NEW
Font size
WorksheetsPMBOK- all questions
Total questions: 72
Worksheet time: 36mins
127. Project Quality Management includes the processes for incorporating the organization's quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements in order to:
A. Meet stakeholders' objectives
B. Improve process capability
C. Control products, services and results
D. Meet standards of performance for the project team
128.Quality and grade are not the same .A fundamental distinction is that:
A. Quality as a delivered performance or result isthe degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements; grade as a design intent is a category assigned to deliverables having the same functional use but different technical characteristics.
B. A quality level that fails to meet quality requirements may not be a problem; a low grade ofquality is always a problem.
C. Delivering the required levels of quality is not included in the responsibilities of the project manager and the project team.
D. Delivering the required levels of grade is not included in the responsibilities of the project manager and the project team.
129.Understanding, evaluating, defining, and managing requirements areessential to satisfying:
A. Customer expectations.
B. The scope statement.
C. Upper management.
D. Functional requirements.
130.All of the following are primary benefits of meeting quality requirements EXCEPT:
A. Less rework.
B. Higher productivity.
C. Lower costs.
D. Fewer change orders.
131.Inputs to control quality include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Project management plan.
B. Quality metrics.
C. Work performance data.
D. PERT chart.
132.The quality management plan is a component of the _____ which describes how the organization's quality policies will be implemented .
A. Project management plan
B. Program management plan
C. Project scope
D. Governance management plan
133.Manage quality is the process of :
A. Applying planned, systematic quality activities to ensure effective policing and conformance of the project team to the approved specifications.
B. Providing the project team and stakeholders with standards by which project performance is measured.
C. Translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization's quality policies into the project.
D. Assuring the implementation of appropriate specifications, which generally reduces the probability of the project being completed on schedule .
134. Cost of quality includes all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Preventing nonconformance to requirement
B. Appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements.
C. Failing to meet requirements (rework).
D. Operating computers required for the project.
135.Because of the temporary nature of projects and the potential benefits that may be derived from reducing the post-project cost Of quality, _____ may choose to invest In product quality improvement, especially in the areas of prevention and appraisal:
A. Sponsoring organizations
B. The project management team
C. The project executive management team
D. The project quality function deployment (QFD) organization
136.Control charts have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT :
A. They are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. They can be used to monitor various types of output variables.
C. They are used to illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects.
D. They are graphical displays of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.
137. In relation to control charts, what are the upper and lower specificationlimits based on?
A. The requirements, reflecting the maximum and minimum values allowed.
B. The control limits.
C. The specifications, reflecting the maximum and minimum values allowed.
D. The requirements and control limits .
138. ____ Is the process of auditing? The quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
A. Plan quality management
B. Manage quality
C. Control quality
D. Plan quality assurance
139.In using cost-benefit analysis in the Plan Quality Management process, itcan be noted that :
A. The primary benefit of meeting quality requirements is the reduced cost associated with project quality management activities.
B. The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements include less rework, higher productivity, lower costs, increased stakeholder satisfaction, and increased profitability.
C. The primary cost of meeting quality requirements is the increased rework to ensure stakeholder satisfaction.
D. Quality cost cannot be evaluated in relationship to the expected benefit of quality in a given project
140.Benchmarking involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects with all of the following characteristics EXCEPT :
A. To identify best practices and generate ideas for improvement.
B. To provide a basis for measuring performance.
C. Within the performing organization or outside of it.
D. Within the same application area but not in a different application area.
141.The basis for continuous quality improvement is the :
A. Plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle as defined by Shewhart and modified by Deming.
B. Process decision program chart (PDPC).
C. Ready-aim-fire (RAF) cycle linked by results.
D. Conceptualize-design-execute-finish (CDEF) cycle .
142.All of the following are true about affinity diagrams EXCEPT :
A. They are used to identify the key issues and the suitable alternatives to be prioritized as a set of decisions for implementation.
B. They are similar to mind-mapping techniques
C. They are used to generate ideas that can be linked to form organized patterns of thought about a problem.
D. They can be used in project management to give structure to the decomposition of scope and enhance the creation of the WBS.
143. All of the following are considerations for tailoring in Project Quality Management EXCEPT :
A. Standards are regulatory' compliance.
B. Policy compliance and auditing.
C. Continuous improvement.
D. Stakeholder management.
144. Planning quality management to identify quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements is part of the:
A. Conceptual phase.
B. Planning Process Group.
C. Project implementation phase.
D. Control Quality process .
48.Which of the following processes is included in Project Integration Management?
