz

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 3615secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

what PPE should you wear when packaging a sample in formalin

a)

goggles

b)

apron

c)

gloves

d)

respirator

2.

the study of chemical and biological substances within the blood - plasma or serum

a)

haematology

b)

biochemistry

c)

haematopoiesis

d)

erythropoiesis

3.

what do you call the blood cell that produces thrombocytes?

a)

eukaryotecyte

b)

thrombocytopenia

c)

megakaryocyte

d)

prokaryocyte

4.

where does thrombopoietin come from?

a)

liver

b)

pituitary gland

c)

bone marrow

d)

kidneys

5.

how long is an erythrocyte lifespan in the dog

a)

120 days

b)

110 days

c)

90 days

d)

70 days

6.

what is the waste product of haemoglobin

a)

bilirubin

b)

iron

c)

creatinine

d)

SDMA

7.

what is a normal PCV for a dog

a)

24-45%

b)

30-36%

c)

39-55%

d)

56-75%

8.

what are some clinical signs of non regenerative anaemia caused by a lack of erythropoietin?

a)

PUPD

b)

lethargy

c)

anorexia

d)

vomiting

9.

what are some clinical signs of erythrocytosis

a)

lethargy

b)

red mucous membranes

c)

neurological signs

d)

pale mucous membranes

10.

what are some causes of erythrocytosis?

a)

neoplasia

b)

hypoxaemia

c)

hormones

d)

kidney failure

11.

what is this?

a)

basophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

monocyte

d)

leukocyte

12.

what is this?

a)

eosinophil

b)

neutrophil

c)

basophil

d)

macrophage

13.

what is this?

a)

lymphocyte

b)

monocyte

c)

macrophage

d)

leukocyte

14.

what is this

a)

macrophage

b)

monocyte

c)

lymphocyte

d)

basophil

15.

what is this?

a)

monocyte

b)

lymphocyte

c)

neutrophil

d)

eosinophil

16.

what is this?

a)

neutrophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

basophil

d)

monocyte

17.

what allows platelets to stick to collagen?

a)

von willibrand factor

b)

erythropoietin

c)

cortisol

d)

haemostasis

18.

what would you use when testing for clotting factors?

a)

heparin

b)

citrate

c)

EDTA

d)

boric acid

19.

the liquid, cell-free part of blood that has been treated with anti-coagulants

a)

plasma

b)

serum

20.

liquid part of blood after coagulation, therefore devoid of clotting factors

a)

plasma

b)

serum

21.

what are the major cations tested for in biochemistry?

a)

Na

b)

K

c)

Cl

d)

HCO3

22.

what are the major anions tested for in biochemistry?

a)

Na

b)

K

c)

Cl

d)

HCO3

23.

what does an increase of potassium indicate

a)

cell lysis

b)

hypoadrenocorticism

c)

renal insufficiency

d)

parvovirus

24.

what does a decrease in potassium indicate

a)

hypoadrenocorticism

b)

treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

urinary blockage

d)

FIV

25.

where does creatinine come from?

a)

breakdown of muscle

b)

breakdown of blood

c)

breakdown of fat

d)

breakdown on bone

26.

where does SDMA come from?

a)

waste products involved in RNA functions

b)

waste products involved in DNA functions

c)

waste product from muscle breakdown

d)

waste product from haemoglobin breakdown

27.

when creatinine levels are high, how much kidney function is lost?

a)

25%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

75%

28.

when SDMA levels are high, how much kidney function is lost?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

25%

d)

40%

29.

abnormal increase in concentrations of non-protein nitrogenous waste

a)

azotaemia

b)

uraemia

c)

creatinaemia

d)

nitrogenaemia

30.

which of the following are pre-renal factors?

a)

dehydration

b)

cardiac failure

c)

haemorrhage

d)

urolith

31.

which of the following are renal factors?

a)

toxins

b)

infections

c)

crystals

d)

cysts

32.

which of the following are post-renal factors?

a)

neoplasia

b)

stones

c)

hypovolaemic shock

d)

crystals

33.

when is liver function lost?

a)

when 50% of tissue is non functioning

b)

when 60% of tissue is non functioning

c)

when 70% of tissue is non functioning

d)

when 80% of tissue is non funcitoning

34.

what levels would increase with biliary disease?

a)

ALP

b)

GGT

c)

ALT

d)

AST

35.

what levels would increase with liver cell death?

a)

ALT

b)

AST

c)

ALG

d)

GGT

36.

what other conditions can increase levels of liver enzymes?

a)

corticosteroids

b)

hyperthyroidism

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

pancreatitis

37.

what percentage of bile acids are reabsorbed in the small intestine?

a)

50%

b)

90%

c)

10%

d)

75%

38.

what can lead to an increase of bile acids in blood?

a)

biliary stasis

b)

reduced liver function

c)

porto-systemic shunt

d)

leptospirosis

39.

what are some alternative tests of liver function

a)

bilirubin

b)

albumin

c)

clotting factors

d)

ammonia

40.

where is the stimulating hormone released from

a)

anterior pituitary

b)

posterior pituitary

41.

what does cortisol do

a)

increase blood glucose

b)

anti-inflammatory

c)

decrease immune system

d)

decreases blood potassium

42.

what does aldosterone do?

a)

increases blood sodium

b)

vasoconstriction

c)

decreases blood potassium

d)

decrease heart rate

43.

what causes cushings disease?

a)

tumour in the pituitary gland

b)

tumour in the adrenal gland

c)

treatment with corticosteroids

d)

stress

44.

