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Final Exam Review (RAD 147)

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

__________ is primarily responsible for the dose to the radiographer, while ______________ contributes to the patient dose.

a)

Compton scatter, photoelectric effect

b)

photoelectric effect, Compton scatter

c)

coherent scatter, Compton scatter

d)

Compton scatter, coherent scatter

2.

The relationship between frequency and wavelength is:

a)

inverse

b)

direct

c)

no correlation

3.

AMA stands for:

a)

Active matrix array

b)

American medical administration

c)

Attenuation matter acceleration

d)

Available matrix aperture

4.

A pixel (picture element) is two dimensional, while a ____ has three dimensions.

a)

voxel

b)

matrix

c)

image

d)

photon

5.

Photoelectric effect involve the interaction of an incident photon with

a)

outer shell electrons

b)

inner shell electrons

c)

recoil electrons

d)

atomic nuclei

6.

The by-products of the photoelectric interaction are:

a)

photoelectron, characteristic radiation

b)

Compton electron, photoelectron

c)

recoil electron, scatter radiation

d)

positron, characteristic radiation

7.

Attenuation is increased by

a)

higher atomic number

b)

higher tissue mass density

c)

greater part thickness

d)

higher beam quality

8.

Digital image quality is improved with:

a)

larger matrix size

b)

larger pixel sizes

c)

increased tissue density

d)

smaller pixel bit depths

9.

The photons that pass through matter without undergoing any interactions are

a)

transmitted

b)

attenuated

c)

absorbed

d)

scattered

10.

Which of the following is the most radiolucent?

a)

lung

b)

muscle

c)

bone

d)

fat

11.

Differential absorption is the process that gives the image

a)

contrast

b)

fog

c)

receptor exposure

d)

brighness

12.

Which of the following will increase as the kVp setting is increased?

a)

Compton interactions

b)

photelectric effect

c)

differential absorption

d)

receptor exposure

13.

Which of the following are true regarding digital imaging?

a)

digital image quality decreases as matrix size increases

b)

digital image quality increases as matrix size increases

c)

digital image quality increases as matrix size decreases

d)

matrix size has no impact on digital image quality

14.

In order to remove a k-shell electron from an atom, producing characteristic radiation, the incident photon must possess an energy of

a)

69.5 kVp or higher

b)

30 kVp or higher

c)

Less than 69.5 kVp

d)

50 mAs or greater

15.

Which matter interaction is occurring?

a)

Compton

b)

Photelectric

c)

Bremsstrahlung

d)

Coherent

16.

Photons with higher ______ have a higher energy level.

a)

frequency

b)

charge

c)

mass

d)

wavelength

17.

What percentage of the beam is attenuated by the tissue?

a)

50% for every 4-5 cm

b)

75% for every 10 cm

c)

25% for every 5-6 cm

d)

99% for every 1 cm

18.

The invisible image present on the IR immediately after exposure is the:

a)

latent image

b)

manifest image

c)

digital image

d)

ghost image

19.

The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their ___________.

a)

shells

b)

isotopes

c)

ions

d)

atomic mass

20.

Compton interaction is responsible for image

a)

fog

b)

contrast

c)

detail

d)

resolution

21.

Higher kVp techniques result in:

a)

lower contrast

b)

higher penetrability

c)

less receptor exposure

d)

more absorption

22.

The number of pixels present in a 512 x 512 matrix is

a)

262144

b)

4096

c)

1024

d)

134217728

23.

Bit depth is determined by the formula

a)

2n2^n  

b)

n2n^2  

c)

22n2^2n  

d)

2n\frac{2}{n}  

24.

Which of the following determine the visibility of detail?

a)

contrast

b)

distortion

c)

brightness

d)

spatial resolution

25.

What may happen when the digital image receptor is extremely over exposed?

a)

insufficient density

b)

increased distortion

c)

excessive contrast

d)

saturation

26.

A radiographic image that has few brightness levels that are very different from each other

a)

has high contrast.

b)

has low contrast.

c)

has long-scale contrast.

d)

has mid-scale contrast.

27.

__________________ is a term used to evaluate accuracy of the anatomic structural lines recorded.

a)

Contrast resolution

b)

Spatial resolution

c)

Brightness

d)

Detective quantum efficiency

28.

The radiographic misrepresentation of either the size or the shape of the anatomic part is called

a)

distortion

b)

contrast

c)

blur

d)

noise

29.

