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RS Exam Part 3

Total questions: 197

Worksheet time: 2hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As you know, the composition of soil is very important in the removal of both viruses and bacteria. Which of the following soil conditions is most favorable for removal of viruses?

a)

Sand over gravel

b)

Fine loamy sand over course sand and gravel

c)

Gravel over semi-porous clay

d)

Course sand and gravel over fine sand or clay

2.

Which of the following organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

a)

Fecal streptococci

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Aerobacter aerogenes

d)

Clostridium sporulates

3.

Which of the following is not considered a satisfactory solution to the problem of chemical contamination in well systems?

a)

Abandoning the well

b)

Boiling the water

c)

Connecting to a public water system

d)

Building a new, properly constructed, drilled well

4.

Which of the following chemicals is the most widely used to destroy microorganisms?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Copper sulfate

c)

Chloramine

d)

Hydrogen sulfate

5.

Which of the following is the best method of backflow control?

a)

Air gap separation

b)

Vacuum breaker

c)

Backflow preventer

d)

Barometric loops

6.

Microscopic photosynthetic plants of the simplest forms, having neither roots, stems, nor leaves, that are associated with taste and odor, filter clogging, and other water problems are known as

a)

Yeasts

b)

Algae

c)

Protozoa

d)

Rotifer

7.

Control of infectious, intestinal diseases of humans requires

a)

Provisions of safe water supplies

b)

Proper waste disposal

c)

Personal hygiene

d)

All of the above

8.

Drinking water standards generally specify that water is safe provided that testing in a specified manner does not reveal more than an average of

a)

10 positive samples out of 100 samples taken

b)

50 coliform organisms per 100 ml

c)

1 positive sample out of 40 samples taken

d)

50 coliform organisms per 200 ml

9.

What does it mean when a body of water has a high JTU?

a)

It has a low amount of organic matter

b)

It has no bacteria

c)

No one is swimming at this time

d)

It has high turbidity

10.

The presence of which of the following is most easily identified by laboratory analysis in water contaminated by feces?

a)

Shigella dysenteriae

b)

Coliforms

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

Salmonella typhosa

11.

Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) are most commonly used to

a)

Determine the type of pollution or contamination present in natural waters

b)

Estimate the amount of dissolved oxygen in surface waters

c)

Define the strength of waste waters

d)

Determine turbidity

12.

The safe distance between a well and a waste disposal system is dependent on

a)

Chemical processes

b)

Physical processes

c)

Biological processes

d)

All of the above

13.

What is the first step in evaluating the safety of a potential water system?

a)

The frequency with which source and distribution system water samples are collected

b)

a detailed sanitary survey of the water supply

c)

The standard plate count for bacterial examination

d)

The results of a bacterial chemical examination

14.

What are examples of groundwater systems?

a)

Dug, bored, drive, drilled wells; rock, sand or earth springs; infiltration galleries

b)

Water located no deeper than 400 feet

c)

Direct municipal wastewater systems

d)

Lake, reservoir, stream, pond, river, and creek supplies

15.

What causes water hardness?

a)

High concentrations of iron

b)

Ponds, creek, or other surface water

c)

Well-water supplies that are improperly constructed, protected, or located

d)

Dissolved calcium and magnesium bicarbonates, sulfates, and chlorides

16.

What is desalination?

a)

The detection of detergents in water by laboratory examination

b)

The detection of detergents in water by laboratory examination

c)

One of the classifications for springs

d)

the conversion of seawater or brackish water to fresh water

17.

The quality of surface water depends on

a)

The use of chemicals for disinfection of drinking water

b)

The elimination of coliform organisms

c)

The watershed area drained, land use, location and sources of pollution, and the natural agencies of purification

d)

The injecting of a chlorine solution into water at its source

18.

Which of the following is not commonly used for disinfection of water?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Chlorine-ammonia compounds

d)

ozone

19.

The hydro pneumatic tank typically contains ________ of it volume as water

a)

50 percent

b)

80 percent

c)

20 percent

d)

Does not contain water only compressed air

20.

Water containing nitrates generally indicates

a)

A nearby cesspool

b)

Evidence of previous pollution

c)

A chemical leak

d)

A nearby slaughterhouse

21.

Diatomaceous earth filters

a)

Should be integrated into pressure-tank systems

b)

Can be used for public water supplies

c)

Should be augmented by chlorination

d)

Can be left unattended for long periods of time

22.

Hydrogen sulfide can be fatal at exposure of

a)

100 ppm

b)

150 ppm

c)

225 ppm

d)

300 ppm

23.

