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Skeletal System Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 5hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the follow is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

a)

Production of Hormones

b)

Protection of underlying organs

c)

Hematopoiesis

d)

Storage of Salts and Minerals

e)

Locomotion

2.

Which is NOT of the three main cell types found in bone?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Osteomyocyte

d)

Osteoclast

3.

Which cell type builds new bone matrix?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Osteomyocyte

d)

Osteoclast

4.

Which cell type maintains existing bone matrix?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Osteomyocyte

d)

Osteoclast

5.

Which cell type breaks down or destroys existing bone matrix?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Osteomyocyte

d)

Osteoclast

6.

What are the TWO major styles of organization of bone?

a)

Spongy or Trabecular Bone

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Open Bone

d)

Strong Bone

e)

Holey Bone

7.

Which type of bone is organized into osteons consisting of concentric lamallae and haversian systems?

a)

Empty Bone

b)

Strong Bone

c)

Compact Bone

d)

Spongy Bone

8.

Which type of bone is organized into less organized arrangements of bone called trabeculae with spaces in between the osteocytes?

a)

Empty Bone

b)

Strong Bone

c)

Compact Bone

d)

Spongy Bone

9.

Which is NOT an example of a long bone?

a)

Phalanges

b)

Carpals

c)

Femur

d)

Ulna

e)

Humerus

10.

Which is NOT an example of a flat bone?

a)

Ribs

b)

Occipital Bone

c)

Frontal Bone

d)

Maxillary Bone

e)

Cervical Vertebrae

11.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a short bone?

a)

Navicular

b)

Hamate

c)

Humerus

d)

Cunieforms

e)

Capitate

12.

Which is NOT an example of an irregular bone?

a)

Pubis

b)

Thoracic Vertebrae

c)

Sacrum

d)

Ischium

e)

Parietal

13.

What are the two main portions of a long bone?

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Metaphysis

c)

Epiphysis

d)

Mediaphysis

14.

Label letter A

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Epiphysial Plate

c)

Periosteum

d)

Diaphysis

15.

Label letter B

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Epiphysial Plate

c)

Periosteum

d)

Diaphysis

16.

Label letter C

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Epiphysial Plate

c)

Periosteum

d)

Diaphysis

17.

Label letter D

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Articular Cartilage

c)

Periosteum

d)

Diaphysis

18.

Label letter E

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Medullary Cavity

c)

Periosteum

d)

Trabecular/Spongy Bone

19.

Label letter F

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Medullary Cavity

c)

Periosteum

d)

Trabecular/Spongy Bone

20.

Label letter G

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Medullary Cavity

c)

Periosteum

d)

Trabecular/Spongy Bone

21.

Label letter H

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Medullary Cavity

c)

Periosteum

d)

Trabecular/Spongy Bone

22.

The Diaphysis of the long bone is covered in _______________ and is made of ____________________ bone.

a)

Articular Cartilage; Compact Bone

b)

Articular Cartilage; Spongy Bone

c)

Periosteum; Spongy Bone

d)

Periosteum; Compact Bone

23.

The Epiphysis of the long bone is covered in _______________ and is made of ____________________ bone.

a)

Articular Cartilage; Compact Bone

b)

Articular Cartilage; Spongy Bone

c)

Periosteum; Spongy Bone

d)

Periosteum; Compact Bone

24.

What is the function of red marrow? Where in the long bones would you expect to find red marrow?

a)

Hematopoiesis; Epiphysis

b)

Hematopoiesis; Diaphysis

c)

Storage of Adipose Tissue; Epiphysis

d)

Storage of Adipose Tissue; Diaphysis

25.

What is the function of yellow marrow? Where in the long bones would you expect to find yellow marrow?

a)

Hematopoiesis; Epiphysis

b)

Hematopoiesis; Diaphysis

c)

Storage of Adipose Tissue; Epiphysis

d)

Storage of Adipose Tissue; Diaphysis

26.

What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? What cells line the epiphyseal plate?

a)

Longitudinal growth of bone; Osteoclasts

b)

Longitudinal growth of bone; Osteoblasts

c)

Circumferential growth of bone; Osteocytes

d)

Circumferential growth of bone; Osteoblasts

27.

The chief organizational structure of the compact bone is known as the:

a)

Canaliculi

b)

Osteon

c)

Haversian Canal

d)

Lamallae

28.