Which of the following combinations would result in an image with the greatest amount of magnification?

a)

Decreased OID and decreased SID

b)

Decreased OID and increased SID

c)

Increased OID and decreased SID

d)

Increased OID and increased SID

30.

In order to minimize shape distortion in the image, what factors should be properly aligned?

a)

x-ray tube

b)

OID

c)

image receptor

d)

anatomic part

31.

When OID cannot be reduced, it is possible to reduce size distortion by

a)

increasing mAs.

b)

increasing SID.

c)

using a small focal spot size.

d)

decreasing SID.

32.

If the original exposure factors are 20 mAs @ 70 kVp, which of the following factors produce a radiographic image with the same IR exposure but higher contrast?

a)

10 mAs @ 81 kVp.

b)

10 mAs @ 70 kVp.

c)

40 mAs @ 70 kVp.

d)

40 mAs @ 60 kVp.

33.

An exposure is made using 60 kVp @ 15 mAs. A second exposure is made using the same mAs, but the kVp is increased to 90. What will be the result?

a)

increased IR exposure

b)

increased scatter reaching the IR

c)

decreased contrast

d)

increased contrast.

e)

decreased receptor exposure

34.

Changes in the SID will affect:

a)

Receptor exposure

b)

Focal spot size

c)

Magnification

d)

Contrast resolution

35.

A significant amount of collimation will have what effect on the amount of radiation reaching the IR?

a)

receptor exposure is reduced

b)

receptor exposure is increased

c)

receptor exposure is not affected

36.

Increased collimation means:

a)

Decreased field size

b)

Increased field size

c)

More tissue being irradiated

d)

More receptor exposure

37.

The advantage to using a larger actual focal spot is

a)

the image is sharper.

b)

higher exposures can be used.

c)

the image is less magnified.

d)

the image has higher contrast.

38.

Standard radiographic x-ray tubes have focal spots that measure approximately

a)

0.5 mm - 1.2 mm

b)

5 mm - 12 mm

c)

1.5 mm - 2.0 mm

d)

0.5 mm - 2.0 mm

39.

The primary purpose of AEC is to

a)

control the amount of radiation reaching the IR.

b)

control image contrast.

c)

eliminate the need for the radiographer to think critically.

d)

eliminate repeat radiographs due to technologist error.

40.

Ionization chamber AEC detectors are entrance-type devices because the x-rays must

a)

enter the ionization chamber after passing through the IR.

b)

enter the ionization chamber before entering the patient.

c)

enter the ionization chamber before getting to the IR.

41.

The maximum length of time that an exposure lasts when using AEC is the

a)

mAs readout.

b)

back-up time.

c)

minimum response time.

d)

exposure adjustment.

42.

Receptor exposure is affected by:

a)

mAs

b)

kVp

c)

SID

d)

FSS

e)

Matrix size

43.

X-ray tubes capable of producing greater than 70 kVp are required to have ______ of total filtration.

a)

2.5 mm Al/eq

b)

3.5 mm Al/eq

c)

0.5 Al/eq

d)

2.0 Al/eq

44.

The purpose of filtration is to:

a)

reduce the radiation dose to the patient

b)

increase receptor exposure

c)

increase image contrast

d)

improve diagnostic quality

45.

Added filtration has the effect of __________ the beam quality.

a)

decreasing

b)

increasing

c)

does not affect

46.

An exposure was made using 70 kVp @ 8 mAs. In order to maintain receptor exposure, what mAs value should be selected if the kVp is increased to 106?      

a)

1 mAs

b)

2 mAs

c)

16 mAs

d)

4 mAs

47.

The intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance because the radiation ___________.

a)

reduces its velocity

b)

increases in wavelength

c)

loses its energy

d)

diverges

48.

Compared to film-screen imaging, digital systems are (select the two that apply)

a)

Less sensitive to low-energy radiation 

b)

More sensitive to low-energy radiation 

c)

Less sensitive to scatter radiation 

d)

More sensitive to scatter radiation 

49.

When x-ray exposure to the digital image receptor is too low (select the two that apply)

a)

Brightness is acceptable 

b)

Quantum noise is increased 

c)

Quantum noise is decreased

d)

Brightness is unacceptable 

50.

What effect does switching to a large focal spot have on the image?

a)

Scale of contrast decreases

b)

Image unsharpness increases

c)

Size distortion increases

d)

Image density decreases

51.

From the following list, select the 2 factors having the most impact on receptor exposure:

a)

focal spot size

b)

SID

c)

OID

d)

kVp

52.

