wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Science

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Q7. What is soil erosion?

a)

A naturally occurring process that affects all land forms

b)

Type of soil

c)

A time period

d)

The wearing away of top soil

2.
What most likely happens to soil when crops are not rotated from year to year?
a)
The soil nutrients are depleted
b)
The soil fertility increases
c)
The soil becomes more porous
d)
The soil erodes less rapidly
3.
Soil conservation includes all of the following EXCEPT_______.
a)
Desertification
b)
Contour plowing
c)
Terracing
d)
Crop rotation
4.
What soil conservation is this?
a)
Cover Crops
b)
Soil Conservation
c)
Crop Rotation
5.
What soil conservation technique is this?
a)
Crop Rotation
b)
Wind Breaks
c)
Contour Plowing
d)
No-Till Farming
6.
Which type of soil conservation strategy is being  used in this picture?
a)
windbreakers
b)
contour farming
c)
planting of vegetation
d)
terracing
7.
What do farmers call crops that they plant to cover loose soil so that it does not erode?
a)
extra crops
b)
erosion crops
c)
cover crops
d)
protective crops
8.
How can farmers prevent/slow down soil erosion?
a)
Cover their crops with a tarp 
b)
Water the soil everyday in order to weigh it down 
c)
Plant crops, plants, etc. to hold the soil in place
d)
Cut down all of the trees and crops. 
9.
Farmer Joe plowed curved rows that followed the shape of the land in order to create water breaks, what method did he use?
a)
contour plowing
b)
crop rotation
c)
subsoil preservation
d)
terrace farming
10.
Why is soil an important natural resource?
a)
soil is used to make buildings
b)
soil can grow crops
c)
soil comes from bedrock
d)
soil is full of mircobes
11.
Two methods of soil conservation in farming are
a)
reclamation and subsurface mining
b)
landscaping and nylon fencing
c)
selective harvesting and replanting
d)
contour plowing and windbreaks
12.
What type of erosion is slowed down by contour plowing and terracing?
a)
wind
b)
water
c)
air
13.
What is a solution to stop wind erosion on a farmer's field?
a)
Plow up all of the plants
b)
Build a pond
c)
plant trees and shrubs on the edge
14.

why is it important to have soil conservation

a)

save the soil

b)

prevent erosion

c)

prevent another dust bowl

d)

all of the above

15.

Why is soil is a valuable resource?

a)

is important to all living things on land

b)

contains sand and gravel

c)

is rich in decomposers

d)

has all three soil horizons

16.

What term describes the management of soil to prevent its destruction?

a)

soil exhaustion

b)

soil decomposition

c)

soil conservation

d)

soil fertility

17.
What is the indirect source of most of Earth's energy?
a)
Solar power
b)
Geothermal energy
c)
Hydroelectricity
d)
Biomass
18.
Which of the following is not an example of soil damage?
a)
Erosion
b)
Overgrazing
c)
Digging for buried treasure
d)
Mining
19.
What is the soil conservation technique in which rows of trees are planted along the edges of a field to block the wind from eroding fields and trap the soil?
a)
Terracing
b)
Cover Crops
c)
Windbreaks
d)
Conservation Plowing
20.
Which soil conservation technique helps preserve the quality of soil?
a)
Terracing
b)
Contour Plowing
c)
Conservation Plowing
d)
Cover Crops
21.
Which of the following is the way to stop soil loss by plowing fields along curves of a slope to prevent soil from washing away with the rain?
a)
Contour Plowing 
b)
Cover Crops
c)
Conservation Plowing
d)
Terraces
22.
What is conservation?
a)
Using resources only when needed
b)
Taking care of resources when not using them.
c)
Using up resources as much as possible.
d)
Using resources only when needed and taking care of resources when not needed.
23.

