wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

ma review

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the part of the nervous system responsible for processing sensory information, neurological pathways and parts of the brian

(a)  

2.

before an examination how do you identify a pt

a)

pt id number and DOB

b)

phone number and eye color

c)

last name and DOB

d)

name and social security number

3.

a child,s temperature is best taken by which route

a)

rectally

b)

tympanic

c)

axillary

d)

temporal

4.

after obtaining signed consent a vaccine can be administered. what is also given to the patient

a)

VIS

b)

PPN

c)

EOB

d)

AFB

5.

when performing BP where is the stethoscope placed

a)

femoral artery

b)

radial artery

c)

carotid artery

d)

brachial artery

6.

when evacuating a building all of the following rules should be followed except for what

a)

avoid running

b)

move quickly

c)

stay to the left side of the corridor

d)

stay to the right side of the corridor

7.

What should never be used to extinguish a type 2 fire?

a)

chemicals

b)

foam

c)

water

d)

universal extinguisher

8.

When performing a venipuncture, what should be the position of the needle's bevel?

a)

up

b)

down

c)

sideways

d)

it doesn't matter

9.

When performing an oral temperature, how should the thermometer be placed?

a)

rectally

b)

across the forehead

c)

sublingual

d)

axillary

10.

Upon registering a patient, what information is NOT needed?

a)

credit card number

b)

job/occupation

c)

insurance card

d)

alternate phone number

11.

Which body system provides protection, regulation, absorption, sensation, and secretion?

a)

circulatory

b)

integumentary

c)

musculoskeletal

d)

nervous

12.

What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?

a)

70-110

b)

50-90

c)

60-100

d)

70-80

13.

Why is disposable equipment often used in healthcare settings?

a)

reduce infection

b)

increased efficiency

c)

reduced pain

d)

reduced costs

14.

What is the function of the musculoskeletal system?

a)

contractibility

b)

coercion

c)

conjunction

d)

contusion

15.

What the correct range of needle size for an infant IM injection?

a)

1/2 to 1 inch

b)

5/8 to 1 inch

c)

1-2 inches

d)

2-3 inches

16.

What is the purpose of dressings and bandages?

a)

improve bleeding

b)

comfort

c)

prevent infection

d)

prevent scratching

17.

During procedures such a wound care and specimen collection, what type of asepsis should be demonstrated?

a)

clean asepsis

b)

surgical asepsis

c)

sepsis

d)

medical asepsis

18.

What is the proper way to fit axillary crutches

a)

directly against the elbow

b)

2 inches below the axilla with the elbow at 30 degrees

c)

directly against the axilla

d)

4 inches below the axilla with the elbow at 45 degrees

19.

This is the tray used to set up the sterile field:

a)

mayo

b)

operative

c)

mustard

d)

surgical

20.

Which of the following is NOT an oral medication preparation?

a)

capsule

b)

suppository

c)

suspension

d)

tablet

21.

What injury could result from crutches that are not fit properly?

a)

headache

b)

back pain

c)

abdominal pain

d)

leg injury

22.

What is the treatment for a mild allergic drug reaction?

a)

Benadryl

b)

Tylenol

c)

Motrin

d)

Epinephrine

23.

On an EKG, this wave indicates the heart at rest:

a)

T wave

b)

Baseline

c)

P wave

d)

QRS complex

24.

A fire blanket should only be placed in a patient in what position?

a)

lying down

b)

sitting

c)

standing

d)

any position

25.

How should puddles and spills be identified?

a)

a towel

b)

a mop

c)

does not need to be marked

d)

wet floor signage

26.

This is the largest organ in the body:

a)

stomach

b)

skin

c)

lungs

d)

liver

27.

Which of the following should not be disposed of in a biohazard container?

(a)  

28.

What is the treatment for a severe allergic drug reaction?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Tylenol

c)

Benadryl

d)

Motrin

29.

