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Worksheets

Spring 2022 Milestones

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the brand names of epoetin? Select all that apply.

a)

Epogen

b)

Procrit

c)

Aranesp

d)

Hematocrit

e)

Pronesp

2.

What is the class of Ifex?

a)

Antineoplastic, Alkylating Agent

b)

Hematopoietic Stimulating Agent

c)

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor

d)

Iron Chelating Agent

e)

HIV Antiretroviral Agent, Protease Inhibitor

3.

What is the brand name of Ifosfamide?

a)

Ifex

b)

Desferal

c)

Reblozyl

d)

Auvi-Q

e)

Inotropin

4.

What is a brand name for folic acid?

a)

Duragesic

b)

Folacin-800

c)

Uloric

d)

N/A

5.

Aside from Adrenalin, what are the other brand names for epinephrine? Select all that apply.

a)

EpiPen

b)

Auvi-Q

c)

Inotropin

d)

Ifex

e)

Reyataz

6.

Based on its MOA of being an agonist of dopaminergic and adrenergic (alpha and beta-1) receptors, what are physiological effects to be expected following the administration of Intropin? Select all that apply.

a)

Decreased BP

b)

Increased BP

c)

Increased HR

d)

Increased heart contractility

e)

Increased bronchospasm

7.

Which drugs or drug classes, if co-administered with intropin, require urine output monitoring? Select all that apply.

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Diuretics

c)

Inhaled anesthetics

d)

Adrenergic (beta/alpha) blockers

e)

Phenytoin

8.

Why is urine output monitoring needed if haloperidol is co-administered with intropin?

a)

Concurrent use can produce additive or potentiate urine loss

b)

Concurrent use antagonizes effects of norepinephrine

c)

Concurrent use suppresses renal and mesenteric vasodilation

d)

Concurrent use can enhance the risk for arrhythmias

9.

Why is urine output monitoring needed if diuretics are co-administered with intropin?

a)

Concurrent use can produce additive or potentiate urine loss

b)

Concurrent use antagonizes effects of norepinephrine

c)

Concurrent use suppresses renal and mesenteric vasodilation

d)

Concurrent use can enhance the risk for arrhythmias

10.

Why is monitoring needed if beta- or alpha-blockers are co-administered with intropin?

a)

Concurrent use can produce additive or potentiate urine loss

b)

Concurrent use antagonizes effects of norepinephrine

c)

Concurrent use suppresses renal and mesenteric vasodilation

d)

Concurrent use can enhance the risk for arrhythmias

11.

According to the Top 200 Injectable Drug Cards (2021/2022), there are no common ADEs for dopamine use (i.e., occurring in > 10% of patients)

a)

False

b)

True

12.

What should patients alert their providers for when they are given dopamine?

a)

Burning or pain at the site of IV administration

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Disturbing dreams

d)

Increased impulsivity for sex, gambling, or other dangerous activities

e)

All of the above

13.

Based on its MOA of being an agonist of adrenergic (alpha, beta-1, and beta-2) receptors, what are physiological effects to be expected following the administration of Auvi-Q? Select all that apply.

a)

Decreased BP

b)

Increased BP

c)

Increased HR

d)

Increased heart contractility

e)

Decreased bronchospasm

14.

Which of the following drugs/drug classes have a drug-drug interaction with EpiPens ultimately requiring monitoring closely for arrhythmias? Select all that apply.

a)

Cardiac glycosides

b)

TCAs

c)

MAOIs

d)

SSRIs

e)

SNRIs

15.

Aside from potential arrhythmias, what other potential consequence of drug-drug interaction between Auvi-Q and TCAs/MAOIs/linezolid should a healthcare provider also monitor for?

a)

HTN

b)

TENS

c)

ARDS

d)

DM Type II

e)

ODS

16.

Why is monitoring needed if beta- or alpha-blockers are co-administered with Adrenalin?

a)

Concurrent use can produce additive or potentiate urine loss

b)

Concurrent use antagonizes effects of epinephrine

c)

Concurrent use suppresses renal and mesenteric vasodilation

d)

Concurrent use can enhance the risk for arrhythmias

17.

What are some common ADEs (i.e., involving > 10% of patients) involving the use of Adrenalin? Select all that apply.

a)

Sedation

b)

Apprehension

c)

Tremor

d)

Seizures

e)

Nausea/Vomiting

18.

