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Phlebotomy State Exam Practice

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a protein that contains iron and is the main component of erythrocytes?

a)

luekocytes

b)

plasma

c)

hemoglobin

d)

platelets

2.

The red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are known as the:

a)

whole blood

b)

monocyte

c)

serum

d)

formed elements

3.

The protein involved in clotting is:

a)

plasma

b)

hematocrit

c)

pyrogen

d)

fibrinogen

4.

The study of the blood is called:

a)

venipuncture

b)

morphology

c)

phlebotomy

d)

hematology

5.

A branch of medicine that deals with tumors is:

a)

neurology

b)

oncology

c)

urology

d)

serology

6.

hypochromic is an excess of potassium in the blood.

a)

true

b)

false

7.

Immunity is resistance to disease of infection.

a)

true

b)

false

8.

hepat is the root word for kidney.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

Gestation is another term for dysmenorrheal .

a)

true

b)

false

10.

A patient with a rapid pulse has bradycardia.

a)

true

b)

false

11.

A bulge in an artery caused by a weakening of its wall is called

a)

anastomosis

b)

adenoma

c)

acrocyanosis

d)

aneurysm

12.

An immature neutrophil with a non-segmented nucleus is called

a)

erythrocyte

b)

band cell

c)

ketosis

d)

lipemic

13.

Which of the following is not a blood cell:

a)

erythrocyte

b)

leukocyte

c)

phagocyte

d)

neurocyte

14.

The term leukocyte refers to

a)

re blood cells: RBC: transport oxygen to tissue and carbon dioxide to the lungs

b)

white blood cells: WBC: protects from disease

c)

an abnormally high number of red blood cells in circulation

d)

none of the choices

15.

A large bone marrow cell which releases cell which releases platelets into the blood stream is called a

a)

myoglobin

b)

megakaryocell

c)

megakaryocyte

d)

none of the choices

16.

Inflammation of the bone, especially the bone marrow, that is caused by bacteria is called what?

a)

osteoporosis

b)

leuboytosis

c)

osteteitis

d)

leukemia

17.

Basal state is best described as

a)

before lunch

b)

after morning

c)

early morning after 12 hour fasting

d)

early morning, with no fasting

18.

What is an infection of the blood with the presence of pathogenic organisms?

a)

septicemia

b)

serumitis

c)

syncope

d)

none of the choices

19.

Part of the blood clot or other mass of undissolved matter circulating in the blood stream that blocks blood flow is

a)

embolus

b)

thrombosis

c)

hematoma

d)

tumor

20.

What is the substance in erythrocytes that carries the oxygen?

a)

glucose

b)

fibrin

c)

hemoglobin

d)

none of the choices

21.

The destruction of red blood cells is called what?

a)

hemolysis

b)

hemostasis

c)

hemoblast

d)

none of the choices

22.

The abbreviation for red blood cell is

a)

RDBC

b)

RBC

c)

Red BC

d)

rbc

23.

The abbreviation for centimeter is

a)

CM

b)

c m

c)

cm

d)

cntm

24.

The abbreviation for hemoglobin

a)

hemo

b)

he

c)

Hb

d)

HG

25.

The abbreviation for sodium chloride (saline) is

a)

NaCl

b)

NACL

c)

NA-CL

d)

lipemic

26.

The abbreviation for complete blood count is

a)

CBC

b)

cBc

c)

c b c

d)

Cbc

27.

The abbreviation CSF stands for

a)

Cerebrospinal fluid

b)

Central venous fluid

c)

central venous fluid

d)

control venous fluid

28.

Abbreviation for follicle hormone is

a)

fsh

b)

FSH

c)

FsH

d)

FSh

29.

The abbreviation for intra muscular is

a)

IMC

b)

ICM

c)

IM

d)

ITM

30.

The abbreviation for hydrochloric acid

a)

HyA

b)

hcl

c)

HCl

d)

hac

31.

The abbreviation for specific gravity is

a)

spf

b)

sp

c)

spgr

d)

spfgr

32.

The common medical abbreviation for "Differential count of White Blood Cells" is

a)

Dif

b)

DFF

c)

DCWBC

d)

diff

33.

