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WorksheetsQMS One Marks
Total questions: 111
Worksheet time: 56mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
When a product or service fulfils the customer expectations and satisfies the customer without any defect or failure is called _________________.
a)
Quality
b)
Quantity
c)
Product
d)
Process
e)
Quality
2.
Which one of these is not a component of quality?
a)
Reliability
b)
Durability
c)
Acceptance sampling
d)
Serviceability
e)
Acceptance sampling
3.
When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality, and value-based price are met or exceeded, _________ is created.
a)
Customer satisfaction
b)
Planning excellence
c)
A quality rift
d)
A value line
e)
Customer satisfaction
4.
Quality conveys the impression what consumer expect from the product. It includes _________________
a)
Performance, Competitive Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Different varieties
b)
Performance, Competitive Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Quantity
c)
Poor Performance, Competitive Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Quantity
d)
Poor Performance, High Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Quantity
e)
Performance, Competitive Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Different varieties
5.
____________ is critical to satisfying the customers and retaining their loyalty, so they continue to buy from the company in the future
a)
Product
b)
Quantity
c)
Quality
d)
Process
e)
Quality
6.
Poor quality adversely affects:
a)
Cost
b)
Productivity
c)
Profit
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
7.
The cost associated with NOT producing quality products or services is called ________
a)
Cost of Poor Quality Product
b)
Cost of Quality
c)
Cost of Mistake
d)
Cost of Poor Quality Service
e)
Cost of Quality
8.
Maintaining quality reflects in
a)
Company reputation
b)
Customer expectation
c)
Reduction in inspection cost
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
9.
Quality of a product can be measured in terms of
a)
Performance
b)
Reliability
c)
Durability.
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
10.
Dr.Edward Deming developed ____________ Cycle
a)
TQM
b)
Fish bone
c)
PDCA
d)
Pie
e)
PDCA
11.
The ______is an iterative model developed by W. Edwards Deming composed of four functional elements: plan, do, study(check), and act
a)
Deming's wheel
b)
Pareto chart
c)
SMED
d)
Pokayoke
e)
Deming's wheel
12.
Once you've identified a potential solution, test it safely with a small-scale pilot project is in ________ stage of the PDCA cycle
a)
Plan
b)
Check
c)
Do
d)
Act
e)
"Do"
13.
_____ stage is the auditing of plan’s execution and checking that, initial plan worked or not
a)
Act
b)
Analyse
c)
Check
d)
Plan
e)
"Check"
14.
Act to implement changes on a____scale if the experiment is successful
a)
Smaller
b)
Medium
c)
Larger
d)
Batch
e)
Larger
15.
A structured form of collecting and analyzing data is called as ________.
a)
Check sheet
b)
Pareto chart
c)
Stratification
d)
Fish Bone Diagram
e)
Check sheet
16.
A technique that separates data gathered from a variety of sources is called as ______
a)
Tally sheet
b)
Histogram
c)
Stratification
d)
Fish Bone Diagram
e)
Stratification
17.
______ chart prioritizes major problem based on frequency of occurrence
a)
Pareto
b)
Bar
c)
Histogram
d)
ABC chart
e)
Pareto
18.
The most commonly used graph for showing frequency distributions, or how often each different value in a set of data occurs is _______
a)
Stratification
b)
Pie
c)
Pareto chart
d)
Histogram
e)
Histogram
19.
A scatter diagram shows the_____ between two variables in a process
a)
variation
b)
effect
c)
measurement
d)
Correlation
e)
Correlation
20.
In scatter diagram, if both x-coordinates and y-coordinates increase, then it is _____ correlation.
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
Neutral
d)
No correlation
e)
Positive
21.
In scatter diagram, if both x-coordinates and y-coordinates _____, then it is positive correlation.
a)
Decreas
b)
Increase
c)
No change
d)
Varies
e)
Increase
22.
In scatter diagram, if the x-coordinates and they coordinate have one increasing and one decreasing, then it is ______correlation.
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
Neutral
d)
No correlation
e)
Negative
23.