What is the function of the Haversian Canal?

a)

Connect Osteocytes together for communication

b)

Place where osteocytes reside

c)

Lines the inside of the bones

d)

To provide nerves and blood vessels for the exchange of nutrients to and from the osteocytes

29.

What is the function of lacunae?

a)

Connect Osteocytes together for communication

b)

Place where osteocytes reside

c)

Lines the inside of the bones

d)

To provide nerves and blood vessels for the exchange of nutrients to and from the osteocytes

30.

What is the function of canaliculi?

a)

Connect Osteocytes together for communication

b)

Place where osteocytes reside

c)

Rings of concentric Osteocytes

d)

To provide nerves and blood vessels for the exchange of nutrients to and from the osteocytes

31.

Extracellular matrix that is organized into concentric rings is known as:

a)

Haversian Canals

b)

Lamellae

c)

Canaliculi

d)

Lacunae

32.

Ligaments connect what?

a)

Bones to Muscle

b)

Muscle to Muscle

c)

Bone to Bone

d)

Bone to Tendons

33.

Tendons connect what?

a)

Bones to Muscle

b)

Muscle to Muscle

c)

Bone to Bone

d)

Bone to Ligaments

34.

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Appendicular Skeleton

c)

Muscular Skeleton

d)

Skull

e)

Upper Division

35.

Which portion of the skeletal system consists of the skull, vertebrae, ribs and clavicles

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Appendicular Skeleton

36.

Which portion of the skeletal system consists of the arms, legs and pelvic girdle?

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Appendicular Skeleton

37.

How many bones form the adult skull?

a)

8

b)

1

c)

14

d)

22

38.

How many bones form the cranial cavity?

a)

1

b)

8

c)

14

d)

22

39.

Which of the following bones does NOT form the cranium?

a)

Sphenoid Bone

b)

Temporal Bone

c)

Mandible Bone

d)

Ethmoid Bone

e)

Parietal Bone

40.

How many facial bones are there?

a)

1

b)

8

c)

14

d)

22

41.

Which of the following bones is NOT a facial bone?

a)

Lacrimal

b)

Maxillae

c)

Zygomatic Bone

d)

Vomer

e)

Hyoid Bone

42.

Which landmark on the temporal bone anchors the tongue?

a)

Mastoid Process

b)

Styloid Process

c)

External Acoustic Meatus

d)

Zygomatic Process

43.

Which landmark on the temporal bone anchors the head and neck muscles?

a)

Mastoid Process

b)

Styloid Process

c)

External Acoustic Meatus

d)

Zygomatic Process

44.

Which landmark on the temporal bone contains the opening to the middle ear canal?

a)

Mastoid Process

b)

Styloid Process

c)

External Acoustic Meatus

d)

Zygomatic Process

45.

Which landmark on the temporal bone forms the posterior aspect of the cheeks?

a)

Mastoid Process

b)

Styloid Process

c)

External Acoustic Meatus

d)

Zygomatic Process

46.

What structure allows the spinal cord to exit the cranial cavity?

a)

Occipital Condyles

b)

Foramen Magnum

c)

Foramen rotundum

d)

Foramen Spinosum

47.

What structure on the occipital bone is important for a person to nod their head or say "Yes" Non-verbally?

a)

Foramen Magnum

b)

Vertebral Canal

c)

Cribriform Plate

d)

Occipital Condyles

48.

Which is NOT one of the pairs of sinuses?

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Frontal

d)

Temporal

e)

Maxillary

49.

The Lambdoidal suture separates which two bones?

a)

Occipital bone from Parietal bone

b)

Parietal bone from Parietal bone

c)

Parietal bone from Temporal bone

d)

Frontal bone from Parietal bone

50.

The squamous suture separates which two bones?

a)

Occipital bone from Parietal bone

b)

Parietal bone from Parietal bone

c)

Parietal bone from Temporal bone

d)

Frontal bone from Parietal bone

51.

The coronal suture separates which two bones?

a)

Occipital bone from Parietal bone

b)

Parietal bone from Parietal bone

c)

Parietal bone from Temporal bone

d)

Frontal bone from Parietal bone

52.

The sagittal suture separates which two bones?

a)

Occipital bone from Parietal bone

b)

Parietal bone from Parietal bone

c)

Parietal bone from Temporal bone

d)

Frontal bone from Parietal bone

53.

What are the two functions of the vertebral column?

a)

Encasing the Brain

b)

Protecting the spinal cord

c)

Motion and weight-bearing in the back

d)

Reinforcing the abdomen

54.