Which of the following is not a method to reduce soil erosion?

a)

Conservation plowing

b)

Crop rotation

c)

Contour plowing

d)

Clearing vegetation

24.

planting trees or shrubs in rows to provide shelter from the wind and to protect soil from erosion

a)

mulching

b)

matting

c)

contour farming

d)

windbreaker

25.

planting crops across or perpendicular to slopes to follow the shape of a slope of a field

a)

mulching

b)

terracing

c)

contour farming

d)

matting

26.

covering the soil with bark, wood chips, dry leaves, and other organic material, to conserve the soil

a)

matting

b)

mulching

c)

terracing

d)

planting vegetation

27.

earthy matter, fine sand, mud or the like carried by moving or running water and deposited as a sediment on the river bed

a)

erosion

b)

siltation

c)

exfoliation

d)

weathering

28.

sloped plane that has been cut into a series of successively receding flat surfaces or platforms, which resemble steps, for the purposes of more effective farming

a)

terracing

b)

planting vegetation

c)

contour farming

d)

strip cropping

29.

applying a mat or blanket made from organic material like coconut coir/fiber to the soil surface to protect against erosive forces

a)

mulching

b)

blanketing

c)

matting

d)

cropping

30.

planting of trees and grass to cover and bind the soil with their roots to prevent erosion

a)

terracing

b)

contour farming

c)

tree planting

d)

planting vegetation

31.

What are possible negative outcomes of forest being cleared to make room for farmland?

a)

Fewer trees for animal habitats

b)

Fertilizers create run-off into a nearby stream, polluting it.

c)

Less room for animals to hunt and find shelter

d)

Birds find seeds and insects on plowed fields

32.

What does a habitat provide an organism that allows it to thrive?

a)

water

b)

shelter

c)

food

d)

predators

33.

In general, human populations tend to be higher, and environmental issues tend to be worse near...

a)

coastal plains

b)

mountains

c)

valleys

d)

plateaus

34.

Finding dead fish in a body of water is an indicator of eutrophication. This means...

a)

There are not enough nutrients in the water

b)

The flow rate of water has increased

c)

There is an excess of nutrients in the water

d)

There was too much oxygen in the water

35.

How does the introduction of a non-native species affect the native wildlife?

a)

The non-native species will compete with other predators for its food

b)

The prey of the non-native species could become endangered

c)

The non-native species will cooperate with other predators

d)

The ecosystem will not likely be affected by the introduction of a non-native species.

36.

Which of the following has a positive impact on the environment? (comparatively)

a)

Coal power

b)

Solar power

c)

Landfills

d)

Recycling

37.

What are some possible negative effects of using landfills?

a)

bacteria and garbage run-off

b)

contamination of drinking water

c)

nutrients improve soil quality

d)

recycling increases

38.

Pollution and storm run-off in Richmond may end up...

a)

in the Chesapeake Bay

b)

in the Blue Ridge Mountains

c)

in the Atlantic Ocean

d)

in the Pacific Ocean

39.

What is TRUE about renewable sources of energy?

a)

Fossil fuels are an example

b)

They are better for the environment than nonrenewables

c)

Solar, wind, and hydroelectric are examples

d)

They can be replaced as quickly as they are used

e)

They will run out

40.

What is true about the conditions of a body of water undergoing eutrophication?

a)

high nutrients; low algae; low oxygen

b)

high nutrients; high algae, low oxygen

c)

low nutrients; high algae; high oxygen

d)

low nutrients; low algae; low oxygen

41.

Pollution caused by a coal factory most directly affects the...

a)

ocean

b)

soil

c)

atmosphere

d)

groundwater

42.

If Virginia's population continues to increase, what type of ecosystem will most likely be destroyed? (hint: think of what biome we are in)

a)

forest

b)

wetlands

c)

prairie

d)

marine

43.

If a river is dammed, what effect would this have on the river?

a)

The river ecosystem below the dam would be changed.

b)

The entire river ecosystem would be changed.

c)

The river ecosystem above the dam would be changed.

d)

The river ecosystem would not be changed.

44.

What happens to any forest ecosystem when the land is cleared for farming?

a)

The forest ecosystem will be destroyed.

b)

The forest ecosystem will be healthy.

c)

The forest ecosystem will be relocated.

d)

The forest ecosystem will be unaffected.