In scatter diagram, if the x-coordinates and they coordinate have one ______ and one ____, then it is negative correlation.
a)
Decrease , decrease
b)
Increase, Decrease
c)
Increase , Increase
d)
None of the Above
e)
Increase,decrease
24.
If there seems to be no pattern, and the points looked scattered, then it is ______
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
No correlation
d)
None of the Above
e)
no correlation
25.
____ shows that when a process measure is exhibiting abnormal behavior
a)
Control Chart
b)
Pareto chart
c)
Scatter diagram
d)
Fish Bone Diagram
e)
Control Chart
26.
______is a graphical device to aid in process control.
a)
MSA
b)
Control chart
c)
Histogram
d)
Parto chart
e)
Control Chart
27.
"Power fluctuations" is an example for _______ type of causes for deviation in a process
a)
Detectable
b)
Assignable
c)
Chance
d)
None of the Above
e)
Chance
28.
"Setting changes of machine" is an example for _______ type of causes for deviation in a process
a)
Assignable
b)
Detectable
c)
Chance
d)
None of the Above
e)
Assignable
29.
_________ is a tool that helps identify, sort, and display possible causes of a specific problem or quality characteristics.
a)
Fish bone diagram
b)
Control chart
c)
Histogram
d)
Parto chart
e)
Fish bone diagram
30.
______ is a technique used to divide the data in to sub-categories or classification to provide useful insight into the problem.
a)
Stratification
b)
Brain storming
c)
Problem solving
d)
Histogram
e)
Stratification
31.
_______ is one of the New 7QC tool that organizes a large number of ideas into their natural relationships
a)
Affinity diagram
b)
Interrelationship diagram
c)
Matrix diagram
d)
PDPC
e)
Affinity diagram
32.
________ is one of the New 7QC tool that depicts the relationship among factors in a complex situation.
a)
Interrelationship diagram
b)
The process decision program chart (PDPC)
c)
Stratification
d)
Affinity diagram
e)
Interrelationship diagram
33.
_______is defined as a new management planning tool used for analyzing and displaying the relationship between data sets.
a)
A matrix diagram
b)
Interrelationship diagram
c)
The process decision program chart (PDPC)
d)
Affinity diagram
e)
A matrix diagram
34.
________ is a new management planning tool that systematically identifies what might go wrong in a plan under development.
a)
Interrelationship diagram
b)
The process decision program chart (PDPC)
c)
Stratification
d)
Affinity diagram
e)
The process decision program chart (PDPC)
35.
APQP stands for
a)
Advanced Product Quality Planning
b)
Advanced planning quality
c)
Appropriate Product Quality Planning
d)
None
e)
Advanced Product Quality Planning
36.
Advantage of APQP
a)
Improve Quality
b)
Reduce cost
c)
Minimize midway changes
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
37.
APQP have ______ phases
a)
5
b)
3
c)
2
d)
6
e)
5
38.
One of APQP Principle is
a)
Organisational commitment
b)
Effective project planning
c)
Cross functional team
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
39.
______ is a structured, phased Product Development methodology that assures Customer satisfaction
a)
PPAP
b)
APQP
c)
Quality plan
d)
TQM
e)
APQP
40.
CFT is
a)
Combination Function Team
b)
Core Function Team
c)
Cross Functional Team
d)
Carefully Formed Team
e)
Cross Functional Team
41.
Voice of customer will be considered in _____ Phase of APQP
a)
Phase 3
b)
Phase 2
c)
Phase 1
d)
Phase 4
e)
Phase 1
42.
Market research will be done in _____ Phase of APQP
a)
Phase 3
b)
Phase 2
c)
Phase 1
d)
Phase 4
e)
Phase 1
43.
Customer Inputs are the inputs for ________ phase of APQP
a)
Plan & Define
b)
Product Design and Development
c)
Process Design And Development
d)
Product and Process Validation
e)
Plan & Define
44.