Which of the following are valid counseling points involving the use of epinephrine? Select all that apply.

a)

Inform provider about burning or pain at the site of IV administration

b)

Inject into the outside thigh with the leg firmly held during administration; do not inject into the buttocks, fingers, hands, or feet.

c)

Follow autoinjector instructions per manufacturer and seek medical assistance immediately even if you feel better after use.

d)

Autoinjectors are to be used only IM or SQ

e)

Do not use if you are also taking nitrates for chest pain

19.

What are true statements regarding the differences and similarities of darbepoetin and epoetin's MOA? Select all that apply.

a)

Darbepoetin alfa is a hyperglycosylated analogue of recombinant human erythropoietin.

b)

Epoetin alfa is recombinant human erythropoietin

c)

Only darbepoetin alfa binds to the erythropoietin receptor of erythroid progenitor cells

d)

Both darbepoetin alfa and epoetin alfa both result in the stimulation and differentiation of mature RBCs

20.

How do you manage the drug-drug interaction between epoetin and thalidomide, assuming both drugs require coadministration? Select all that apply.

a)

Avoid concurrent use

b)

Consider adding anticoagulative therapy if coadministration is necessary

c)

There is no drug-drug interaction between epoetin and thalidomide

d)

Monitor INR

e)

Separate use by 4-6 hours apart

21.

Which of the following are common (i.e., occurring in > 10% of patients) ADEs of epoetin? Select all that apply

a)

Edema

b)

Injection site thrombosis

c)

Pruritus

d)

Pure red cell aplasia

e)

Tumor progression

22.

Which of the following are key counseling points for epoetin? Select all that apply.

a)

This medication must not be shaken, diluted, or exposed to light.

b)

This medication must be stored in its box in the fridge, but not frozen.

c)

Vials are single use only; do not combine remaining epoetin from different vials

d)

For maximal effects to be seen, it may require several weeks of therapy

e)

This medication can be administered orally and rectally

23.

What is febuxostat's class?

a)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

b)

Anticoagulant

c)

Antineoplastic, alkylating agent

d)

Hematopoietic stimulating agent

e)

Antiretroviral agent, CCR5 antagonist

24.

Which of the following substrates for xanthine oxidase is contraindicated for concurrent use with febuxostat? Select all that apply

a)

Azathioprine

b)

Didanosine

c)

Mercaptopurine

d)

Theophylline

e)

Xanthan gum

25.

Which of the following substrates for xanthine oxidase is can be used with caution concurrently with febuxostat? Select all that apply

a)

Azathioprine

b)

Didanosine

c)

Mercaptopurine

d)

Theophylline

e)

Xanthan gum

26.

According to the Top 200 Injectable Drug Cards (2021/2022), there are no common ADEs for Uloric use (i.e., occurring in > 10% of patients)

a)

False

b)

True

27.

Which of the following statements are valid key counseling points for Uloric? Select all that apply.

a)

Take with food

b)

Lifestyle modifications (limiting alcohol consumption and weight loss) is recommended for all gout patients

c)

Seek medical attention for severe mood swings, rashes, or abnormal heart beat

d)

Do not take with grapefruit juice

e)

Take without food

28.

Which of the following drug classes, if taken concurrently with fentanyl, can result in additive CNS depression? Select all that apply.

a)

Barbiturates

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Centrally-acting muscle relaxers

d)

Opioids

e)

Phenothiazines

29.

What can occur if fentanyl is concurrently used with either beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers?

a)

Additive hypotension

b)

Additive respiratory depression

c)

Precipitation of withdrawal symptoms

d)

Additive CNS depression

e)

Increased risk of serotonin syndrome

30.

What is the management strategy to prevent the precipitation of withdrawal symptoms in patients taking fentanyl and either buprenorphine, opioid antagonists, or mixed opioid agonist/antagonists?

a)

Avoid concurrent use

b)

Separate use by 2 hours

c)

Monitor for increased CNS/respiratory depression

d)

Consider dose increases of fentanyl

e)

Administer probenecid

31.

Which of the following are common (i.e., present in > 10% of patients) ADEs of fentanyl transdermal? Select all that apply

a)

Application site reactions

b)

Constipation

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Sweating

e)

Confusion

32.

What can potentially increase absorption of fentanyl from its transdermal patch?

a)

Broken skin

b)

Fever

c)

Alcohol consumption

d)

Pregnancy

e)

Constipation

33.