What is the name and function of the 1st vertebrae?

a)

Axis, shaking the head no

b)

Atlas, nodding the head yes

c)

Atlas, Shaking the head no

d)

Axis, Nodding the head yes

55.

What is the name and function of the 2nd vertebrae?

a)

Axis, shaking the head no

b)

Atlas, nodding the head yes

c)

Atlas, Shaking the head no

d)

Axis, Nodding the head yes

56.

Which are regions of the spinal column?

a)

Cervical

b)

Sacral

c)

Thoracic

d)

Costal

e)

Coccyx

57.

How many vertebrae are in the cervical region of the spine?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

12

d)

7

58.

How many vertebrae are in the thoracic region of the spine?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

12

d)

7

59.

How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region of the spine?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

12

d)

7

60.

How many vertebrae are in the sacral region of the spine?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

12

d)

7

61.

What two curvatures of the spine are formed by birth?

a)

Cervical

b)

Coccyx

c)

Sacral

d)

Lumbar

e)

Thoracic

62.

Which level of the spine develops as a baby learns to hold its head up?

a)

Cervical

b)

Coccyx

c)

Sacral

d)

Lumbar

e)

Thoracic

63.

Which level of the spine develops as a child learns to walk?

a)

Cervical

b)

Coccyx

c)

Sacral

d)

Lumbar

e)

Thoracic

64.

How many vertebrae fuse to form the sacrum?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

65.

How many vertebrae fuse to form the coccyx

a)

5

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

66.

Which portion of a vertebra handles weight-bearing and touches the intervertebral discs?

a)

Body

b)

Transverse Process

c)

Spinous Process

d)

Lamina/Pedicle

67.

Which portion of a vertebra forms the vertebral foramen for the spinal cord to pass through?

a)

Body

b)

Transverse Process

c)

Spinous Process

d)

Lamina/Pedicle

68.

Which portion of a vertebra serves as a site for muscle attachment for back muscles?

a)

Body

b)

Transverse Process

c)

Spinous Process

d)

Lamina/Pedicle

69.

Which portion of a vertebra can be palpated or touched through the skin?

a)

Body

b)

Transverse Process

c)

Spinous Process

d)

Lamina/Pedicle

70.

The cervical vertebrae have two unique functions: Triangular vertebral foramen and transverse foramina. Why?

a)

The triangular vertebral foramen allows for the enlargement of the spinal cord and the transverse foramina allows the vertebral artery to pass

b)

The triangular vertebral foramen allows for the non-enlarged spinal cord to pass and the transverse foramina allow the vertebral nerve to pass

c)

The triangular vertebral foramen allows for the non-enlarged spinal cord to pass and the transverse foramina allows nothing to pass

d)

The triangular vertebral foramen allows for the enlargement of the spinal cord and the transverse foramina blocks anything from passing

71.

The Thoracic Vertebrae have circular vertebral foramen and facets for ribs. Why?

a)

Facets allow for the spinal cord to pass and circular vertebral foramen is a site for rib attachment

b)

Facets allow for rib attachment and the circular vertebral foramen is for the enlargement of the spinal cord

c)

Facets allow for rib attachment and the circular vertebral foramen allows for the spinal cord to pass

d)

Facets serve no anatomical role and the circular vertebral foramen allows for the spinal cord to pass

72.

Which two levels of the spine can undergo flexion and extension?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

73.

Which level of the spine allows for lateral rotation?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

74.

Scoliosis is:

a)

Abnormal posterior curvature of the cervical spin

b)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the cervical spine

c)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the thoracic spine

d)

Abnormal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine

75.

Lordosis is:

a)

Abnormal posterior curvature of the cervical spin

b)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the cervical spine

c)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the thoracic spine

d)

Abnormal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine

76.

Kyphosis is:

a)

Abnormal posterior curvature of the cervical spin

b)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the cervical spine

c)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the thoracic spine

d)

Abnormal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine

77.

What is the main function of the ribs?

a)

Weight-Bearing

b)

Protection of underlying organs

c)

Flexion and Extension of the upper back

d)

Exchange of gases

78.

Which ribs are true ribs? Why are they called true ribs?

a)

Ribs 8 - 10. Because they attach indirectly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

b)

Ribs 11 and 12. Because they do not attach at all to the sternum

c)

Ribs 11 and 12. Because they attach indirectly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

d)

Ribs 1 - 7. Because they attach directly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

79.