Which of the following is not an output of Phase 1 (Plan & Define) of APQP
a)
Preliminary Bill of Materials
b)
Design goals
c)
Product Assurance Plan
d)
Design FMEA
e)
Design FMEA
45.
Which of the following is not an output of Phase 1 (Plan & Define) of APQP
a)
Product Assurance Plan
b)
Design For Manufacturability And Assembly
c)
Preliminary Listing Of Special Product And Process Characteristics
d)
Preliminary Process Flow Chart
e)
Design For Manufacturability And Assembly
46.
Which of the following is not an input in Phase 1 (Plan & Define) of APQP
a)
Historical Warranty And Quality Information
b)
Business Plan / Marketing Strategy
c)
Customer Inputs
d)
Design Goals
e)
Design Goals
47.
Preliminary Bill Of Material are inputs for ________ phase of APQP
a)
Phase 3
b)
Phase 2
c)
Phase 1
d)
Phase 4
e)
Phase 2
48.
Preliminary Process Flow Chart are inputs for ________ phase of APQP
a)
Phase 2
b)
Phase 3
c)
Phase 1
d)
Phase 4
e)
Phase 2
49.
Which is one of core tool among 5
a)
APQP
b)
FMEA
c)
SPC
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
50.
Historical Warranty And Quality Informations are collected in ___________ phase of APQP
a)
Phase 1
b)
Phase 2
c)
Phase 3
d)
Phase 4
e)
Phase 1
51.
What is abbreviation of PPAP
a)
Part Process Approval Product
b)
Process production Approval part
c)
Production part approval process
d)
Process part approval Product
e)
Production Part Approval Process
52.
If a part get interim approval,what condition must be followed
a)
Timing base
b)
Quantity base
c)
Resubmission part
d)
Corrective action plan
53.
What kind PPAP Submission need for level 3
a)
Warrant only
b)
Warrant with product sample and complete supporting data submitted to customer
c)
Warrant and other requirements as defined
d)
Warrant With product sample and complete support data revies at supplie location
e)
Warrant with product sample and complete supporting data submitted to customer
54.
When PPAP required?
a)
Anytime a new part of change to an existing part or process is being planned.
b)
Engineering change
c)
No change in Process
d)
Operator quantity change
e)
Anytime a new part of change to an existing part or process is being planned
55.
The production part approval process (PPAP) is a standardized form of documentation used primarily in-- Industries
a)
Automotive industry
b)
Electronics Industry
c)
Software Industry
d)
All the above
e)
Automotive industry
56.
PPAP is an output of Phase 4 (Product and Process Validation) of
a)
APQP
b)
SORP
c)
PPAP itself
d)
SPC
e)
APQP
57.
PPAP ensures risk is ------ through effective change control.
a)
minimized
b)
Maximised
c)
Neutral
d)
All the above
e)
minimized
58.
PPAP is effective for---
a)
Production of new product planned
b)
Production of new part planned
c)
Significant change for product
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
59.
PPAP process helps to put the reporting of activities and their results into a ----- format.
a)
structured and consistent
b)
Only structured
c)
Only consistently
d)
None
e)
structured and consistent
60.
PPAP confirms the production process to produce products that consistently fulfill requirements of ---
a)
Customer
b)
Supplier
c)
Both
d)
None
e)
Customer
61.
SPC stands for
a)
Statistical Process Control
b)
Statistical Process Concept
c)
Statistics Products Control
d)
Stratification Process Control
e)
Statistical Process Control
62.
Statistical Process Control is used to
a)
Measure the process
b)
Monitor the process
c)
Control the process
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
63.
Use of Statistical Process Control is
a)
Improvement in Quality
b)
Improvement in Efficiency
c)
Cost reduction
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
64.
_____helps companies to move towards prevention-based quality control instead of detection based quality controls.
a)
SPC
b)
APQP
c)
PPAP itself
d)
All the above
e)
SPC
65.
Statistical tools are used to _____
a)
Analyse data
b)
make inferences about process behavior
c)
make appropriate decisions.
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
66.