what biochemsitry and haematology signs are consistent with a crushing's diagnosis

a)

hyperglycaemia

b)

increased liver enzymes

c)

increased cholesterol

d)

neutrophilia

45.

administration of exogenous adrenocorticotrophic hormone and measure the effect on cortisol production after 60-90 minutes

a)

ACTH stim test

b)

T4 test

c)

dexamethasone suppression test

d)

PCV

46.

administration of exogenous glucocorticoid and measuring the affect on cortisol production after 3 and 8 hours

a)

ACTH stim test

b)

dexamethasone suppression test

c)

PCV

d)

T4

47.

what biochemistry and haematology results are consistent with an Addison's disease diagnosis?

a)

increased potassium

b)

low sodium

c)

dehydration

d)

hyperglycaemia

48.

what haematology and biochemistry results are consistent with a diabetes mellitus diagnosis?

a)

hyperglycaemia

b)

elevated ketones

c)

elevated liver enzymes

d)

glycolated haemoglobin

49.

what is used to test for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

a)

ACTH test

b)

trypsin-like immunoreactivity test

c)

dexamethasone suppression test

d)

biochemistry

50.

what can be used to detect pregnancy?

a)

relaxin

b)

hcg

c)

fcg

d)

fibrin

51.

what is present in a red blood cell?

a)

potassium

b)

phosphate

c)

cholesterol

d)

haemoglobin

52.

what can cause hyperlipidaemia?

a)

post-fatty meal sampling

b)

hypothyroidism

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

biliary stasis

53.

what signs would indicate a heparin tube had been contaminated with EDTA?

a)

hypocalcaemia

b)

hyperkalaemia

c)

decreased ALP

d)

decreased ALT

54.

how can stress affect readings?

a)

hyperglycaemia

b)

high cholesterol

c)

increased liver enzymes

d)

low potassium

55.

What can ELISA snap test test for?

a)

parvovirus

b)

FIP

c)

giardia

d)

campilabacter

56.

what do floatation of faeces test for?

a)

worm eggs

b)

protozoa

c)

lung worm

d)

tape worm

57.

what does sedimentation technique of faeces test for?

a)

lungworm

b)

ringworm

c)

hookworm

d)

tapeworm

58.

what is this?

a)

whipworm egg

b)

lungworm egg

c)

tapeworm egg

d)

hookworm egg

59.

when would you not need to add boric acid to a urine sample

a)

in a cystocentesis sample

b)

in a free catch catheter

c)

from a urinary catheter

d)

when testing for crystals

60.

how much urine do rabbits produce in a day?

a)

10-20 ml/kg

b)

20-50 ml/kg

c)

50-100 ml/kg

d)

120-130 ml/kg

61.

what is a normal USG for a cat?

a)

1.015-1.045

b)

1.035-1.060

c)

1.050-1.075

d)

1.010-1.035

62.

urine more concentrated than blood plasma

a)

isothenuric

b)

hyposthenuric

c)

hypersthenuric

63.

what is a normal PH for urine of a cat and dog?

a)

3.5-7.5

b)

7.5-9.5

c)

1.5-3.5

d)

4.5-8.5

64.

it's normal for dog urine to have trace amounts of bilirubin in?

a)

true

b)

false

65.

what are some causes of effusions?

a)

leak from viscous

b)

torn vessel

c)

leakage from intact blood vessels

d)

cancer

66.

why might you do an arthrocentesis?

a)

joint effusion

b)

joint disease of unknown aetiology

c)

suspected infected arthritis

d)

pyrexia of unknown origin

67.

what is a contraindication for performing a bronchoalveolar lavage?

a)

dyspnoea

b)

dystocia

c)

dysrhythmia

d)

dyscardia

68.

what are some indication for a fine needle aspiration

a)

to differentiate between masses

b)

to determine margins of a mass

c)

to remove a mass

d)

to aspirate a cyst

69.

what are some contraindications and risks for performing a histopathology

a)

require GA

b)

risk of spreading cancer

c)

risk of degranulating a mast cell tumour

d)

problems with haemostasis / healing

70.

what are the different methods of biopsy?

a)

punch

b)

surgical

c)

needle

d)

endoscopic

71.

what is this?

a)

malassezia

b)

dermatophyte

c)

ringworm

d)

leishmenia

72.

what is this?

a)

otodectes

b)

sarcoptes scabei

c)

demodex

d)

psoroptes

73.

based on this dogs appearance, what do you suspect it has?

a)

cushings

b)

addisons

c)

sarcoptic mange

d)

atopy

74.

based on this dogs appearance, what would you suspect it has?

a)

sarcoptic mange

b)

demodex mange

c)

atopy

d)

cushings

75.

based on this cats appearance, what would you suspect it has?

a)

ringworm

b)

flea allergy dermatitis

c)

feline acne

d)

atopy

76.

based on this guinea pigs appearance, what would you suspect it has?

a)

ringworm

b)

scurvy

c)

sarcoptic mange

d)

chyletiella

77.

what are some methods for diagnosing ringworm?

a)

dermatophyte test medium

b)

woods lamp

c)

skin scrape

d)

charcoal swab

78.

what is this?

a)

struvite

b)

ammonium biurate

c)

cystine

d)

calcium oxalate

79.

what is this?

a)

struvite

b)

calcium oxalate

c)

ammonium biurate

d)

cystine

80.

what is this?

a)

struvite

b)

calcium oxalate

c)

ammonium biurate

d)

cystine

81.

what is this?

a)

cystine

b)

struvite

c)

ammonium biurate

d)

calcium oxalate