A. Develop project management plan.
B. Control scope definition.
C. Review scope validation.
D. Conduct procurement surveillance.
49. All of the following are characteristics of the project charter EXCEPT :
A. It formally authorizes the existence of a project.
B. Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project. The project initiator or sponsor should be at the level that is appropriate to procure funding and commit resources to the project.
C. It is used primarily to request bids for a project or a specific phase of a project.
D. It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
50.All of the following are characteristics of the Project Management Information System (PMIS) EXCEPT :
A. Automated gathering and reporting on key performance indicators (KPIs) can be part of this system.
B. It provides access to information technology (IT) software tools, such as scheduling soft ware tools, work authorization systems, and configuration management systems.
C. It is used as part of the Direct and Manage Project Work.
D. It is used by the project manager and the project management team primarily to generate presentations to key stakeholders.
51.Which of the following is NOT true about tools and techniques of Perform Integrated Change Control?
A. They include expert judgment.
B. They include change control meetings.
C. A change control board (CCB) is responsible for meeting and reviewing the change requests and approving, rejecting, or other disposition of those changes.
D. They include project plan updates.
52. You are managing a $10 million project . Which of the following is an acceptable cause for "re-baselining" this project?
A. The client has approved an addition to the scope of the project with a $150,000 budget increase and a two-week extension of the scheduled completion.
B. The contractor’s company has instituted a quality assurance program in which it has pledged to spend $1 million during the next year.
C. The productivity in the design department is lower than estimated, which has resulted in1,000 additional hours over what was budgeted and a forecasted two-week delay of the scheduled completion.
D. The engineering department of the performing organization has converted to a new $250,000 CAD system.
53. Configuration management is focused on :
A. The identification and correction of problems arising in functional areas of project implementation.
B. The specification of both the deliverables and the processes, while change control is focused on identifying, documenting, and approving or rejecting changes to the project documents, deliverables, or baselines.
C. Testing new systems.
D. Identifying, documenting, and controlling changes to the project and the product baselines, while change control is focused on the specifications of both the deliverables and the processes .
53. A change control board (CCB) is
A.A formally chartered group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal amount of changes occurs on the project.
B.A formal or an informal group of stakeholders that has oversight of project execution.
C.A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.
D.A dashboard that provides integrated information to help control changes to cost, schedule, and specifications throughout the life of the project
54.Some of the configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change Control process include all of the following activities EXCEPT:
A. Identification and selection of a configuration item to provide the basis for which the product configuration is defined and verified, products and documents are labeled, changes are managed, and accountability is maintained.
B. Monitoring changes in resource-leveling heuristics to ensure efficient resource utilization throughout the life cycle of the project.
C. Configuration status accounting, in which information is recorded and reported as to when appropriate data about the configuration item should be provided.
D. Configuration verification and configuration audits that ensure that the composition of a project’s configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered, assessed, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented.
56.Actions and activities necessary to transfer the project's products, services,or results to the next phase or to production and/or operations are add ressed:
A. As part of the Close Project or Phase process.
B. Following the plan outlined in the Quality Management process.
C. As requested by senior executives.
D. As the last step in project management.
57.Outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process include all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Change requests.
B. Project management plan updates.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Final product, service, or result transition.
58. All of the following are inputs to Manage Project Knowledge EXCEPT :
A. Deliverables.
B. Knowledge management.
C. Lessons learned register.
D. Project management plan.
59.All of the following are Knowledge Management tools and techniques EXCEPT:
A. Discussion forums.
B. Storytelling.
C. Work shadowing and reverse shadowing.
D. Regression analysis.
60.Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The causes of issues.
B. Updates of the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements.
C. Reasoning behind the corrective action chosen.
D. Other types of lessons learned about communications management .
61.All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT:
A. It enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement.
B. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
C. It can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the project.
D. It is not related to the project management plan .
62. Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. All of the following are true about this process EXCEPT :
A. The project's success is directly influenced by active stakeholder involvement in the discovery and decomposition of needs into requirements and by the care taken in determining, documenting, and managing the requirements of the product, service, or result of the project.
B. Requirements become the foundation of the WBS. Cost, schedule, quality planning ,and sometimes procurement are all based upon these requirements.