The most practical method for removing nitrates from water is

a)

Reverse osmosis

b)

Ion exchange

c)

Reverse osmosis

d)

Double reverse osmosis

24.

Which of the following is not a practical method for removal of cadmium?

a)

Ion exchange

b)

Lime softening

c)

Reverse osmosis

d)

Iron coagulation

25.

Back-siphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except

a)

Barometric loop

b)

Vacuum breakers

c)

Air gap separation

d)

Backpressure units

26.

Of the following, which is not a variable to be considered when deciding upon a safe distance between a well and a sewage disposal system?

a)

Well construction, tightness of pump connection, depth of well casing and sealing of the annual space

b)

The number of individuals utilizing the well

c)

The volume, strength, type and dispersion of the polluted material

d)

The soil structure and texture

27.

Microbial pollution travels on a short distance through

a)

Solution channels in limestone

b)

Fissured rock

c)

Dried-out, cracked clay

d)

Sandy loam or clay

28.

Typically, an abundant supply of groundwater may be yielded from

a)

Sedimentary rocks

b)

Molten rocks

c)

Igneous rock

d)

Metamorphic rocks

29.

An example of a surface water supply would be

a)

a well

b)

a rock and sand spring

c)

An earth spring

d)

a reservoir

30.

Which of the following is used to properly seal a drilled well to prevent contamination of the water supply?

a)

Epoxy

b)

Bentonite clay

c)

Grouting

d)

A rubber seal

31.

The quiescent settling of water such as would occur in a reservoir, lake or basin without the aid of chemicals is known as

a)

Plain sedimentation

b)

Coagulation

c)

Settling

d)

flocculation

32.

Which of the following is not a commonly accepted method or device to prevent back-siphonage?

a)

Vacuum breakers

b)

Cross-connections

c)

Air gap separation

d)

Back pressure units

33.

The type of filter that is recommended for use at small communities and rural places is the

a)

Rapid sand filter

b)

Pressure filter

c)

Slow sand filter

d)

Diatomaceous earth filter

34.

All of the following will generally vary directly with the quantity of water used for domestic purposes except

a)

Availability of water

b)

Habits of the people

c)

Cost of water

d)

Amount of minerals in the water

35.

Groundwater in the soil travels up through a plant's root system and then comes out from the leaf structure as

a)

Transpiration

b)

Sublimation

c)

Evaporation

d)

condensation

36.

The type of water that makes it difficult to produce suds or to rinse laundry, dishes or food equipment is

a)

Soft water

b)

Hard water

c)

Spring water

d)

Distilled water

37.

A sanitary survey of a water system is necessary for what reason?

a)

To determine the safety and the adequacy of the water supply

b)

To determine how much iron is in a water supply

c)

To determine what size pump is needed for the water system

d)

To determine whether the water in the system is hard or soft

38.

The sources of water supply are divided into which of the following classifications?

a)

Spring water and well water

b)

Groundwater and surface water

c)

Rainwater and river water

d)

Demineralized water and lake water

39.

The gas causing the distinct"rotten egg" odor in many water sources is

a)

Hydrogen sulfide

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Chlorine gas

d)

Hydrogen carbonate

40.

High concentrations of nitrates in drinking water are

a)

Detrimental to adults

b)

Considered safe to drink

c)

The cause of a blood disease in teenagers

d)

A possible cause of methemoglobinemia

41.

Turbidly of water will

a)

Interfere with proper disinfection

b)

Harbor viruses

c)

Cause tastes and odor

d)

All of the above

42.

This substance is the first product of the decomposition of organic matter. Its presence in water usually indicates "fresh pollution" of sanitary significance. What is it?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Sugar

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Hydrogen sulfide

43.

The presence of which of the following elements in water treatment plant effluent is used as a measure of filtration efficiency?

a)

Copper

b)

Aluminum

c)

Zinc

d)

lead

44.

One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay, or hardpan is

a)

Seepage of pollutants through soil

b)

Failure to seal well casings properly

c)

Porosity of the rock

d)

Use of inferior quality well casings

45.

Proper disinfection of water using chlorine depends on the concentration of chlorine plus which of the follow?

a)

Temperature of the water

b)

pH of the water

c)

Contact period

d)

All of the above

46.

Which of the following is used to control the growth of algae and protozoa?

a)

Addition of copper sulfate

b)

Aeration of the water

c)

Addition of nitrates

d)

filtration

47.

Which of the following is not used to disinfect water?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Bromine

c)

Flourine

d)

iodine

48.