The object of a statistical process control (SPC) system is to
a)
eliminate natural variation.
b)
provide a signal when assignable variations are present
c)
assess the customer expectations.
d)
provide a signal when natural variations are present.
e)
provide a signal when natural variations are present.
67.
A customer service hotline has received an average of 7 complaints a day for the last 25 days. What type of control chart should be used to monitor this hotline?
a)
R-Chart
b)
X-bar chart
c)
C-Chart
d)
P-Chart
e)
C-Chart
68.
Statistical process control chart is used to visualize ----- within boundaries over a period of <br />time set by the company.
a)
Data points
b)
Process
c)
Elements
d)
None
e)
Data points
69.
UCL is __________
a)
Ultimate Control Limit
b)
Upper control limit
c)
Upper control line
d)
Upper Control Layer
e)
Upper Control Limit
70.
One of objective of SPC is_______
a)
continuous improvement
b)
Continuous down trend
c)
Stability
d)
Cost increasing
e)
continuous improvement
71.
To anticipate failures and prevent them from happening is the objective of FMEA.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
Not at all
d)
None
e)
true
72.
Find the odd one out related to the FMEA team.
a)
Assembly engineer
b)
Manufacturing engineer
c)
Quality engineer
d)
Process variability data
e)
Process variability data
73.
Find the odd one out related to the data inputs required to prepare FMEA.
a)
Product and process specifications
b)
Reliability data
c)
Customer priority data
d)
Quality engineer
e)
Quality engineer
74.
Which of the following is not a benefit of FMEA?
a)
Increase in customer satisfaction
b)
Prioritize product/process deficiencies
c)
Maximize late changes and associated cost
d)
Document and track actions taken to reduce risk
e)
Maximize late changes and associated cost
75.
What does FMEA stand for?
a)
Failure Modes and Effects Analysis
b)
Failure Modes and Effective Analysis
c)
Failure Modes and Affective Analysis
d)
Failure Modes and Efficient Analysis
e)
Failure Modes and Effects Analysis
76.
What is abbreviation of RPN
a)
Risk Preference Number
b)
Risk Priority Number
c)
Risk prediction Number
d)
Rating for Prediction Norm
e)
Risk Priority Number
77.
According to common industry scale, what does severity ranking (S) 1 indicate?
a)
Very serious effect
b)
No effect
c)
Sometimes serious effect
d)
The value doesn’t exist
e)
No effect
78.
FMEA is a
a)
Problem solving tool
b)
Reliability improvement tool
c)
Fault finding tool
d)
Team name
e)
Reliability improvement tool
79.
The probability of a failure mode occurring due to its related cause is
a)
Severity (S)
b)
Occurence(O)
c)
Detection (D)
d)
Probability (P)
e)
Occurence(O)
80.
What are the three categories of scoring in a Process FMEA?
a)
Cause, correlation, and control
b)
Common cause, special cause, and root cause
c)
Severity, probability of occurrence, and detection
d)
Don’t know
e)
Severity, probability of occurrence, and detection
81.
____________________ is defined as a process used for controlling and checking the quality of a product to the laid quality standards.
a)
Verification
b)
Inspection
c)
Quality control
d)
Core tools
e)
Inspection
82.
Purpose of Inspection is
a)
To rate quality of product
b)
To rate accuracy of inspectors
c)
measure process capability
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
83.
Benefit of Inspection is
a)
To control quality
b)
Reduces manufacturing costs
c)
eliminate scrap loses
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
84.
Inspecting and checking of all the purchased raw materials and parts is known as ______________ Inspection
a)
Incoming
b)
Process
c)
Final
d)
None of the above
e)
Incoming
85.
Advantage of Process inspection is
a)
Preventing wastages
b)
preventing delays in assembly
c)
Both a and b
d)
None of the above
e)
Both a and b
86.
Small no of pieces & High degree of quality requires
a)
100% Inspection
b)
Sampling
c)
Random
d)
None of the above
e)
100% Inspection
87.
__________________ is an inspection procedure used to determine whether to accept or reject a specific quantity of material.
a)
100% Inspection
b)
Sampling
c)
Random
d)
None of the above
e)
Random
88.