The abbreviation exc stands for which of the following?

a)

extract: external

b)

eosinophils

c)

extrinsic

d)

none of the choices

34.

The abbreviation for blood type is

a)

BT

b)

bldty

c)

aBo

d)

ABO

35.

The abbreviation for fasting blood sugar is

a)

FBS

b)

FbS

c)

FTSB

d)

none of the choices

36.

The Joint commission is abbreviated

a)

JCHAO

b)

TJC

c)

JCO

d)

OSHA

37.

MSDS stands for

a)

Medical Safety Direction Sheets

b)

Master of Science and Doctorate

c)

Material Safety Data Sheets

d)

None of the choices

38.

What is ICD-10-CM?

a)

common centrifuge model

b)

diagnosis coding system

c)

blood test specimen

d)

constitutional amendment

39.

EPA stands for

a)

Exo-Pathogenic Assay

b)

Exit Patient Analysis

c)

Employee Patient Activism

d)

Environmental Protection Agency

40.

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 is abbreviated

a)

CLIA

b)

CLIA '88

c)

both A & B

d)

none of the choices

41.

HDL stands for

a)

High-Density Lipoprotein

b)

Low-Density Lipoprotein

c)

High-Density Lumen

d)

none of the choices

42.

LDL stands for

a)

High-Density Lipoprotein

b)

Low-Density Lipoprotein

c)

Low-Density Lumen

d)

none of the choices

43.

A metric fluid of 1000 milliliters is called what?

a)

liter

b)

quart

c)

microliter

d)

metric liter

44.

The metric equivalent of one fluid ounce is

a)

38.43 mL

b)

28.25 mL

c)

29.57 mL

d)

all of the choices

45.

The metric equivalent of one gallon is

a)

2 liters

b)

3.78 liters

c)

2.78 liters

d)

4 liters

46.

Which is the basic unit of weight in the metric system, approximately equal to a cubic centimeter?

a)

milliliter

b)

gram

c)

liter

d)

kilogram

47.

What is the equivalent to Roman numeral IV?

a)

6

b)

5

c)

2

d)

4

48.

What is the equivalent to Roman Numeral III?

a)

6

b)

5

c)

3

d)

4

49.

What is the equivalent to Roman Numeral LIX ?

a)

59

b)

21

c)

79

d)

49

50.

What is the equivalent to Roman Numeral XXIV ?

a)

15

b)

24

c)

25

d)

14

51.

What is the equivalent to Roman Numeral MCMXCII ?

a)

1992

b)

1982

c)

1972

d)

1952

52.

A line over a Roman Numeral means to multiply the numeral by what number?

a)

100

b)

1000

c)

500000

d)

.01

53.

What is the equivalent to Roman Numeral D ?

a)

100

b)

50

c)

25

d)

500

54.

What is the equivalent to Roman Numeral L ?

a)

100

b)

50

c)

25

d)

500

55.

What is the basic unit of volume measure in the metric system that is equal to 1000 mL?

a)

gallon

b)

quart

c)

liter

d)

meter

56.

Convert 100 grams of kilograms-

a)

1.00 Kg

b)

.001 Kg

c)

100.1 Kg

d)

0.1 Kg

57.

What percentage would 3/4 represent?

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

3.4%

d)

75%

58.

What is the normal body temperature expressed in Fahrenheit?

a)

98.6 F

b)

37 F

c)

30 F

d)

27 F

59.

What is the normal body temperature expressed in Celsius?

a)

98.6 C

b)

37 C

c)

30 C

d)

27 C

60.

What is the approximate amount of blood volume for the avg adult?

a)

10 quarts

b)

5 quarts

c)

4 quarts

d)

none of the choices

61.

The basic metric unit of volume is?

a)

meter

b)

gram

c)

liter

d)

S.I. Units

62.

Which formula is used to convert a decimal to a percentage?

a)

multiply decimal by 10

b)

multiply decimal by 100

c)

multiply decimal by 100 and divide by 2

d)

multiply decimal by 100 and add 1000

63.

Which formula is used to convert a fraction to a percentage?

a)

multiply fraction by 1/100

b)

multiply fraction by 100/1

c)

multiply fraction by 5/10

d)

none of the above

64.