Porosity is

a)

A measure of the amount of water can be held by a rock in its pores or voids, expressed as a percentage of the total volume

b)

The rate of water at 60F, in gallons per day, through a cross section of 1 ft^2 under a head of 1 ft/ft of water travel

c)

The amount of water that will drain out of saturated rock or soil by gravity

d)

The direct relationship between permeability and specific yield

49.

The presence of which of the following in water would indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

a)

Streptococcus fecalis

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

Enterococci

50.

Which of the following is a measure of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample?

a)

Formazin Turbidity Units (FTU)

b)

Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU)

c)

Jackson Turbidity Units (JTU)

d)

Lincoln Turbidity Units (LNU)

51.

In testing for residual chlorine, which of the following determines free available chlorine with minimal interference from combined chlorine, iron, nitrates, and nitrites?

a)

Leuco crystal violet method

b)

Stabilized neutral orthotolidine (SNORT) method

c)

DPD-colorimetric method

d)

DPD-titrimetric method

52.

Granular activated carbon (GAC) filters are used to

a)

Treat water for soft drinks and bottled drinking water

b)

Remove taste and odor producing compounds

c)

Remove synthetic organic chemicals (suspected carcinogens)

d)

All of the above

53.

Which of the following is (are) fundamental to the control of inorganic chemicals in drinking water?

a)

Sanitary survey

b)

Identification of the sources

c)

Determination of amounts of pollutants

d)

All of the above

54.

Often over 90% of sodium arsenate can be removed by

a)

Filtration

b)

Coagulation

c)

Ion exchange

d)

All of the above

55.

Reduction of the level of fluorides in drinking water can be accomplished by

a)

Coagulation

b)

Lime softening

c)

Ion exchange

d)

All of the above

56.

What are the fundamental steps involved in the control of organic chemicals in drinking water?

a)

Conduct sanitary surveys to identify sources, types, and amounts of pollutants

b)

Identify pollutants and select treatment methods

c)

Contact higher level regulatory authorities for consultation

d)

Upgrade water treatment plants

57.

Trihalomethanes are synthetic organic chemicals primarily created

a)

During the coaulation process

b)

During the pre-chlorination process

c)

During reverse osmosis

d)

During post-chlorination process

58.

The langelier index is used to determine the point of stability of

a)

Aluminum sulfate

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Water pH

d)

HOC1

59.

A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered by

a)

Wind

b)

Electricity

c)

Water

d)

heat

60.

A well casing should be equipped with a cent and installed

a)

With a sampling tap

b)

In a pit to prevent freezing

c)

With a turbine type pump

d)

With concrete used as grout

61.

Backflow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by

a)

Backpressure

b)

Back-siphonage

c)

Vacuum in the volume

d)

A and b above

62.

Which of the following statements is (are) true?

a)

All surface water must be considered unsanitary unless given adequate treatment

b)

All groundwater supplies may be considered safe as a potable water supply

c)

When considering surface water as a water supply, the entire watershed must be surveyed

d)

When considering surface water as a water supply, the entire watershed must be surveyed and All surface water must be considered unsanitary unless given adequate treatment

63.

Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the presence of coliform organisms in drinking water?

a)

The drinking water may also be used as a varnish remover

b)

The drinking water should be considered unsanitary

c)

The drinking water does not contain toxic chemicals

d)

All of the above

64.

When using presettling reservoirs to eliminate heavy turbidity or pollution before treatment, what is the desirable retention time?

a)

8 hour

b)

1 week

c)

2 to 3 days

d)

1 month or longer

65.

If sufficient amounts of activated carbon in the powdered form are used, practically all tastes and odors are removed from water by

a)

Absorption

b)

Polymerization

c)

Adsorption

d)

oxidation

66.

It has been estimated that waterborne disease worldwide accounts for in excess of

a)

250 million illnesses per year

b)

20 million illnesses per year

c)

150 million illnesses per year

d)

400 million illnesses per year

67.

Residential cesspool and septic tank soil absorption systems discharge

a)

400 million gallons of sewage into the ground each year

b)

800 billion gallons of sewage into the ground each year

c)

800 million gallons of sewage into the ground each year

d)

2 billion gallons of sewage into the ground each year

68.

In a test conducted in North Carolina by the PHS in sandy soil, ewage organisms traveled

a)

Only 10 feet

b)

450 feet

c)

In excess of 200 feet

d)

1,200 feet

69.

Hardness in drinking water is desirable at levels of

a)

80 to 150 mg/l

b)

50 to 80mg/l

c)

0 to 50mg/l

d)

0 to 5 mg/l

70.

Alkalinity of water is desirable at levels of

a)

0 to 30 mg/l

b)

0 to 500 mg/l

c)

30 to 100 mg/1

d)

0 to 5 mg/l

71.