Which of the following statements are valid key counseling points for fentanyl transdermal?

a)

Stimulant laxatives are recommended for the treatment of medication-induced constipation

b)

Avoid driving or other tasks requiring motor coordination

c)

Old patches must be removed when new patches are applied

d)

Skin where the patch will be applied to must be clean and dry with no breaks

e)

Alcohol is recommended to be consumed concurrently while using fentanyl transdermal patches.

34.

What type of anemia is caused by folate deficiency?

a)

Normocytic

b)

Macrocytic

c)

Microcytic

d)

Aplastic

e)

Sickle-cell

35.

Which of these drugs/drug classes not only decrease folic acid absorption, but also suffer from decreased efficacy (due to increased metabolism) if concurrently taken with folic acid?

a)

Barbiturates

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Valproic Acid

d)

Opioids

e)

Cocaine

36.

Which of the following is a common (i.e., occurring in > 10% of patients) ADEs of folic acid? Select all that apply

a)

Loss of appetite

b)

Anaphylaxis

c)

TENS

d)

Serotonin syndrome

e)

Priapism

37.

Which of the following are appropriate counseling points for folic acid? Select all that apply.

a)

Avoid alcohol, as this inhibits folic acid absorption

b)

Effects occur immediately upon taking first dose

c)

Several weeks of therapy may be required for maximal effect

d)

May cause drowsiness

e)

May cause changes in vision

38.

Heparin potentiates antithrombin III activity; this leads to the inactivation of thrombin and prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

a)

False

b)

True

39.

How should you manage the concurrent use of heparin and other anticoagulants (e.g., DOACs, such as rivaroxaban)?

a)

Avoid concurrent use

b)

Monitor for signs and symptoms of bleeding

40.

How should you manage the concurrent use of heparin and antiplatelet agents (e.g., prasugrel)?

a)

Avoid concurrent use

b)

Monitor for signs and symptoms of bleeding

41.

What drugs can cause thromboses and thus counteract the effects of heparin?

a)

Estrogen/Progestin Derivatives

b)

Testosterone

c)

Folic Acid

d)

Aspirin

e)

Opioids

42.

What are common (i.e., occurring in > 10% of patients) ADEs related to heparin use? Select all that apply.

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Thrombocytopenia

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Stroke

e)

Deep vein thrombosis

43.

What are valid key counseling points related to the use of heparin?

a)

For SQ administration, do not administer into muscle, since pain, irritation, and bruising (hematoma) can occur.

b)

Continuous IV infusions can be diluted in NS, 1/2NS, and D5W and be given through an infusion pump

c)

Bleeding can occur during or after administration

d)

This medication can be frozen

e)

This medication can be administered as a rectal enema

44.

What mechanisms give Ifex its antineoplastic activity?

a)

Crosslinking DNA strands

b)

Inhibition of protein synthesis

c)

Inhibition of DNA synthesis

d)

All of the above

45.

What are the CYP enzymes that primarily metabolizes Ifex (and therefore, must be wary of co-administered inducers and inhibitors?)

a)

CYP3A4/5

b)

CYP1A2

c)

CYP2C8/9/19

d)

CYP2D6

46.

What is the management strategy for patients taking ifosfamide and other immunosuppressive agents concurrently?

a)

Avoid concurrent use

b)

Separate use by 2 hours

c)

Monitor for increased CNS/respiratory depression

d)

Complete all needed vaccines 2 weeks prior to starting ifosfamide

e)

Administer probenecid

47.

What are the most common (i.e., occurs in > 10% of patients) ADEs related to ifosfamide use? Select all that apply.

a)

Alopecia

b)

Anemia

c)

Leukopenia

d)

CNS toxicity

e)

Nausea/Vomiting

48.

What are appropriate key counseling points for ifosfamide? Select all that apply.

a)

This drug can cause infertility in both men and women

b)

Alopecia, nausea/vomiting, and myelosuppression are common.

c)

This drug can cause non Hodgkin's lymphoma

d)

Bladder toxicity can be mitigated especially with adequate hydration

e)

This drug can cause acute kidney injury

49.

Which drugs/drug classes not only decrease folic acid serum levels but also suffer from decreased efficacy if concurrently taken with folic acid?

a)

Barbiturates

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Valproic Acid

d)

Opioids

e)

Cocaine

50.

Fentanyl is _____ to/than morphine.

a)

equipotent

b)

5-10x more potent

c)

50-100x more potent

d)

5-10x less potent

e)

50-100x less potent