Which part of an instrument is ALWAYS presented to the physician?

a)

jaw

b)

tip

c)

serrated edge

d)

handle

30.

Aftera. procdure, how long should the patient wait in the lobby before being released?

a)

30-60 minutes

b)

15-30 minutes

c)

5-10 minutes

d)

45-60 minutes

31.

When filing, which name would come first alphabetically?

a)

Jake MacDonald

b)

Frank McCorbin

c)

Alex McCrusty

d)

Alice MacDonald

32.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a CLIA waived test?

a)

HCG

b)

glucose

c)

Pap test

d)

hgb

33.

When counting respirations, how long should we observe the patient?

a)

45 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

60 seconds

d)

15 seconds

34.

What manual would the MA use to code a diagnosis?

(a)  

35.

to obtain a correct pulse rate for a patient who was counted for 30 seconds, multiply by what number?

(a)  

36.

Which of the following is NOT one of the National Patient Safety Goals?

(a)  

37.

. What is the most commonly used site for venipuncture during lab draws?

(a)  

38.

When preparing a patient for a PAP exam. what should the MA do first?

(a)  

39.

When assisting the provider DURING the procedure, what is the responsibility of the MA?

(a)  

40.

Which information is ALWAYS true concerning the personal information of the patient?

(a)  

41.

What is the proper order for surgical asepsis?

(a)  

42.

What is the initial process PRIOR to the sterilization of equipment?

(a)  

43.

What method allows for more than one patient to be scheduled in the same time slot?

a)

Double dipping

b)

clustering

c)

double booking

d)

streaming

44.

What legal issue is defined as dereliction of duty by the physician to perform a task?

(a)  

45.

What is the appropriate method to open the patient's airway?

a)

lift the chin

b)

keep the head at 90 degrees

c)

flex the head forward

d)

turn the patient on his/her side

46.

What does the MA NOT have to sign as part of the medical record?

a)

virals

b)

treatment

c)

diagnosis

d)

medication

47.

When should a fasting blood draw be scheduled?

a)

after lunch

b)

at the beginning of the day

c)

at the end of the day

d)

after breakfast

48.

When should table paper be changed?

a)

every day

b)

every week

c)

after every patient

d)

every 2 patients

49.

When would the MA use the CPT manual in a medical office?

a)

to code an office visit

b)

to code a hospital visit

c)

to code an ancillary service

d)

to code a lab requisition

50.

to ensure the accuracy of medical equipment, the MA would NOT do which of the following?

a)

check to see if the equipment is operational

b)

repair the faulty equipment

c)

remove the faulty equipment

d)

calibrate according to manufacturer's guidelines

51.

Which telephone call is the highest priority?

a)

patient who is short of breath

b)

patient with a temperature of 100 degrees F

c)

patient who sprained their ankle 2 weeks ago

d)

patient requesting a follow-up appointment

52.

When weighing an infant, where should the hand be placed?

a)

over the abdomen

b)

over the shoulders

c)

over the pelvis

d)

over the feet

53.

When speaking to an angry patient, what should the MA do?

a)

restrain the patient

b)

remain calm and ask how they can be of help

c)

speak louder than the patient

d)

call the police for assistance

54.

Which is considered a violation of the National Patient Safety Goals?

a)

a patient falls off an exam table

b)

a patient fails to notify us of a name change

c)

a patient stubs their toe on the chair

d)

a patient walks out during an exam visit

55.

How long is a patient's medical record retained?

a)

7 years

b)

1year

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

56.

On which side of the body is the cane held?

a)

the affected side

b)

. the affected side parallel to the elbow

c)

on the unaffected side

d)

on the unaffected side parallel to the elbow

57.

When performing pule oximetry, you might ask the patient to remove what?

a)

glasses

b)

nail polish

c)

hearing aid

58.

Before weighing a patient, what should the MA do?

a)

balance the scale

b)

put the height bar at eye level

c)

disinfect the platform

d)

make sure the patient is facing the MA

59.