Which of the following converts Noon to military time?

a)

0100

b)

2400

c)

1200

d)

12:00

65.

Military time is used for what reason?

a)

it is a security precaution

b)

it avoids confusion

c)

to eliminate AM and PM designation

d)

both A and C

66.

Which of the following is generally used to cleanse the skin before drawing blood?

a)

alcohol

b)

soap and water

c)

Hibiclens

d)

hydrogen peroxide

67.

Inaccurate test results may occur in certain test when what us used to prepare the skin prior to venipuncture?

a)

povidone iodine

b)

benzelkonium chloride

c)

water

d)

alcohol

68.

Which of the following is used to prepare the skin before a venipuncture when alcohol causes inaccurate results for certain tests?

a)

sterile solution

b)

hydrogen peroxide

c)

water

d)

exfoliating solution

69.

After how many unsuccessful attempts at obtaining a good blood sample should you seek assistance from your supervisor or the doctor?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

70.

The best site for drawing blood from an infant is the

a)

veins in the antecubital fossa

b)

median cubital veins

c)

heel

d)

cephalic veins

71.

Blood test for Potassium and sodium identity

a)

prostatic cancer

b)

hyperparathyroidism

c)

anemia

d)

fluid and electrolyte imbalances

72.

An erythrocyte count (RBC) test is used identify

a)

an infection

b)

anemia

c)

fluid and electrolyte imbalances

d)

leukemia

73.

A blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test is used to identify

a)

anemia

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

kidney disorders

d)

specific cancers

74.

Which of the following is used in the capillary puncture technique?

a)

lancet

b)

syringe

c)

needle

d)

evacuation system

75.

Which method of drawing blood would you use on a patient with small or fragile veins?

a)

evacuation system

b)

capillary puncture

c)

automatic puncturing device

d)

needle and syringe system

76.

Which procedure for obtaining a blood sample in adults and children is usually performed on the middle or ring finger?

a)

evacuation system

b)

capillary puncture

c)

needle and syringe system

d)

butterfly system

77.

A small, calibrated glass tube that holds a precise volume of fluid is called a

a)

lancet

b)

capillary puncture

c)

micropipette

d)

venipuncture

78.

Normal sodium blood level is

a)

3.5-5.1 mEq/L

b)

8.6-10.0 MM./dl

c)

136-145 mEq/L

d)

98-108 mEq/L

79.

Normal Prothrombin time (PT) is

a)

11-15 secs

b)

30-60 secs

c)

2-7 mins

d)

8-10 mins

80.

The normal range for potassium in the blood is

a)

8.6-10 mg/dl

b)

136-145 mEq/L

c)

3.5-5.1 mEq/L

d)

6-20 mg/dl

81.

The normal blood glucose level is

a)

136-145 mEq/L

b)

37-92 mg/dl

c)

21-28- mEq/L

d)

74-120 mg/dl

82.

Which blood test identifies coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis?

a)

total cholesterol

b)

uric acid

c)

glucose

d)

bilirubin

83.

Gout is identified by which type of blood test?

a)

uric acid

b)

potassium

c)

glucose

d)

cholestorel

84.

To evaluate the endocrine system, one would

a)

test spinal fluid

b)

analyze hormone levels

c)

do a blood gas analysis

d)

do a urine culture

85.

Which of the following may cause changes in basal state?

a)

stress and drugs

b)

exercise

c)

diet

d)

all of the choices

86.

A percentage of each type of white blood cell in a total of 100 white cells observed is referred to as

a)

differential

b)

hemacytology

c)

a pit blood cell count

d)

none of the choices

87.

The general lab centrifuge (GLC) is calibrated every

a)

6 months

b)

3 months

c)

month

d)

year

88.

The Ivy method and the Duke method are used to measure

a)

white cell count

b)

bleeding time

c)

fibrin

d)

blood gases

89.

An accumulation in the body of substances, known as ketones, which may be detected by testing time urine, commonly observed in starvation, pregnancy and diabetes is

a)

ketosis

b)

leukocytosis

c)

leukopenia

d)

lipemic

90.