Which of the following would be classified as a non-transient, non-community water system (NTNCWS)?

a)

water supply serving a campground

b)

Water supply serving a small city

c)

Water supply serving a highway rest area

d)

water supply serving a factory with at least 25 employees

72.

A water system serving one apartment building with three apartments, having a total of six residents is a Public Water Supply (PWS).

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Of the following, which are included as major regulatory requirements in the Safe Drinking Water ACt (DDWA)?

a)

Sampling

b)

Record keeping

c)

Public information

d)

A and B

e)

B and c

74.

The Primary Drinking Water Standards

a)

Apply to community water systems only

b)

Apply to community water systems and non-transient, non-community water systems

c)

Are health related and enforceable

d)

A and c

e)

B and C

75.

The maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) is the highest concentration of a contaminant that is allowable in a water system.

a)

True

b)

false

76.

Any time a MCL is exceeded the NTNCWS must give notice by continuous posting in a conspicuous location within the area served by the water system.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Which of the following is not included in the nine contaminant groups?

a)

Microorganisms

b)

Volatile organic chemicals

c)

Turbidity

d)

Lead and copper

e)

Nitrate and nitrite

78.

Which would not be classified as a sedimentary formation?

a)

Limestone

b)

Peat

c)

Olivine

d)

loess

79.

Which soil has the greatest % porosity?

a)

Silt

b)

Uniform sand

c)

Gravel

d)

sandstone

80.

When collecting bacteriological samples that have been chlorinated, what chemical is used to dechlorinate the water?

a)

Sodium sulfate

b)

Sodium thiosulfate

c)

Sodium bisulfate

d)

Sodium bisulfite

81.

What is the purpose of using a forward sweeping motion when collecting water samples from a stream or lake?

a)

Allows equal mixing of sample

b)

Prohibits contamination from sampler hands

c)

Prohibits collection of trash in the water

d)

Creates a current that will collect visible contaminants for ID

82.

Which bacterial group is indicative of fecal contamination or sewage pollution?

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

Coliforms

c)

Salmonella

d)

all

83.

Which soil condition is most favorable for removal of viruses?

a)

Sand over gravel

b)

Fine loamy sand over coarse sand and gravel

c)

Gravel over semi-porous clay

d)

Coarse sand and gravel over fine sand or clay

84.

What water constituent has been associated with staining plumbing and clothing dark brown or black?

a)

ZN

b)

MN

c)

Ag

d)

Ca

85.

Methylene Blue Active Substance (MBAS) is a test to identify:

a)

Hardness of water

b)

Iron in water

c)

Presence of detergents containing phosphates

d)

Presence of coliform bacteria

86.

In domestic water well supplies, which two elements cause most hardness?

a)

Zn and Mg

b)

Na and Mg

c)

Ca and Mg

d)

Ca and Na

87.

Which residual test for chlorine would be least desirable?

a)

Black alum

b)

Chlorinated copperas

c)

Ferric chloride

d)

Sodium hypochlorite

88.

Which organism is not know as an iron bacterium?

a)

Crenothrix

b)

Giardia lamblia

c)

Gallionella

d)

leptothrix

89.

The final product in biochemical oxidation of ammonia yields:

a)

Nitride

b)

Nitrite

c)

Nitrate

d)

nitrogen

90.

Which contaminant in water is associated with methemoglobinemia?

a)

Zinc

b)

Lead

c)

Copper

d)

Nitrate

91.

What statement concerning ozone is incorrect?

a)

Ozone residual can last several hours

b)

Ozone is faster disinfectant than chlorine

c)

Ozone is more expensive than chlorine

d)

All statements are correct

92.

Regulation of drinking water additives is the responsibility of:

a)

FDA

b)

EPA

c)

Dept of Labor

d)

PHS

93.

Which conditions indicate organic stream pollution?

a)

Water has foul odor and is turbid

b)

Fish counts decrease or disappear

c)

Increase in worms and snails

d)

all

94.

Lakes having characteristics of being clean, high in DO, deep, and receiving few nutrients:

a)

Oligotrophic

b)

Mesotrophic

c)

Euphoric

d)

Eutrophic

95.

Which organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

a)

Fecal streptococci

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Aerobacter aerogenes

d)

Clostridium sporidium

96.

Algae development will cause all

a)

Reduced water clarity

b)

Increased chlorine consumption

c)

Rapid fall in pH

d)

Slimy growth

97.

The presence of bacteria responsible for typhoid fever in a public water supply could be traced to:

a)

Fecal contamination

b)

Excessive water aeration

c)

Pus from skin lesions

d)

Rotting animal and fish remains

98.