45.
If soil is permeable 
a)
water cannot flow through it
b)
water easily flows through it
c)
it contains many minerals
d)
it contains few minerals
46.
Humus is an organic material that makes up soil.  Which characteristic best indicates that soil has a high humus content?
a)
the color of the sample
b)
the mass of the sample
c)
the amount of clay in the sample
d)
the amount of rock in the sample
47.
A gardener wants to increase the ability of garden soil to retain water.  Which of these should the gardener add to the soil?
a)
coarse sand
b)
loose gravel
c)
nitrogen pellets
d)
organic material
48.
How can the type of bedrock under soil affect the characteristics of the soil? (see diagram)
a)
by preventing soil erosion
b)
by absorbing excessive rain water
c)
by contributing small rock particle to the soil
d)
by providing surface area for nutrient accumulation
49.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
50.
Soil color is closely related to its content. Which element causes soil to appear red?
a)
iron
b)
silicon
c)
calcium
d)
magnesium
51.
The diagram shows two soil samples after a heavy rainstorm.  Which property of soil is illustrated in the diagram?
a)
geographic origin
b)
relative porosity
c)
chemical composition
d)
nutrient content
52.
Which environment would most likely have rich, fertile soil?
a)
a desert plain
b)
a coastal plain
c)
a mountain peak
d)
a flood plain
53.
What most likely happens to soil when crops are not rotated from year to year?
a)
The soil nutrients are depleted
b)
The soil fertility increases
c)
The soil becomes more porous
d)
The soil erodes less rapidly
54.
Soil will pack down over time which decreases the ability of the soil to hold water.  Which animals would best help the soil hold water?
a)
earthworms making tunnels under the surface
b)
cattle making depressions with their hooves
c)
horses making trenches when they gallop
d)
sheep pulling up plants by their roots
55.
How do the nutrients necessary for plant growth get into the soil?
a)
The soil absorbs sunlight.
b)
Water filters through the soil
c)
Organic matter is decayed in the soil.
d)
The soil is exposed to air.
56.
Which property best indicates that soil contains nutrients?
a)
texture
b)
color
c)
amount of sand
d)
amount of clay
57.

Which of the following statements about how minerals are used is FALSE?

a)

Aluminum is frequently used in batteries, ammunition, glass, and ceramics.

b)

Desirable properties of metals are combined in ores.

c)

Nonmetals are used for many purposes around the world.

d)

Rubies are nonmetallic minerals prized for their beauty.

58.

Ore minerals can form in all of the following places EXCEPT

a)

at the surface of an area that was once covered by water

b)

at the bottom of a water body

c)

in fractures within rocks

d)

in a bed of hot, flowing lava

59.

Sand, gravel, and granite are examples of

a)

metallic minerals

b)

metallic elements

c)

nonmetallic minerals

d)

aluminum

60.

Which of the following describes a metallic mineral?

a)

silver

b)

a mineral that conducts electricity, has a shiny surface, and is opaque

c)

copper

d)

all of the above

61.

A company is likely to mine a site if the site

a)

is rich in minerals

b)

contains gold

c)

contains minerals that can be extracted economically

d)

does not contain gangue minerals

62.

Which of the following minerals is NOT available commercially

a)

ore minerals

b)

gangue minerals

c)

metallic minerals

d)

nonmetallic minerals

63.

___ are pure substances that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by ordinary chemical means.

a)

Minerals

b)

Compounds

c)

Crystals

d)

Elements

64.

Which of the following statements about minerals is FALSE?

a)

Minerals have a crystalline structure.

b)

Humans can create minerals to suit specific needs.

c)

Minerals are inorganic materials.

d)

Minerals cannot be liquids or gases.

65.

The following are steps a mining company is likely to follow. One step is premature (listed too soon). Which step is listed too soon?

a)

Step 1: Search for suitable mining sites.

b)

Step 2: Make a geological map of the potential site.

c)

Step 3: Take rock samples at the site.

d)

Step 4: Start mining.

66.

Which of the following would be the most economical method for subsurface mining a deposit of salt?

a)

room-and-pillar mining

b)

longwall minng

c)

solution mining

d)

quarrying

67.