The laboratory test for Prothrombin time would be for

a)

syphilis

b)

hepatic disease

c)

hyperlipemia

d)

evaluating anticoagulant drugs

91.

Anticoagulants prevent the blood from

a)

thinning

b)

forming a clot

c)

becoming fibrinogen

d)

none of the choices

92.

For capillary collection from infants, a lancet with which of the following lengths should be used to avoid penetrating the bone?

a)

2.5 mm

b)

1.5 mm

c)

3.00 mm

d)

3.25 mm

93.

A fasting blood specimen is needed for which of the following clinical laboratory assays?

a)

CBC

b)

triglyceride

c)

cholesterol

d)

both b and c

94.

The test that is required to test the patient's insulin releasing mechanism is called

a)

Hollander test

b)

D-xylose

c)

glucose tolerance

d)

Duke bleeding time

95.

The phlebotomist would play an active role in patient education for which the following procedures?

a)

24 hr urine samples

b)

urine culture

c)

glucose tolerance test

d)

all of the choices

96.

The prothrombin in the blood clotting process is dependent upon which of the following?

a)

vit a

b)

vit K

c)

vit C

d)

vit D

97.

Spinal fluid cultures are used to determined

a)

AIDS

b)

meningitis

c)

streptococcus

d)

rabies

98.

Which of the following blood chemical constituents is light sensitive?

a)

glucose

b)

bilirubin

c)

phosphorous

d)

blood gases

99.

Lab results are unreliable if specimens are collected

a)

during basal state

b)

after ingestion of water

c)

after ingestion of alcohol

d)

none of the choices

100.

Which of the following fluid is extracted from joint cavities?

a)

pleural fluid

b)

peritoneal fluid

c)

synovial fluid

d)

pericardial fluid

101.

Which of the following are tourniquets used in venipuncture?

a)

rubber hose

b)

blood pressure

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the choices

102.

The test that requires passing a tube through the patient's nose is called

a)

Hollander test

b)

D-xylose

c)

Duke bleeding time

d)

none of the choices

103.

Of the following veins, which would be most frequently used for venipuncture?

a)

cephalic vein

b)

basilic

c)

median cubital vein

d)

all of the choices

104.

What effect does warming the site have on venipuncture?

a)

keeps veins from rollling

b)

makes veins stand out

c)

increases localized blood flow

d)

causes hemoconcentration

105.

A prolonged bleeding time for a patient may be caused the patient's intake of

a)

mithramycin

b)

dextran

c)

aspirin

d)

all of the above

106.

If a blood specimen is allowed to clot, without added anticoagulant, this is what remains

a)

serum

b)

blood cells

c)

fibrin clot

d)

all of the choices

107.

Hemoconcentration can be caused by

a)

squeezing or probing the site

b)

long term IV therapy

c)

tourniquet left on for extended periods

d)

all of the choices

108.

The complete Blood Count (CBC) includes which of the following tests?

a)

Hgb

b)

Hcr or crit

c)

RBC

d)

all choices

109.

On a typical microcollection tray you would not find

a)

disposable gloves

b)

lancets

c)

alcohol or benadine pads

d)

a patient's chart

110.

A labeled specimen must include

a)

name and ID number

b)

date of collection

c)

time of collection

d)

all of the choices

111.

A measurement of density is called

a)

specific wt

b)

specific movement

c)

specific density

d)

specific size

112.

The normal pH of blood is

a)

about 7.4

b)

6.4-6.6

c)

8.0-8.1

d)

is generally slightly acidic

113.

Of the following, which is not considered a timed blood specimen?

a)

cortisol

b)

creatinine

c)

CBC

d)

none of the choices are timed

114.

What is the best angle for a needle insertion during venipuncture?

a)

15

b)

30

c)

45

d)

80

115.

Why does blood separate into three layers when centrifuged?

a)

serum

b)

plasma

c)

their various densities

d)

arterial blood gases

116.

To help minimize dizziness or fainting, blood donors should eat within __ hours of donating blood.

a)

9

b)

8

c)

7

d)

6

117.

Hemoguard is a type of

a)

slide

b)

splash guard

c)

sheath

d)

none of the choices

118.