Hydrogen sulfide can be fatal at an exposure of

a)

100 ppm

b)

150 ppm

c)

225 ppm

d)

300 ppm

99.

Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through

a)

Solution channels in limestone

b)

Fissured rock

c)

Dried out, cracked clay

d)

Sandy loam or clay

100.

The substance commonly used as a coagulant in water treatment is:

a)

Aluminum sulfate

b)

Calcium sulfate

c)

Potassium chloride

d)

Sodium phosphate

101.

A sample of water taken for bacteriological analysis is usually packed in ice, if the sample cannot be analyzed immediately. The main reason for this procedure is to retard changes in the:

a)

Amount of oxygen dissolved in the water

b)

Mineral content of the water

c)

Number of bacteria in the water

d)

pH of the water

102.

Alkalinity exists in three forms. Which is not one of these forms?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

Hydroxide

c)

Carbonate

d)

hypochlorite

103.

Which of the following compounds would not contribute to water hardness?

a)

Calcium sulfate

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Calcium chloride

d)

Sodium chloride

104.

Historically in the US, most of the impetus for adequate water treatment came from the need to control:

a)

Infectious hepatitits

b)

TB

c)

Malaria

d)

typhoid

105.

Which of the following chemicals that can be used for the disinfection of water does not provide a residual?

a)

Iodine

b)

Bromine

c)

Ozone

d)

chlorine

106.

Aeration is advantageous in the treatment of water containing:

a)

Phosphorus and manganese

b)

Dissolved iron and manganese

c)

Magnesium and iron

d)

Phosphorus and iron

107.

Masonry reservoirs of rural water supplies are called:

a)

Leaching pits

b)

Cisterns

c)

Cesspool

d)

Seepage pits

108.

The liquid form of chlorine used for emergency disinfection of small volumes of

a)

Calcium hypochlorite

b)

Sodium hypochlorite

c)

Bromide hypochlorite

d)

Potassium hypochlorite

109.

If you had to rely on only one of the following to determine the safety of a drinking water supply, which on would choose?

a)

Three consecutive samples showing no coliform

b)

No chlorides or nitrates in the water

c)

Watershed area remote and isolated

d)

Sanitary survey of supply (source, equipment, etc.)

110.

The general type of subsurface formation in which groundwater contamination is likely to travel the farthest is:

a)

Clay

b)

Granite

c)

Limestone

d)

gravel

111.

The presumptive evidence of the presence of coliform in the MPN test is:

a)

The color change in the culture media

b)

Turbidity of the culture broth

c)

The Presence of gas from the fermentation of the media

d)

Metallic sheen on colonies

112.

If a series of three consecutive water samples from one supply all showed the presence of E.coli when each sample was run through presumptive, confirmed, and completed tests, the most logical interpretation would be:

a)

The supply was possibly exposed to human fecal contamination

b)

The samples were probably collected in dirty bottles

c)

The sample bottles may have had sodium thiosulfate in them

d)

The lab technician stuck his thumb in the samples, or had contaminated media

113.

In the bacteriological analysis of water a positive completed test is definite proof that the sample of water:

a)

Was polluted with human fecal material and would be unsafe to drink

b)

Contained enteric pathogens and would be unsafe to drink

c)

Was not sterile, but safe to drink

d)

Contained coliform bacteria and may be unsafe to drink

114.

If hard water is softened by the ion exchange method, which one of the following will increase?

a)

Dissolved oxygen

b)

Iron

c)

P1-1

d)

sodium

115.

The proper method of obtaining a sample of tap water for bacteriological analysis is to collect the sample from a tap that has:

a)

Been opened for 2-3 minutes, holding the sample bottle by the neck and filling it to about an inch from the top

b)

Been opened for 2-3 minutes, holding by the base and filling it to about an inch from the top

c)

Been opened for 1 minute, holding the sample bottle near the neck and filling it to the top

d)

Just been opened, holding the sample bottle near the base and filling it to the top

116.

According to the Safe Drinking Water Act, the minimum number of water supply depends upon the:

a)

Daily population served

b)

Population served

c)

Area of the raw water supply

d)

Amount of water treated

117.

The type of filter that is recommended for use at small communities and rural places is the

a)

Rapid sand filter

b)

Pressure filter

c)

Slow sand filter

d)

Diatomaceous earth filter

118.

In a plumbing system, where a faucet feeds a sink, it is advisable to have the faucet situated well above the rim of the sink. Why?

a)

Interference with proper drainage of the sink

b)

Possible suction of wastewater into the supply of potable water

c)

Keep the metal of the faucet from coming in contact with the water in the sink

d)

Keep sink from overflowing

119.