In longwall mining,

a)

a network of entries is cut into seams of ore deposits

b)

ore is mined downward, layer by layer

c)

a shearer is moved back and forth across the face of the seam

d)

hot water is injected into the ore to dissolve the ore, and then air bubbles lift the ore to the surface

68.

Open pits called _______ are used to mine stone and gravel.

a)

overburdens

b)

cyanide heaps

c)

solar evaporation ponds

d)

quarries

69.

A technology that was developed in the 1850s and that used water cannons to remove gold from ancient riverbeds covered with soil is called

a)

solar evaporation

b)

hydraulic mining

c)

placer minng

d)

open-pit mining

70.

_____________ often form at bends in a river where the water flows more slowly and heavier materials are likely to settle out.

a)

Dredges

b)

Placer deposits

c)

Seams

d)

Fans

71.

Flux and slag occur in the process of

a)

smelting

b)

undersea mining

c)

placer mining

d)

hydraulic mining

72.

Which phrase best describes hydraulic mining performed int California goldfields in the 1850s?

a)

great success

b)

environmental disaster

c)

environmentally friendly

d)

clean process

73.

Which of the following mining methods would most likely be used to mine salt?

a)

room-and-pillar mining

b)

quarrying

c)

solar evaporation

d)

open-pit mining

74.
Dull, silky, waxy, pearly, and earthy are terms that best describe which property of minerals?
a)
luster
b)
color
c)
streak
d)
cleavage
75.
What mineral is the softest mineral on Moh's Hardness Scale and the main ingredient in baby powder?
a)
feldspar
b)
talc
c)
gypsum
d)
kaolinite
76.
_____________________ means that the mineral was formed by nature, not by a human or machine
a)
Naturally Occurring
b)
Inorganic Processes
c)
Solid
d)
Crystal Shape
77.
When a mineral breaks in an uneven, rough, or jagged way
a)
Luster
b)
Cleavage
c)
Hardness
d)
Fracture
78.
What is the LEAST useful way to identify a mineral?
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
color
d)
density
79.

The way in which a mineral reflects light

a)

streak

b)

luster

c)

hardness

80.

A naturally formed, inorganic solid that has a definite crystal structure

a)

Rock

b)

streak

c)

mineral

81.

The manner in which a mineral breaks along curved or irregular surfaces

a)

streak

b)

cleavage

c)

fracture

82.

A measure of the ability of a mineral to resist scratching

a)

hardness

b)

luster

c)

streak

83.

The splitting of a mineral along smooth, flat surfaces

a)

fracture

b)

cleavage

c)

hardness

84.

The color of the powder of a mineral

a)

hardness

b)

streak

c)

luster

85.

Mass divided by volume

a)

streak

b)

density

c)

hardness

86.

When we tested minerals in class, we used a nail, a penny, and our fingernail to test the ___________________ of the mineral

a)

streak

b)

hardness

87.

The _______________________ of a mineral can be metallic or nonmetallic.

a)

luster

b)

color

88.

When testing the ________________________of a mineral, we can use the white or black plate and look at the color of the powder the mineral left behind.

a)

hardness

b)

streak

89.

The scale that measures the hardness of a mineral

a)

Linear scale

b)

bathroom scale

c)

Moh's scale

90.
The color of a mineral in powder form is called the mineral's 
a)
hardness
b)
specific gravity
c)
luster
d)
streak
91.

Scientists use mineral ________________ to identify and classify minerals.

a)

pieces

b)

names

c)

properties

d)

structures

Similar Resources on Wayground

end of year science TRIVIA

86 questions

end of year science TRIVIA

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Chemical Reactions - Unit 3

90 questions

Chemical Reactions - Unit 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

1 Common Assessment 7th

89 questions

1 Common Assessment 7th

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade

APES Unit 7

91 questions

APES Unit 7

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade

Abernathy's Populations & Communities

87 questions

Abernathy's Populations & Communities

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade

Semester Review-Texas History

95 questions

Semester Review-Texas History

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Yearly Science Review

89 questions

Yearly Science Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th Grade

Semester 1: Georgia Studies Review

87 questions

Semester 1: Georgia Studies Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade