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Chronic Kidney Disease-Heeter

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is an important counseling point when starting a patient on cinacalcet therapy?

a)

Take with food

b)

Take on an empty stomach

c)

Take in the morning

d)

Take in the evening

2.

When is an ESA usually initiated in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

a)

When Hgb drops below 10g/dL

b)

After iron stores are at goal

c)

Before correcting iron stores

d)

When Hgb drops below 10g/dL AND iron stores are goal.

3.

What are common complications of CKD?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

d)

Metabolic Acidosis

4.

What electrolyte abnormalities are MOST common in patients with advanced chronic kidney disease?

a)

hypernatremia

b)

hyponatremia

c)

hyperkalermia

d)

hypokalemia

5.

What are options to supplement bicarbonate in a patient that has chronic kidney disease with chronic metabolic acidosis?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Alkalinizing salts

c)

Citrate/citric acid preparations

d)

Calcitriol

6.

What are the K/DOQI recommendations for dietary phosphate in a patient with uncontrolled secondary hyperparathyroidism?

a)

800-1000mg/day

b)

400-800mg/day

c)

1000-1200mg/day

d)

600-800mg/day

7.

When should the K/DOQI recommendation of dietary phosphate restriction be implemented in a patient with secondary hyperparathyroidism?

a)

for most patients with stage 3,4 and 5 CKD

b)

when serum phosphorous reaches ~4.5mg/dL

c)

for most patients with early stage CKD

d)

when serum phosphorous falls below ~4.5mg/dL

8.

What is the goal TSat for a patient with Stage IV CKD on hemodialysis?

a)

>20%

b)

<20%

c)

>30%

d)

<30%

9.

Which vitamin D supplements requires activation in the kidney?

a)

Ergocalciferol

b)

Cholecalciferol

c)

Calcitriol

d)

Paricalcitol

e)

Doxercalciferol

10.

What are initiation factors for chronic kidney disease?

a)

Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Hypertension

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Proteinuria

11.

What are progression factors for chronic kidney disease?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Uncontrolled hypertension

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Proteinuria

12.

Hypotension, allergic reactions, injection-site reactions, and headaches are potential side effects of:

a)

Oral iron supplementation

b)

IV iron supplementation

c)

Oral vitamin D supplementation

d)

IV vitamin D supplementation

13.

Constipation, nausea, and abdominal cramping

are potential side effects of:

a)

Oral iron supplementation

b)

IV iron supplementation

c)

Oral vitamin D supplementation

d)

IV vitamin D supplementation

14.

A patient is currently taking ferrous sulfate 325mg PO TID. How much elemental iron is the patient receiving per day?

a)

65mg

b)

195mg

c)

450mg

d)

975mg

15.

What is the mechanism of lanthanum in the management of hyperphosphatemia?

a)

Phosphate-binding agent

b)

Diuretic

c)

Calcimimetic therapy

d)

Vitamin D supplementation

16.

What is the goal protein restriction for a patient weighing 90kg with stage IV CKD (eGFR = 20 ml/min/1.73 m2)?

a)

90g/day

b)

72g/day

c)

117g/day

d)

81g/day

17.

What is the goal hemoglobin for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

a)

11g/dL

b)

4g/dL

c)

21g/dL

d)

15g/dL

18.

What is the goal blood pressure for patients with chronic kidney disease?

a)

<120/80 mmHg

b)

<110/70 mmHg

c)

<140/80 mmHg

d)

<130/70 mmHg

19.

Which agents may be used to reduce the degree of proteinuria in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

a)

ACEI

b)

ARB

c)

Diuretic

d)

dihydropyridine CCB

20.

What urine albumin to creatinine ratio is consistent with microalbuminuria?

a)

30-299 mcg/mg

b)

<30 mcg/mg

c)

>299 mcg/mg

d)

<20 mcg/mg

21.

A patient with ESRD is on intermittent hemodialysis. During his dialysis session today, he becomes severely hypotensive. What is the most appropriate treatment for his current state?

a)

fluid

b)

decrease filtration rate

c)

vitamin E

d)

midodrine

22.

What are benefits of CRRT over intermittent hemodialysis?

a)

Less risk of fluid overload

b)

Less hypotension

c)

Removes solutes with lower MWs

d)

More fluid and therapeutic drug dosing allowed

23.

What are disadvantages of CRRT over intermittent hemodialysis?

a)

risk of bleeding

b)

limited mobility

c)

removes solutes with higher MWs

d)

anticoagulation

24.

What is the most common complication of peritoneal dialysis?

a)

peritonitis

b)

hernia

c)

back pain

d)

decreased appetite

25.

What is the preferred method of hemodialysis access?

a)

Arteriovenous fistula

b)

Catheter

c)

Arteriovenous graft

26.

Stage 1 CKD ≥ (a)   mL/min (enter numbers only)

27.

Stage 2 CKD (a)   mL/min (enter number range only)

28.

Stage 3 CKD (a)   mL/min (enter number range only)

29.

Stage 4 CKD (a)   mL/min (enter number range only)

30.

Stage 5 CKD < (a)   mL/min (enter numbers only)

31.

T/F Patients with normal renal function may still have CKD if there is evidence of structural damage to the kidney.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What is first line medication treatment for diabetic CKD when GF is >30 ?

a)

Metformin

b)

SGLT2i

c)

GLP-1

d)

DPP-4i

33.

What is first line treatment of HTN in CKD?

a)

ACEI

b)

ARB

c)

Diuretic

d)

CCB

34.

T/F Patients should start with high dose of and ACEI/ARB and decrease at 4-week intervals to control proteinuria.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

T/F KDIGO guidelines provide recommendations for hypertension for CKD patients not on HD

a)

True

b)

False

36.

How would you adjust ESA dosing for a patient whose Hgb increases less than 1g/dL over 4 weeks?

a)

Increase ESA dose by 25%

b)

Decrease ESA dose by 25%

c)

No adjustment

d)

Discontinue ESA

37.

How would you adjust ESA dosing for a patient whose Hgb increases more than 1/dL over 2 weeks?

a)

Increase ESA dose by 25%

b)

Decrease ESA dose by 25%

c)

No adjustment

d)

Discontinue ESA

38.

What is the most common adverse event reported for ESA therapy?

a)

Headache

b)

Nausea

c)

Vomiting

d)

Hypertension

39.

__________ decreases reabsorption of phosphate in the kidney and increases intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate

a)

Aluminum

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Ferrous sulfate

d)

Magnesium

40.

Which oral calcium product is preferred for correcting calcium and phosphorous?

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Calcium citrate

c)

Calcium acetate

d)

Calcium chloride

41.

What is the K/DOQI recommendation for total dose of elemental calcium?

a)

Not to exceed 1500mg/day

b)

Not to exceed 5000mg/week

c)

Not to exceed 2500mg/day

d)

Not to exceed 1000mg/day

42.

Which of the following is a non-elemental phosphate binder?

a)

Lanthanum

b)

Sevelamer

c)

Magnesium

d)

Aluminum

43.

Iron may chelate to medication and _________ absorption.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

44.

Which of the following is associated with a decrease in mortality for HD patients?

a)

Vit D therapy

b)

Phosphate-binding therapy

c)

Calcium Supplementation

d)

Restricted protein intake

45.

T/F Starting dialysis earlier improved survival according to the IDEAL study.

a)

False

b)

True

46.

T/F Prevention of thrombosis during HD with antiplatelets/anticoagulants is NOT recommended.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

T/F UFH and Citrate solution are used for anticoagulation during CRRT

a)

True

b)

False