C. The development of requirements begins with an analysis of the information contained in the project charter, the risk register, and the stakeholder engagement plan.
D. Requirements need to be elicited, analyzed, and recorded in enough detail to be included in the scope baseline and to be measured once project execution begins.
63.You are involved in collecting requirements for your project. You are likely to use the stakeholder register for all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Identifying stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements.
B. Capturing major requirements that stakeholders may have for the project.
C. Capturing main expectations that stakeholders may have for the project.
D. Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key stakeholders
64. You are developing a document that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them to help ensure that each requirement adds business value and to manage changes to the product scope This is known as the :
A. Configuration management system.
B. Business case.
C. New product development matrix.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.
65. An output of the Define Scope process
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
C. Project scope statement.
D. Scope and schedule delays control plan.
66. All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT
A. It is an output of the Validate Scope process.
B. It describes, in detail, the project’s deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables.
C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
D. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations .
78. In rolling wave planning :
A. Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
B. The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whereas the work in the future is planned at a higher level.
C. The work far in the future is planned in detail for work packages that are at a low level of the WBS.
D.A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS deliverables and project milestones are achieved.
79. The precedence diagramming method (PDM)is :
A.A technique in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.
B.A method that uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
C.A time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM), and shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
D. More accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties about the durations of project activities .
80. The duration of the activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT :
A. The estimated activity resource requirements
B. The types of resources assigned to the activity
C. The availability of the resources assigned to the activity.
D. Using the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for scheduling activities instead of using the critical path method (CPM).
81.A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources is called
A. Crashing.
B. Program evaluation and review technique (PFRT).
C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM).
D. Fast tracking .
82. The "fast tracking" method of schedule compression involves :
A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the project earlier than originally planned.
B. Performing in parallel for at least a portion of their duration activities or phases that are normally done in sequence, which may result in rework and increased risk.
C. Going on a “mandatory overtime schedule” to complete the project on schedule or earlier if possible.
D. Assigning “dedicated teams” to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives.
83. An example of a mandatory dependency is :
A.A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area.
B.A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.
C. On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been built.
D. On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all project requirements .
84. Inputs to the Define Activities process are :
A. Schedule management plan, work breakdown structure, project schedule, and net work diagram
B. Project schedule, resource estimates, progress reports, and change requests.
C. Scope management plan, project network diagram, constraints, and assumptions.
D. Schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
85. For project scheduling, bar charts show :
A. The level of effort for an activity.
B. Availability of resources assigned to perform project activities.
C. Activity start and end dates, as well as expected durations.
D. Relative priority of activities .
86. The precedence diagramming method (PDM)shows :
A. Various levels of the work breakdown structure.
B. Activities likely to be involved in project integration and resource allocation processes.
C. The logical relationships that exist between activities.
D. The project completion date based on normal resource availability.
87. The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:
A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to- start.
B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.
C. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary- to-secondary, finish-to-finish .
88. All of the following are true about resource leveling EXCEPT :
A. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
B. It can often cause the original critical path to change.
C. It is used to develop a resource-based WBS
D. It is a resource optimization technique that can be used to adjust the schedule model due to demand and supply of resources.
89. As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead:
A. Directs a delay in the successor activity.
B. Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time.
C. Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
D. Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous activityis completed.
90. three-point estimating uses :
A. An optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimate to calculate the estimate.
B. The weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate the expected duration of the activity.
C. Dummy activities to represent logic links among three or more activities.
D. Free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.
91. Analogous duration estimating is :
A. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project.
B. A bottom-up estimating technique.
C. Based on multiple duration estimating.
D. Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgment is used .
92.Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity :
Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks.
Most likely (tM) = 5 weeks.
Pessimistic (tP) = 9 weeks.
Using the beta distribution and the three- point estimating approach, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:
A.4.0weeks.
B.4.5weeks.
C.5.5weeks.
D.6.5weeks
93. Consider the following information about the duration of an activity :
Calculated expected (tE) = 5 weeks.
Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks.
Pessimistic (tP) = 8 weeks.
Using the beta distribution and the three- point estimating approach, the Most likely (tM) activity duration is:
A.4.0weeks.
B.4.5weeks.
C.5.0 weeks.
D.6.0weeks.
94. Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity :
Optimistic (tO) = 6 weeks.
Most likely (tM) = 9 weeks.
Pessimistic (tP) = 15 weeks.
Using the triangular distribution, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:
A.10.0weeks.