The needle gauge with the smallest diameter is

a)

22

b)

21

c)

20

d)

23

119.

Needles are color coded according to

a)

length

b)

name brand

c)

usage

d)

gauge

120.

The most common skin test performed is

a)

CSF

b)

PPD

c)

CLIA

d)

sweat

121.

A prolonged bleeding time is indicative of low

a)

platelet count

b)

red cell count

c)

white cell count

d)

glucose level

122.

For an ABG collection, what is the required amount of sample?

a)

10 mL

b)

7 ml

c)

20 ml

d)

1 ml

123.

The bevel of the needle should be in which position before entering the vein?

a)

downward

b)

upward

c)

toward the site

d)

none of the choices

124.

When drawing a specimen to test blood alcohol, the site cannot be prepared with

a)

iodine

b)

alcohol

c)

chlorhexidine

d)

none of the choices

125.

A rectangle sheath is a part of a

a)

single draw needle

b)

multiple draw needle

c)

lancet

d)

none of the choices

126.

Which is the special winged needle set that can be left in a patient's vein for up to 48 hrs and is used to administer medication and draw blood?

a)

Ivy

b)

flanges

c)

heparin lock

d)

none of the choices

127.

Pathogenic bacteria or blood poisoning in the blood is called

a)

septicemia

b)

selicia

c)

anemia

d)

hematoma

128.

Which of the following complications could be associated with the collection of arterial blood gas?

a)

infection

b)

arteriospasm

c)

hematoma

d)

all of the choices

129.

When using a pusher slider, which is the correct angle?

a)

45

b)

15

c)

30

d)

90

130.

Which blood test usually does not require skin puncture?

a)

ESR

b)

triglycerides

c)

glucose

d)

CBC

131.

Which method is the most common bleeding time test?

a)

Duke

b)

Surgicutt

c)

Ivy

d)

xylose

132.

Which of the following is used in bedside glucose testing?

a)

acu-Check II

b)

iascan

c)

glucocheck

d)

all of the above

133.

A hematocrit performed on a small sample of blood is

a)

microhematocrit

b)

hematocrit

c)

plasma

d)

micro

134.

A measure of the diameter of a needle is?

a)

mass

b)

volume

c)

circumference

d)

gauge

135.

Serum glucose and ___ could not be tested from the same tube.

a)

PT

b)

SGOT

c)

Potassium

d)

TSH

136.

Cholesterol and ___ could be tested from the same tube.

a)

CBC

b)

PT

c)

SGOT

d)

TSH

137.

What gauge needle are commonly used for phlebotomy?

a)

4

b)

12

c)

21

d)

16

138.

Phlebotomy needles should be stored

a)

in the freezer

b)

at room temp

c)

in alcohol

d)

in an autoclave

139.

Lancets with which of the following maximum lengths are suitable for older children?

a)

5 mm

b)

6mm

c)

7 mm

d)

8 mm

140.

Therapeutic phlebotomy is used in the treatment of

a)

iron deficiency anemia

b)

chronic anemia

c)

megaloblastic anemia

d)

polycythemia

141.

Yellow stoppered tubes are used for

a)

CBC

b)

blood culture

c)

WBC

d)

none of the choices

142.

Which of the following is obtained through a lumbar puncture?

a)

pleural fluid

b)

cerebrospinal fluid

c)

synovial fluid

d)

peritoneal fluid

143.

What is the usual dose of D-xylose administered to the patient in the D-xylose tolerance test?

a)

10g

b)

25g

c)

75g

d)

100g

144.

A skin puncture of infants should not be more than how deep?

a)

1 cm

b)

2.4 mm

c)

2.4 cm

d)

1.5 mm

145.

The ova parasite procedure usually is performed in

a)

hematology

b)

clinical microscopy

c)

clinical microbiology

d)

serology

146.

Sodium heparin is the anticoagulant found in which color tube?

a)

lavender

b)

red

c)

green

d)

blue

147.

Which of the following anticoagulants are found in the pink plastic blood collection vacuum tube?

a)

K2EDTA

b)

sodium heparin

c)

ammonium exalate

d)

sodium oxalate

148.

