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Diagnostics Formative

Total questions: 22

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following would be necessary to diagnose sarcoptic mange?

a)

Wet paper test

b)

Tape strip

c)

Skin scrape

d)

Otoscope

2.

An abdominal effusion has high levels of protein but very few cells. Of the following, which is the most likely?

a)

Haemorrhage 

b)

Hypertension

c)

Septic peritonitis 

d)

Hypoalbuminaemia

3.

Which parameter is measured during an ACTH stimulation test?

a)

ACTH

b)

Cortisol

c)

ADH

d)

Testosterone

4.

Which urine crystal has a characteristic hexagonal appearance when viewed microscopically?

a)

Cystine

b)

Calcium oxalate dihydrate

c)

Ammonium biurate

d)

Struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate)

5.

What is the most important reason to collect faeces as soon as possible after it has been voided onto the ground?

a)

Fresh faeces is softer to macerate

b)

Fresh faeces has more odour

c)

Fresh faeces is less likely to contain bacteria

d)

Fresh faeces has not been invaded by free-living nematodes and mites

6.

With reference to a haematology result, what does a 'left shift' indicate an increase in?

a)

Immature lymphocytes

b)

Aged lymphocytes

c)

Immature neutrophils

d)

Aged neutrophils

7.

Which of the following parameters is UNLIKELY to be increased in chronic kidney disease?

a)

Creatinine 

b)

Phosphate 

c)

Erythropoietin 

d)

SDMA

8.

What is the appropriate anticoagulant for a sample for haematology?

a)

EDTA

b)

Heparin 

c)

Citrate

d)

Oxulate 

9.

Which of the following is increased in diabetes mellitus?

a)

Albumin

b)

Fructosamine

c)

Amylase

d)

Fructase

10.

Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of a SNAP test for feline immunodeficiency (FIV) antibodies?

a)

The test is expensive

b)

The test is time consuming

c)

FIV antibodies do not persist

d)

Maternally derived antibodies can give a false positive result

11.

Chronic kidney disease is often associated with anaemia. State ONE possible explanation.

a)

Haemorrhage

b)

Reduced production of EPO

c)

Pre Renal Factors

d)

Toxins

12.

Name the cell that resides in the bone marrow and releases platelets into the blood

a)

Natural killer cells

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Megakaryocyte

d)

Macrophages

13.

State the term that means 'a reduction in circulating lymphocytes'

a)

Hyperthenuric

b)

Isothenuric

c)

Luecoytopenia

d)

Lymphopenia

14.

When monocytes migrate into tissues, their nucleus becomes round, and they develop the ability to engulf pathogens. What are they then called?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Macrophage

15.

State 2 possible causes of an eosinophilia

a)

Blood loss

b)

Infection

c)

Parasitic infection

d)

Allergy

16.

Urine is centrifuged to concentrate the sediment within it for microscopic examination. Why is it important to spin the urine at a SLOW speed?

a)

More crystals can form

b)

Separate blood plasma

c)

Crystals can get damaged by spinning

d)

The machine can break

17.

Why should urine wait until it gets to room temperature after being in the fridge before examining?

a)

Its frozen

b)

The dipstick test is to do at room temperature

c)

Crystals can form

18.

Name the cigar-shaped (tubular) structures made of granular mucoprotein whose numbers may increase if there is damage to renal tubules

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Cigars

c)

Casts

d)

Uric Acid

19.

Explain the term 'isosthenuric'

a)

Less concentration than blood plasma

b)

More concentration as blood plasma

c)

Same concentration as plasma

20.

What USG results would be expected in a patient with pre-renal insufficiency?

a)

Very concentrated, high USG

b)

Normal, Normal USG

c)

Diluted, Low USG

21.

Does haemorrhage result in regenerative or non-regenerative anaemia?

a)

Regenerative

b)

Non - Regenerative

22.

How does EDTA contaminating the Lithium Heparin tube affect both hematology and biochemistry results?

a)

Clotting

b)

Hyperkalaemia

c)

Hypocalcaemia

d)

Haemolysis

e)

Platelet Clotting