What is the most common disease a provider may contract?

a)

HIV

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis A

60.

Which fee schedule is used MOST often by health insurance plans to determine their fees?

a)

PPO

b)

HMO

c)

Medicare

d)

Medicaid

61.

What information should be recorded on a patient's appointment card?

a)

date and time of next treatment

b)

total cost of treatment

c)

type of treatment to be received

d)

referring physicians name

62.

Which sterilization method is most commonly used in the medical office?

a)

autoclave

b)

boiling

c)

chemicals

63.

Which disease is NOT caused by a virus?

a)

Chicken Pox

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Mumps

d)

Upper Respiratory Infections

64.

When performing a medical aseptic hand washing, where does one point the fingers?

a)

below the elbows

b)

above the elbows

c)

with the elbows below the waist

d)

with the elbows towards the body

65.

During an EKG, what is the electrical activity associated with contraction of the atria?

a)

. S-T segment

b)

P

c)

T

d)

QRS

66.

What should the MA do first to change a dressing?

a)

remove gloves and wash hands

b)

explain the procedure to the patient

c)

assemble supplies

d)

remove bandages

67.

What is required PRIOR to performing a CLIA waived test?

a)

record controls prior to testing

b)

record controls after testing

c)

assure transfer to the specimen lab

d)

recorded results

68.

What patient information is NOT needed to complete an insurance claim form?

a)

social security number

b)

NPI

c)

vital signs

d)

secondary insurance

69.

What is the correct temperature for ear lavage?

a)

hot

b)

warm

c)

cold

d)

room

70.

when does the MA establish a new medical record:

a)

when scheduling an appointment for a new patient

b)

when scheduling an appointment for an existing patient

c)

when scheduling an appointment by email

d)

when scheduling an appointment for another person

71.

How many times should spirometry testing be performed to insure an accurate result?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

72.

What body function is being tested by spirometry:

a)

hearing

b)

bowel

c)

balance

d)

. respiratory

73.

How should one secure and infant on a weight scale:

a)

mother should hold the child

b)

do not secure at all

c)

place hand above upper torso

d)

restrain the patient

74.

A patient informs you they are being abused and insist on it being kept confidential. What should the MA do?

(a)  

75.

What is another name for a stroke?

a)

SMA

b)

CHF

c)

MVD

d)

CVA

76.

Other than a patient's name and DOB, what other information is required on a specimen label?

a)

patient ID number and date

b)

patient ID number and transport time

c)

transport time and date

d)

source, date, and time of collection

77.

Which suture thread has the SMALLEST diameter?

a)

0-0

b)

6-0

c)

2-0

d)

4-0

78.

When assisting the provider DURING the procedure, what is the responsibility of the MA?

a)

to get informed consent

b)

to set out supples

c)

to follow sterile procedure

d)

to be familiar with the instruments

79.

What tray would be provided for removal of a sebaceous cyst?

a)

staple tray

b)

anesthesia tray

c)

incision and drainage

d)

suture tray

80.

What is measured when audiometry is performed?

a)

brian waves

b)

hearing function

c)

heart function

d)

visual activity

81.

Past allergies are recorded in what section of the medical record?

a)

medical history

b)

family history

c)

test results

82.

What is the most important thing to remember when placing a patient in knee-chest?

a)

offer a pillow

b)

lay in his or her back

c)

place head between their legs

d)

ask patient to sit in a chair

83.

A fire is discovered. After sounding the alarm, what should be done next?

a)

open the window to allow fresh air in

b)

move the patients in the immediate area away from the fire

c)

direct the patients to the elevator

d)

leave the patients alone to assess the scene

84.

What is NOT a purpose for draping a patient?

a)

provide warmth

b)

provide modesty

c)

provide access to physician

d)

protection of clothing

85.

How should the MA handle a patient that comes into the office without an appointment?

a)

switch someone else's appointment time and schedule the patient

b)

refer the patient to another physician

c)

suggest an alternate time slot

d)

suggest they go to urgent care

86.

What body System is most affected by emphysema?

a)

respiratory

b)

digestive

c)

nervous

d)

cardiovascular

87.

What blood pressure condition is indicated by reading of 146/86?

a)

hypertension

b)

hypotension

88.

What is SpO2?

a)

saturated oxygen

b)

satisfied oxygen

c)

used oxygen

d)

pulse rate

89.

How full should a Sharps contained be before emptying?

a)

1/4

b)

3/4

c)

full

d)

1/2

90.

What part of the brain controls body temperature?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

. cerebellum

c)

frontal lobe

d)

medulla oblongata

91.

What information is required on a referral form?

a)

. patient name, doctor name, diagnosis

b)

patient name, eye color, weight

c)

doctor name, license number, DEA number

d)

doctor name, office address, phone number

92.

What is NOT included on the RIGHTS of drug administration?

a)

right drug

b)

right route

c)

right physician

d)

right patient

93.

What governing body controls safety in the workplace?

(a)  

94.

Which is NOT a symptom of a stroke?

a)

confusion

b)

facial drooping

c)

left arm tingling

d)

slurred speech

95.

What is the correct use of the walker?

a)

rock from back legs to front legs

b)

pick up and place down all 4 legs simultaneously

c)

step as close to the walker as possible

d)

alternate so the left is brought forward and then the right os brought forward

96.

What is the acceptable method utilized when assessing a patient in pain?

a)

pain scale

b)

observation of the patient

c)

patient record

d)

pain drawing

97.

What is NOT a way to maintain personal space?

a)

maintain eye contact

b)

use non-verbal communication

c)

smoke before an exam

d)

use facial expressions

98.

What is the safest things an MA can do to avoid injury to their patient?

a)

use proper body mechanics

b)

tell the patient to move by themselves

c)

decline help unless absolutely necessary

d)

eave the patient to go get help

99.

What is the proper manipulation of the ear in an adult ear lavage

a)

. pull down on the ear lobe

b)

pull back on the ear towards the center of the head

c)

pull down and back on the lower ear

d)

pull up and back on the of the ear

100.

When a patient checks in for an appointment, what information does the MA routinely need?

a)

name, DOB, address, insurance information

b)

name, DOB, emergency contact

c)

name, DOB, address, medications

d)

name, DOB, address, social security number

101.

What form is used to order a serum HCG test?

a)

referral form

b)

lab requisition form

c)

history form

d)

progress note

102.

When would you place a patient in semi-fowlers position?

a)

patient has a broken arm

b)

patient has conjunctivitis

c)

patient has emphysema

d)

patient has otitis media

103.

What should the MA provide to the patient PRIOR to any medical imaging procedure?

a)

. snack

b)

instructions

c)

dosimeter

d)

water

104.

What acid is secreted by the stomach during digestion?

a)

KCL

b)

NaCl

c)

HCL

d)

OPV

105.

Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas?

a)

bile

b)

human growth hormone

c)

glucose

d)

insulin

106.

A patient must comprehend instructions well enough to do all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

explain instructions to a family member

b)

repeat or demonstrate the instructions

c)

explain the instructions to the MA

d)

write the instructions from memory

107.

Which is NOT a measurement of weight?

a)

milliliter

b)

kilogram

c)

milligram

d)

gram

108.

What method is used to administer a TB skin test?

a)

intramuscular injection

b)

subcutaneous injection

c)

intradermal injection

d)

intravenous injection

109.

When opening a sterile package, what is the required safety margin?

a)

2 inches

b)

1 inches

c)

1/2 inch

d)

3 inches

110.

What should the MA doo first before removing medication from a secure cabinet?

a)

verify the name of the drug

b)

inspect the integrity of the label

c)

verify dosage

d)

check the color of the label

111.