Which ribs are false ribs? Why are they called false ribs?

a)

Ribs 8 - 10. Because they attach indirectly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

b)

Ribs 11 and 12. Because they do not attach at all to the sternum

c)

Ribs 11 and 12. Because they attach indirectly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

d)

Ribs 1 - 7. Because they attach directly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

80.

Which ribs are the floating ribs? Why are they called floating ribs?

a)

Ribs 8 - 10. Because they attach indirectly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

b)

Ribs 11 and 12. Because they do not attach at all to the sternum

c)

Ribs 11 and 12. Because they attach indirectly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

d)

Ribs 1 - 7. Because they attach directly to cartilage that inserts on the sternum

81.

What are the three portions of the sternum?

a)

Body

b)

Clavicle

c)

Xiphoid Process

d)

Manubrium

e)

Jugular Notch

82.

What two bones form the pectoral girdle?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

c)

1st rib

d)

Humerus

83.

What two locations are sites where the clavicle attaches?

a)

Manubrium Medially and Humerus Laterally

b)

Manubrium laterally and the scapula medially

c)

Scapula laterally and the manubrium medially

d)

The humerus laterally and manubrium medially

84.

Where does the head of the Humerus insert on the scapula?

a)

Acromion

b)

Spine

c)

Glenoid Fossa

d)

Acetabulum

85.

Which bone is responsible for being the elbow?

a)

Radius

b)

Humerus

c)

Scaphoid

d)

Ulna

86.

Which bone is responsible for rotating the forearm and the hand?

a)

Radius

b)

Humerus

c)

Scaphoid

d)

Ulna

87.

Which part of the hip bone do we sit on?

a)

Ileum

b)

Pubis

c)

Ischium

d)

Sacrum

88.

Which part of the hip bone forms a joint with the sacrum?

a)

Ileum

b)

Pubis

c)

Ischium

d)

Sacrum

89.

Which part of the hip bone protects the pelvic organs anteriorly?

a)

Ileum

b)

Pubis

c)

Ischium

d)

Sacrum

90.

Where does to femur insert into the hip bone?

a)

Glenoid Fossa

b)

Acetabulum

c)

Obturator Foramen

d)

Pubis Bone

91.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of osteoarthritis?

a)

Typically found in older adults

b)

Involves high use joints such as the knee, wrist, and the distal interphalangeal joints

c)

Caused by an autoimmune condition

d)

Stiffness goes away with use and time

e)

Caused by wear and tear on the joints

92.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Caused by an auto immune condition

b)

Involves pain, swelling and stiffness that won't go away

c)

Involves joins such as the elbow, proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPs) ankle and other low use joints

d)

Can be found in any age group, but typically middle aged women are most common

e)

It can get better with rest

93.

A 68 year-old female presents to her PCP and complains of lumbago (Low Back Pain). On history taking it is noted that she is lactose intolerant and hates green vegetables. Her lab results indicate low calcium and vitamin D levels along with an x-ray that shows a hairline fracture in her L2 vertebrae. Her Bone density scan indicates large holes in her spongy bone. She is told to see a physical therapist and is given vitamin D supplements. What condition does she have?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Osteosarcoma

94.

Which of the following is not true about osteomalacia?

a)

Is commonly called rickets

b)

Causes bowing of the legs and fracturing of the bones

c)

Is seen in young adults typically

d)

Is easily treated by giving supplemental Vitamin D

e)

Is seen typically in young children

95.

A torn ligament is also known as a what?

a)

A Tear

b)

A Fracture

c)

A Sprain

d)

A crack

96.

If blood calcium levels fall below 10 mg/100 ml, what hormone is active?

a)

Parathyroid Hormone

b)

Calcintonin

97.

If blood calcium levels climb above 10 mg/100 ml, what hormone is active?

a)

Parathyroid Hormone

b)

Calcintonin

98.

Calcitonin has what effects on its targets?

a)

Inactivates Osteoclasts and activates osteoblasts

b)

Decreases Vitamin D Production

c)

Increases Vitamin D production

d)

Increases kidney reabsorption of calcium

99.

Parathyroid hormone has what effects on what THREE targets?

a)

Increases Osteoblast Activity

b)

Increases calcium reabsorption in the kidney

c)

Increases Vitamin D production, which increases calcium taken in by the GI tract

d)

Increases Osteoclast activity

100.

Which of the following would NOT be stored in bone?

a)

Calcium

b)

Fat

c)

Inorganic salts

d)

Blood Cells

e)

Glucose

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