B. 10.5 weeks.
C.11.5weeks.
D.12.0weeks.
95. An activity in a project network has the following characteristics :ES=5,E= 10, and LF = 14.
Therefore, LS .=
A. 9.0 weeks.
B.10.0weeks.
C. 11.0weeks.
D.12.0weeks .
96. An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 12, EF = 22,and LS 14. ES and LS relate to the beginning of the week, whereas EF relates to the end of the week . The duration of the activity is :
A.8.0weeks.
B.11.0weeks.
C.12.0weeks.
D.14.0weeks.
97."Crashing" in schedule management is :
A.A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.
B.A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally done in sequence are performed in parallel.
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path
D. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.
98. The critical path in this network is :
A. A-B-C.
B. A-B-D.
C. A-C-D.
D. A-B-C-D.
99.The free float for activity C is :
A. A.+4.
B. +2.
C. 0.
D. -2.
100.The Control Schedule process for a project :
A. Focuses on starting the project earlier than scheduled to help mitigate schedule risk and to achieve the approved schedule baseline.
B.Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and managing changes to the schedule baseline.
C.Is concerned mainly with activities that are on the critical path.
D. Should focus primarily on activities that are difficult to carry out.
23.A primary function of a project management office (PMO) is to support project managers in a variety of ways, which may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Intervening in project execution directly and without involving the project manager.
B. Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO.
C. Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and standards.
D. Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight .
30. The interaction of the various system components creates the organizational culture and capabilities that are important for projects. Which role is typically responsible for establishing the system?
A. Organization's management.
B. Project sponsor.
C. Project manager.
D. Project team.
32. Which of the following best describe management elements?
A. Management elements are the components that comprise the key functions or principles of general management in the organization.
B. Management elements are the project management principles that guide how projects are executed in the organization.
C. Management elements are established by PMOs to guide project implementation.
D. Management elements are influenced by the governance framework, established for effective implementation of projects.
21. Enterprise environmental factors refer to both internal and external environmental factors that surround or influence a project's success. All of the following are true about these factors EXCEPT :
A. Enterprise environmental factors include organizational culture, structure, and processes.
B. Enterprise environmental factors include government or industry standards, such as regulatory agency regulations, codes of conduct, product standards, quality standards, and workmanship standards.
C. Enterprise environmental factors include information technology software(e.g., an automated tool, such as a scheduling software tool, a configuration management system, an information collection and distribution system, or web interfaces to other online automated systems).
D. Enterprise environmental factors exclude personnel administration functions(e.g., staffing and retention guidelines, employee performance reviews and training records, and time tracking) because these are considered to be functions of the human resources department .
22.The types of project management office (PMO) structures in organizations include all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Supportive PMOs that provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best practices, training, access to information, and lessons learned from other projects.
B. Controlling PMOs that provide support and require compliance through various means.
C. Harmonizing PMOs that strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among project team members.
D. Directive PMOs that take control of the projects by directly managing the projects.
24.All of the following are potential information in organizational knowledge repositories EXCEPT :
A. Metrics used to collect and make available measurement data on processes and products.
B. Configuration management.
C. Tacit knowledge of previous projects such as project performance data and lessons learned.
D. Issue and defect management data.
25. All of the following are external environmental factors EXCEPT :
A. Legal restrictions.
B. Organizational values and principles.
C. Competitive movements.
D. Economic conditions .
26. Organizational process assets(OPAs) influence the management of projects. Which one of the following best describes the important categories of OPAs?
A. Organizational knowledge bases and processes
B. Processes, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques.
C. Organizational knowledge bases, processes, policies, and procedures.
D. Organizational knowledge bases, tools, and techniques.
27.The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during project initiation and planning include all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Preapproved supplier list.
B. Traceability matrices.
C. Tailoring guidelines for project management processes and procedures.
D. Product and project life cycles, and methods and procedures.
28.The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during Executing, Monitoring, and Controlling include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Change control procedure.
B. Issue and defect management procedures.
C. Resource availability control and assignment management.
D. Project closing guidelines.
29. Projects operate within the constraints imposed by the organization through their structure and governance framework. The system factors include all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Management elements.
B. Governance framework.
C. Organizational structure types.
D. Project management processes .
31.Governance is the framework within which authority is exercised in organizations. This framework includes all of the following components EXCEPT:
A. Rules.
B. Policies.
C. Techniques.
D. Relationships .