________________ Inspection is a technique to determine whether a lot or population should be rejected or accepted on the basis of the number of defective part.
a)
100% Inspection
b)
Sampling
c)
Random
d)
None of the above
e)
Sampling
89.
Inspection reports comprises of
a)
Part name & No
b)
Tolerance value
c)
Result
d)
All the above
e)
All the above
90.
In an Inspection report, The dimension is within the limit the work piece is
a)
Rejected
b)
Accepted
c)
Reworked
d)
Scrapped
e)
Accepted
91.
____is the mother of all standards
a)
ISO
b)
QMS
c)
OHSAS
d)
ISI
e)
QMS
92.
____ is the third edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series
a)
ISO9001:1994
b)
ISO9001:2000
c)
ISO9001:2008
d)
ISO9001:2015
e)
ISO9001:2000
93.
First edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series is ____
a)
ISO9001:2000
b)
ISO9001:2008
c)
ISO9001:1994
d)
ISO9001/2/3:1987
e)
ISO9001/2/3:1987
94.
____ is the fourth edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series
a)
ISO9001/2/3:1987
b)
ISO9001:2008
c)
ISO9001:1994
d)
ISO9001:2000
e)
ISO9001:2008
95.
Fifth edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series is _____
a)
ISO9001:2008
b)
ISO9001:2015
c)
ISO9001:2000
d)
ISO9001:1994
e)
ISO9001:2015
96.
ISO9001 is standard for which system ?
a)
production
b)
pneumatics
c)
robotics
d)
quality
e)
quality
97.
____ defines the company's scope & policies with requirements of ISO9001:2015 that applies to the processes of the company
a)
process manual
b)
procedure manual
c)
quality manual
d)
work instruction
e)
quality manual
98.
process to determine value is ____
a)
measurement
b)
audit
c)
performance
d)
monitoring
e)
measurement
99.
____ is one of the 7 quality management principles of ISO9001:2015
a)
conformity
b)
improvement
c)
process
d)
policy
e)
improvement
100.
effect of uncertainty on an unexpected result is termed as ____
a)
objective
b)
organization
c)
policy
d)
risk
e)
risk
101.
to ensure effective use of resources & prevention of pollution is called ____
a)
relationship management
b)
environmental management system
c)
business management
d)
leadership
e)
environmental management system
102.
philosophy of environmental management system involves ____
a)
maintain good public relation
b)
evidence based decision making
c)
process approach
d)
competence
e)
maintain good public relation
103.
____ is the one of the step of EMS model
a)
public relation
b)
vendor certification criteria
c)
impact study
d)
technology development
e)
impact study
104.
EMS model stands for ____
a)
electronic manufacturing service
b)
environmental management system
c)
emergency medical service
d)
engineering modeling system
e)
environmental management system
105.
output of aspects & impact identification is ____
a)
check list
b)
raw material
c)
aspect, impact list
d)
waste generation
e)
aspect, impact list
106.
OHSAS ISO 45001 stands for
a)
occupational health and system analysis series 45001
b)
occupational health and safety assessment series 18001
c)
occupational health and safety assessment series 45001
d)
organisation health and safety assessment series 45001
e)
occupational health and safety assessment series 18001
107.
one of the element of OHSAS is ____
a)
organization
b)
training
c)
technology
d)
management
e)
training
108.
OHSAS aims to improve the work place safety by ____
a)
implementation of safe methods
b)
giving food to worker
c)
organizing work
d)
waste management
e)
implementation of safe methods
109.
benefit of OHSAS is ____
a)
money manage
b)
food supply
c)
profit
d)
less number of accident
e)
less number of accident
110.
OHSAS aims in ____
a)
food & shelter
b)
money & saving
c)
health & safety management
d)
profit & loss
e)
health & safety management
111.
OHSAS aims in ____
a)
food & shelter
b)
money & saving
c)
health & safety management
d)
profit & loss
e)
health & safety management
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