One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay or hardpan is:

a)

Seepage of pollutants through the soil

b)

Failure to seal well casings properly

c)

Porosity of the rock

d)

Use of inferior quality well casings

120.

Aeration is a natural process or mechanical process which:

a)

Increases the contact between air and water

b)

Improves the physical and chemical characteristics of water

c)

Both

d)

neither

121.

The main function of a sand filter is to:

a)

Remove tastes and odors

b)

Remove solids

c)

Remove dissolved material

d)

Remove bacteria

122.

The gases frequently found in water that encourage corrosion are

a)

Methane and oxygen

b)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Chlorine and carbon dioxide

d)

Methane and hydrogen sulfide

123.

Ozone is effective against

a)

Amoebic cysts

b)

Bacteria and phenols

c)

Viruses

d)

all

124.

A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered by

a)

Wind

b)

Electricity

c)

Water

d)

Heat

125.

The manner in which water moves from place to place, changing from one form to another is called the

a)

Evaporation cycle

b)

Hydrologic cycle

c)

Precipitation cycle

d)

Evapotranspiration cycle

126.

The process whereby water that has fallen on land finds its way back to the oceans is called:

a)

evaporation

b)

Transpiration

c)

run -off

d)

Transport

127.

The majority of fresh water is found:

a)

Groundwater

b)

Lakes

c)

Rivers

d)

streams

128.

To improve the health and living standards among Third World populations, one of the best things that could be done is:

a)

Increase their food supply

b)

Decrease the land pollution

c)

Increase the quantity of readily available safe water

d)

Decrease the rate of population growth

129.

The factor that will ultimately result in chronic water shortages is:

a)

The amount of precipitation in a region

b)

The conservation practices in a region

c)

Unchecked population size

d)

The amount of business and industry in a region

130.

For their drinking water supply, over 95% of all farm families depend on:

a)

Rivers

b)

Lakes

c)

Groundwater

d)

reservoirs

131.

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of groundwater?

a)

Most bacteria are absent

b)

Evaporation is virtually non-existent

c)

It is less expensive to treat than surface water

d)

It is more expensive to access than surface water

132.

Most cases of groundwater pollution occur in areas:

a)

Og high population

b)

Where solid waste is buried

c)

of deforestation

d)

Where there is a large animal concentration

133.

The amendments to the Safe Drinking Water Act do not cover:

a)

Municipal wells

b)

County reservoirs

c)

Private wells

d)

public water systems

134.

Degradation of groundwater supplied nu human-generated pollutants is generally the result of

a)

Failure to cover water supply

b)

Failure to adequately chlorinate the water

c)

Faulty waste disposal practices

d)

Allowing industry exceptions to safe water practices

135.

The primary reason for the decline in the water table in some groundwater dependent ares of the world is:

a)

Over pumping

b)

Lack of permeable aquifers

c)

High rate of evaporation

d)

Low rates of precipitations

136.

In the United States, saltwater intrusion into depleted aquifers is becoming a problem in:

a)

Texas

b)

Southern California

c)

North Carolina

d)

Louisiana

137.

The majority of the world's water is used in:

a)

Households

b)

Industry

c)

Agriculture

d)

Sewage disposal

138.

Perhaps the greatest potential for reducing the demand for water could result from:

a)

Better conservation practices in homes

b)

Development of recycling plants by industry

c)

Better use of technology in agricultural irrigation

d)

More use of home sewage disposal unit

139.

The easiest and least expensive way to conserve water within most households is:

a)

Limit the amount of water used in cooking

b)

Limit the amount of time in showers

c)

Reducing the amount of water used in taking tub baths

d)

Repairing leaky toilet fixtures

140.

It is estimated that installation of water saving plumbing devices in homes would have approximately

a)

100 gallons of water per day per 2-3 person household

b)

75 gallons of water per day per 2-3 person household

c)

55 gallons of water per day per 2-3 persons in household

d)

25 gallons of water per day pre-2-3 persons occupied

141.

The major problem associated with desalinization of water is:

a)

Lack of technology to do an efficient job

b)

The amount of energy required

c)

Lack of funds to expand existing facilities

d)

Apathy on the part of the public to support such efforts

142.

Xeriscape landscaping means:

a)

Using rocks as the basis for yard landscapes

b)

Eliminating the use of trees in yards for landscaping

c)

Selecting plants that can thrive on natural precipitation

d)

Using sand as the basis for all landscaping needs

143.