What should the MA do FIRST in order to clean up a blood spill?

a)

put on gloves

b)

go for assistance

c)

wipe the area with paper towels

d)

use biohazard cleaning solution

112.

When a patient's lab report is received in the office, what should the MA do first?

a)

date, stamp, and file in the chart

b)

date, stamp, and leave on the desk

c)

date, stamp, and give to the patient

d)

date, stamp, and give to the physician

113.

What is the first thing to do before starting CPR?

a)

determine if the patient is responsive

b)

start external chest compression

c)

check the pulse

d)

give 2 breaths

114.

What is CLIA?

a)

central laboratory identification authority

b)

clinical laboratory improvement amendment

c)

central laboratory inspection agency

d)

clinical laboratory information act

115.

Who determines prior authorization for payment of a medical procedure?

a)

physician

b)

insurance company representative

c)

patient

d)

employer

116.

What is the BEST way to communicate with a hearing impaired patient?

a)

speak directly with the interpreter

b)

write questions on paper

c)

exaggerate facial expressions

d)

speak directly to the patient

117.

What should an MA do if a glove tears during an exam?

a)

stop, remove, sanitize, then reapply

b)

finish the procedure and wash

c)

. apply another pair of gloves over the torn gloves

d)

stop, reapply

118.

What activity is NOT the responsibility of the MA when seeing up the room before every patient?

a)

stocking according to a checklist

b)

obtaining equipment as needed

c)

preparing the exam table

d)

sweeping and mopping the floor

119.

Which is NOT one of the 6 C's of charting?

a)

complete

b)

chronological

c)

concise

d)

congenital

120.

Which method of medication is administered under the tongue?

a)

sublingual

b)

rectal

c)

topical

d)

subcutaneous

121.

How long can a urine sample sit on the counter before it needs to be refrigerated?

a)

no more than 60 minutes

b)

no more than 45 minutes

c)

no more than 35 minutes

d)

no more than 15 minutes

122.

What is an alternate location for a pulse oximeter? 

a)

Axilla

b)

neck

c)

toe

d)

Nostrils

123.

In a business letter, how many spaces below the letterhead is the date placed? 

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

124.

The result of the of a patient's FBS is 300mg/dl. What is the first thing you should do? 

a)

give OJ

b)

give insulin

c)

notify the physician

d)

give glucose

125.

Which of the following is NOT regulated by HIPAA? 

a)

suspicious death

b)

releasing information to another physician

c)

releasing information to employers

d)

releasing information to spouse

126.

In this procedure, there is a severing of the Vas Deferens?

a)

tubal ligation

b)

tonsillectomy

c)

hysterectomy

d)

vasectomy

127.

What is the function of the urethra? 

a)

filters urine

b)

produces urine

c)

carries urine form the bladder to the outside

d)

carries urine from the kidney to the bladder

128.

What type of water is added to an autoclave? 

(a)  

129.

What color exudate must be reported to the physician? 

a)

yellow

b)

green

c)

red

d)

white

130.

What size needle would be used for an IM injection of an obsession patient? 

a)

1-2

b)

5/8-1"

c)

2-3

d)

1-1 1/2"

131.

Which of these is NOT used for chart completeness? 

a)

6c

b)

MOTTS

c)

CHEDDAR

d)

SOAP

132.

What is the usual dose of PPD? 

a)

1.5 ml

b)

0.1 ml

c)

0.5 ml

d)

1.0 ml

133.

Which of the following is the vaccine for chickenpox? 

a)

Varicella

b)

Mumps

c)

Measles

d)

Dtap

134.

This is an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin in the blood: 

a)

. leukopenia

b)

anemia

c)

cytopenia

d)

polycythemia

135.

Under what conditions would audiometry NOT be performed? 

a)

failed tuning for exam

b)

cochlear implants

c)

rupture of the tympanic membrane

d)

otitis media

136.