Which of the following additives is found in a royal-blue stoppered vacuum tube?

a)

EDTA

b)

thrombin

c)

ammonium exalate

d)

sodium oxalate

149.

Which of the following tests require the use of a blood collection tube with a grey stopper?

a)

coagulation studies

b)

blood glucose

c)

plasma cultures

d)

arterial blood gases

150.

What additive is in a tube with a light blue stopper?

a)

heparin

b)

clot activator

c)

sodium citrate

d)

none of the choices

151.

Fraud is an intentional misrepresentation

a)

true

b)

false

152.

The age of majority in most jurisdiction is

a)

21 yrs

b)

19 yrs

c)

17 yrs

d)

18 yrs

153.

Incorrect information given verbally that may injure the reputation of another is called

a)

slander

b)

breach of contract

c)

battery

d)

tort

154.

The unauthorized disclosure of client information can be considered

a)

perjury

b)

burden of proof

c)

invasion of privacy

d)

breach of contract

155.

A physician reports a case of AIDS to the CDC. This is called

a)

negligence

b)

invasion of privacy

c)

public duty

d)

breach of contract

156.

A physician reports a case of AIDS, including the patient's name to the CDC. This is called

a)

negligence

b)

invasion of privacy

c)

public duty

d)

breach of contract

157.

Quality Assurance is written guarantee that a patient will be treated

a)

true

b)

false

158.

Total quality management is a team concept to achieve customer satisfaction

a)

true

b)

false

159.

Violation of federal or state narcotics law constitutes

a)

civil negligence

b)

a tort

c)

a criminal act

d)

a misdemeanor

160.

The legal nature of the doctor-patient relationship is a

a)

contract

b)

private one

c)

professional association

d)

quid pro quo

161.

Invasion of privacy is

a)

disclosure of private facts

b)

misrepresentation of facts

c)

illegally gaining a person's name

d)

all of the choices

162.

For negligence to occur there must be

a)

a legal obligation owed by one person to another

b)

a breach of duty

c)

harm done as a direct result of the action

d)

all of the choices

163.

Disposal of chemicals is regulated by

a)

EPA

b)

OSHA

c)

FDA

d)

CLIA

164.

What condition is free of germ, infection, and any form of life?

a)

bio-free

b)

carrier

c)

fomite

d)

sterile

165.

Civil law is the law of private rights between persons or parties

a)

true

b)

false

166.

Criminal law is divided into felonies and misdemeanors

a)

true

b)

false

167.

A QC program monitors

a)

indicators

b)

outcomes

c)

procedures

d)

threshold values

168.

What book describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection?

a)

procedure manual

b)

QC manual

c)

safety manual

d)

user manual

169.

A physician is required to report which of following?

a)

births

b)

abuse

c)

HIV cases

d)

all of the above

170.

___ create federal laws to protect health care workers from health hazards on the job.

a)

FDA

b)

OSHA

c)

EPA

d)

MSDS

171.

A national organization that develops guidelines and sets standards for laboratory procedures is

a)

CAP

b)

TJC

c)

NAACLS

d)

NCCLS

172.

OSHA Form 300, log of occupation injuries and illness must be kept for

a)

6 months

b)

1 yr

c)

5 yrs

d)

10 yrs

173.

Malpractice law suits are part of

a)

statutory law

b)

common law

c)

civil law

d)

criminal law

174.

TQM is a combination of concepts based on

a)

education

b)

customer satisfaction

c)

bureaucracy

d)

government regualtions

175.

The bones located in the feet are called

a)

basilic

b)

cephalic

c)

metatarsal

d)

leukocyte

176.

A type of bacterium that is form is called

a)

crenated

b)

coccus

c)

rod

d)

cylinder

177.

Which of the following are the framework of the body?

a)

muscles

b)

bones

c)

nerves

d)

hormones

178.

The first line of defense against infection is the

a)

muscles

b)

bones

c)

skin

d)

nerves

179.

The semi-liquid form of undigested food that leaves the stomach is called

a)

bile

b)

chyme

c)

bolus

d)

villi

180.

Which of the following are the main functional organs of the urinary system?

a)

kidneys

b)

ureters

c)

urinary bladder urethra

d)

urethra

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