What is the Nation’s primary law governing the disposal of solid and hazardous waste

a)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

b)

Underground Storage Act

c)

Clean Water Act

d)

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

144.

Any garbage or refuse, sludge from a wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility and other discarded material, including solid, liquid, semi-solid, or contained gaseous material resulting from industrial, commercial, mining, and agricultural operations, and from community activities.

a)

Solid Waste

b)

Municipal Solid Waste

c)

Residual Waste

d)

Industrial Waste

145.

General waste stream generated by residences, 

businesses, and institutions

a)

Solid Waste

b)

Municipal Solid Waste

c)

Residual Waste

d)

Industrial Waste

146.

Waste generated as a result of a specific process

a)

Solid Waste

b)

Municipal Solid Waste

c)

Residual Waste

d)

Industrial Waste

147.

Waste generated as a result of

industrial or manufacturing processes

a)

Solid Waste

b)

Municipal Solid Waste

c)

Residual Waste

d)

Industrial Waste

148.

Most commonly used method in today’s landfills. Compatible with liners and gas extraction systems and is best for rolling terrain. Waste placed on the side of a slope, compacted, and covered with soil. Continues until slope is leveled

a)

Area Method

b)

Trench Method

c)

Valley or Ravine Method

d)

Composting Method

149.

Solid waste is placed inside excavated trenches until level with ground, covered with soil compacted. No longer a commonly used method. Best for level terrain

a)

Area Method

b)

Trench Method

c)

Valley or Ravine Method

d)

Composting Method

150.

Solid waste is placed in a depression, covered with dirt, compacted, and built up. No longer a commonly used method. Not compatible with Best Available Technologies

a)

Area Method

b)

Trench Method

c)

Valley or Ravine Method

d)

Composting Method

151.

Safe minimum internal temperature of Beef and Pork

a)

145

b)

165

c)

160

d)

150

152.

Safe minimum internal temperature of fish and seafood

a)

145

b)

165

c)

160

d)

150

153.

Safe minimum internal temperature of Poultry

a)

145

b)

165

c)

160

d)

150

154.

Safe minimum internal temperature of ground meats

a)

145

b)

165

c)

160

d)

150

155.

What is the safe minimum internal temperature for hot holding meat, poultry, and seafood.

a)

140

b)

145

c)

165

d)

135

156.

How long can you safely store ready to eat TCS food in a cooler at a temperature of 40°F or lower?

a)

14 Days

b)

10 Days

c)

7 Days

d)

5 Days

157.

What is the total amount of time that you should allow for cooling a hot TCS food down from 135°F to 40°F or lower, before putting it into cold storage?

a)

4 hours or less

b)

2 hours or less

c)

1 hour or less

d)

6 hours or less

158.

If a TCS food will be hot-held for service, what is the minimum internal temperature that this food must maintain while being held?

a)

140

b)

145

c)

165

d)

135

159.

These conditions are necessary for the growth of bacteria: food, acidity, temperature, time, oxygen, and moisture. What term is often used for these conditions?

a)

TCS Foods

b)

Cross-contamination

c)

FAT TOM

d)

Ready to eat foods

160.

If you will be holding a COLD food for service without temperature control, what is the maximum amount of time that the food may remain in the temperature danger zone before it must be served or thrown out?

a)

2 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

4 hours

161.

If you will be holding a HOT food for service without temperature control, what is the maximum amount of time that the food may remain in the temperature danger zone before it must be served or thrown out?

a)

2 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

4 hours

162.

Which of the following is an acceptable method for cooling hot TCS food before storage?

a)

On the counter at room temperature

b)

In the walk-in cooler

c)

In the freezer

d)

In an ice-water bath

163.

What is the "Temperature Danger Zone"?

a)

Between 40° F and 140° F

b)

Between 41° F and 135° F

c)

Between 35° F and 125° F

d)

Between 40° F and 130° F

164.

If you will be holding any food outside while the outdoor temperature is 90° F , what is the maximum amount of time that the food may remain in the temperature danger zone before it must be served or thrown out?

a)

2 hours

b)

1 hours

c)

30 Minutes

d)

4 hours

165.

What are the NAAQS for six common air pollutants

a)

carbon monoxide, lead, ground-level ozone, particulate matter, nitrogen dioxide, and sulfur dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide, lead, ozone, particulate matter, methane, and sulfur dioxide

c)

carbon dioxide, lead, ground-level ozone, particulate matter, nitrogen dioxide, and sulfur dioxide

d)

carbon dioxide, lead, ozone, particulate matter, methane, and sulfur dioxide

166.

What is the average radon level in homes

a)

1.3 pCi/L

b)

0.4 pCi/L

c)

2 pCi/L

d)

4 pCi/L

e)

None

167.