A patient with a new diagnosis of breast cancer asks the MA about her treatment options. What should the MA do? 

a)

tell the pt they need to make their own decisions

b)

tell the pt you are not allowed to answer any questions

c)

share your own personal experiences with breast cancer

d)

ask the patient if they would like to speak to the Dr again

137.

When opening a sterile packages, what should you NOT do?

a)

open away from you

b)

touch the outside only with sterile gloves

c)

. touch the instruments with your bare hands

d)

. open on a mayo stand

138.

Which of the following would be a lab safety violation? 

a)

pouring urine down the sink

b)

eating breakfast or lunch

c)

refrigerating stores specimens

d)

drinking from a water bottle

139.

What is FVC? 

a)

fast vocal capacity

b)

fetal visual control

c)

fast vital capacity

d)

forced volume capacity

140.

What should you do of a patient comes in with flu-like symptoms? 

a)

. send them to urgent care

b)

Have them sit away form other patients

c)

call 911

d)

administer cough syrup

141.

Which is NOT one of te 4 C's of negligence? 

a)

determination of negligence to patient

b)

duty owed by physician to patient

c)

dereliction of duty by the physician

d)

damages to the patient resulting from breach of duty

142.

Durng an EKG, this phase is associated with contraction of the atria? 

a)

P

b)

T

c)

S-T segment

d)

QRS

143.

What does an AC artifact on an ECG indicate? 

a)

. pt having muscle tremor

b)

electrical interference in the room

c)

electrodes on too tight

d)

loose electrode connection

144.

After an injection, what is the recommended wait time for an adverse reaction? 

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

30 minutes

d)

15 minutes

145.

What is meant by a "code red"? 

(a)  

146.

What is the ratio of bleach to water used for general cleaning? 

a)

1:1

b)

20:1

c)

10:1

d)

5:1

147.

When coming up on an emergency, what is the first thing an MA needs to do? 

a)

. provide medical treatment immediately

b)

leave the patient and fo for help

c)

remain calm and speak normally

d)

assist the patient to an upright position

148.

The MA enters the room to do a blood draw and sees a religious leader visiting the pt. What should they do

a)

ask the leader to leave

b)

stay in the room and observe

c)

return after they leave

d)

perform the blood draw anyways

149.

What is the correct needle size for an IM injection of an average adult? 

a)

1-2 inches

b)

1- 1 1/2 inches

c)

1/2- 1 inches

d)

2-3 inches

150.

This is the first medication delivery system? 

a)

metric

b)

apothecary

c)

young

d)

clark

151.

Sickle cell anemia is common in what group? 

a)

Asian

b)

African American

c)

jewish

d)

Hispanic

152.

Which landmark is used to measure infant chest circumference? 

a)

nipple line

b)

tip of the sternum

c)

1st intercostal space

d)

diaphragm

153.

The centrifuge has a grayed cord. Once unplugged, what do you next? 

a)

attempt repair

b)

submit a work order

c)

order a new machine

d)

use duct tape

154.

What mask is administered to a toddler with an SVN? 

a)

nasal canula

b)

non-rebreather mask

c)

no mask

d)

. tube with mouthpiece

155.

What condition results from increased pressure in the eye? 

a)

retinopathy 

b)

muscular degeneration

c)

glaucoma

d)

. conjunctivitis

156.

Which form describes services charged by the provider and is sent from the insurance compnay to the patient: 

a)

. patient account ledger

b)

encounter form

c)

explanation of benefits (EOB)

d)

CMS-1500 form

157.

What would we define as the skills an MA is allowed to perform? 

a)

scope of practice

b)

malfeasance

c)

. misfeasance

d)

disfeasance

158.

In an EKG, this phase represents the heart at rest? 

a)

. QRS

b)

baseline.

c)

P

d)

T

159.

What emergency is indicated by "code blue"? 

(a)  

160.

In CPR, using proper hand placement may decrease your risk of what? 

a)

compression of the lungs

b)

distention of the abdomen

c)

bruising

d)

. fracture of the ribs