What is a safe radon level in homes

a)

1.3 pCi/L

b)

0.4 pCi/L

c)

2 pCi/L

d)

4 pCi/L

e)

None

168.

Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by

a)

lead

b)

both glass or plastic and aluminum

c)

glass

d)

aluminum

169.

Radon is detected in a home through measurement of

a)

gamma particles

b)

beta particles

c)

alpha particles

d)

UV rays

170.

The major potential entry sources of radon are

a)

cracks in concrete floors

b)

floor drains

c)

drainage sumps

d)

all of the above

171.

Muerto Canyon virus (MCV) is a hantavirus mainly carried by

a)

woodchucks

b)

beavers

c)

mice

d)

deer

172.

Which is the most ionizing & heaviest radiation?

a)

Alpha particles

b)

Beta particles

c)

Gamma particles

d)

None of the above

173.

Which is the least ionizing & fastest radiation?

a)

Alpha particles

b)

Beta particles

c)

Gamma particles

d)

None of the above

174.

What charge does a Beta particle have?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

None of the above

175.

What charge does an Alpha particle have?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

None of the above

176.

Which would be the most damaging radiation if it found a way inside the human body?

a)

Alpha particles

b)

Beta particles

c)

Gamma particles

d)

None of the above

177.

Which type of radiation is most likely to get inside our body from the outside and cause damage?

a)

Alpha particles

b)

Beta particles

c)

Gamma particles

d)

None of the above

178.

Which type of radiation is least likely to harm the human body?

a)

Alpha particles

b)

Beta particles

c)

Gamma particles

d)

None of the above

179.

7 HACCP Principles in order

a)

1. Conduct a Hazard Analysis 2. Determine Critical Control Points 3. Establish Critical Limits 4. Establish Monitoring Procedures 5. Establish Corrective Actions 6. Establish Verification Procedures 7. Establish Recordkeeping and Documentation Procedures

b)

1. Determine Critical Control Points 2. Conduct a Hazard Analysis 3. Establish Monitoring Procedures 4. Establish Critical Limits 5. Establish Corrective Actions 6. Establish Verification Procedures 7. Establish Recordkeeping and Documentation Procedures

180.

What are the three kinds of rock

a)

Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic

b)

Andesite, Basalt, Granite

c)

Sand, Silt, Clay

d)

Igneous, sedimentary, sand

181.

What type of rock is limestone

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Sand

182.

What type of rock is sand

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Graphite

183.

What type of rock is silt

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Graphite

184.

What type of rock is clay

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Graphite

185.

What are the three main particles sized found in mineral soils?

a)

Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic

b)

Andesite, Basalt, Granite

c)

Sand, Silt, Clay

d)

Igneous, sedimentary, sand

186.

The smallest soil particle is; platy, flat, not good for distributing water

a)

Clay

b)

Gravel

c)

Silt

d)

Sand

187.

A mixture of different soil particles

a)

Sediment

b)

Gravel

c)

Loam

d)

Sand

188.

What type of mosquitoes are the carriers of many viral diseases including Zika, dengue, chikungunya, yellow fever, and Rift Valley disease.

a)

Aedes

b)

Culex

c)

Anopheles

d)

Triseriatus

189.

They are the main type of mosquito that spread Zika, dengue, chikungunya, and other viruses.

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex pipiens

d)

Anopheles sinensis

190.

List all mosquitoes that spread chikungunya.

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex pipiens

d)

Anopheles quadrimaculatus

e)

Culex quinquefasciatus

191.

List all mosquitoes that spread dengaue.

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex pipiens

d)

Anopheles quadrimaculatus

e)

Culex quinquefasciatus

192.

List all mosquitoes that spread zika

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex pipiens

d)

Anopheles quadrimaculatus

e)

Culex quinquefasciatus

193.

List all mosquitoes that spread La Crosse (LAC)

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex pipiens

d)

Aedes triseriatus

e)

Culex quinquefasciatus

194.

List all species of mosquitoes that carry Rift Valley Fever (RVF)?

a)

Aedes

b)

Culex

c)

Anopheles

195.

Which mosquito causes West Nile Virus (WNV)?

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex pipiens

d)

Aedes triseriatus

e)

Culex quinquefasciatus

196.

Which mosquito primarily causes yellow fever?

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Aedes albopictus

c)

Culex pipiens

d)

Aedes triseriatus

e)

Culex quinquefasciatus

197.

Which genus of mosquito carry malaria.

a)

Aedes

b)

Culex

c)

Anopheles

d)

Triseriatus

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