Which of the following are considered “entrance type” AEC devices?

a)

Phototimer

b)

Ionization chamber (ion chamber)

c)

Image receptor (IR)

d)

Anatomically programmed radiography (APR)

53.

An increase in mA is associated with

a)

decreased SNR

b)

increased SNR 

c)

decreased photon intensity 

d)

decreased photon wavelength 

54.

What is the name of the computerized system in which the radiographer has a selection of exams available on the console from which to choose? 

a)

Anatomical radiography 

b)

Programmed radiography (anatomical)   

c)

Anatomically programmed radiography    

d)

Automatic Exposure Control

55.

All the following are related to spatial resolution except

a)

motion 

b)

focal-spot size 

c)

OID 

d)

scattered radiation 

56.

For the same FOV, arrange the following radiography matrix sizes would result in the highest spatial resolution?

a)

1500 x 1500

b)

 2500 x 2500

c)

750 x 750

d)

224 x 224

57.

In digital imaging, a 2D array of numbers comprised of columns and rows is known as

a)

a field of view (FOV) 

b)

a matrix 

c)

pixel density 

d)

an exposure indicator 

58.

Which aspect of image quality does a grid influence?

a)

Contrast 

b)

Size distortion 

c)

Shape distortion 

d)

Spatial resolution 

59.

With AEC, the area of interest must be placed directly over the selected detectors in order to avoid which two of the following? (select the two that apply)

a)

Overexposure 

b)

Decrease in contrast 

c)

Underexposure 

d)

Increase in contrast 

60.

A histogram is

a)

a graphical representation of the amount of radiation that stuck the IR

b)

the combination of window width and window level settings that determine the appearance of the image

c)

a measurement metric that determines if the optimal receptor exposure was reached for a given examination

d)

the physical location of the x-ray photons striking the IR as they relate to the matrix

61.

The purpose of the air gap technique is to:

a)

reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR, improving image contrast.

b)

reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR, increasing the spatial resolution.

c)

reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR, increasing the recorded detail.

d)

reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR, improving the contrast resolution of the system.

62.

Which of the following is (are) a result of grid usage?

a)

improved contrast

b)

decreased receptor exposure

c)

increased receptor exposure

d)

reduced patient dose

63.

Which of the following combinations would result in an image with the least amount of magnification?

a)

Decreased OID and decreased SID

b)

Decreased OID and increased SID

c)

Increased OID and decreased SID

d)

Increased OID and increased SID

64.

Benefits of compression devices include:

a)

lower patient dose

b)

lower SNR

c)

increased photoelectric absorption

d)

reduced scatter production

e)

increased scatter production

65.

The two types of digital imaging systems are:

a)

PSP

b)

FPD

c)

DEL

d)

AMA

66.

The purpose of automatic collimation is

a)

improved image quality.

b)

limiting patient exposure.

c)

increasing the cost of equipment.

d)

none of these.

67.

Which of the following is the formula used to determine grid ratio?

a)

Grid ratio = distance between the lead strips/height of the lead strips.

b)

Grid ratio = width of the lead strips/height of the lead strips.

c)

Grid ratio = height of the lead strips/distance between the lead strips.

d)

Grid ratio = height of the lead strips/width of the lead strips.

68.

A linear grid

a)

has lead strips that cross each other.

b)

has lead strips that travel in one direction.

c)

has lead strips that can be removed.

d)

has no lead strips.

69.

A focused grid’s lead strips are angled to match

a)

the anode angle.

b)

the angle of the x-rays in the primary beam.

c)

the angle of the scattered photons leaving the patient.

d)

the tube angulation.

70.

To compensate for the reduction of radiation reaching the IR when a grid is used, ___________ is typically increased.

a)

SID

b)

kVp

c)

mAs

d)

OID

71.

If a shoulder examination is done using an 8:1 ratio grid and 12 mAs, how much mAs should be used if the examination must be done tabletop (no grid)?

a)

1.5 mAs

b)

3 mAs

c)

48 mAs

d)

96 mAs

72.

The air gap technique is based on creating a gap by increasing the ______.

a)

SID

b)

SOD

c)

OID

d)

mAs

73.

Amorphous silicon is used as the

a)

photoconductor for indirect capture DR imaging.

b)

photodetector for indirect capture DR imaging.

c)

photoconductor for direct capture DR imaging.

d)

photodetector for direct capture DR imaging.

74.

As a general rule, a grid should be used when imaging tissue that is greater than ____ thick.

a)

4-5 cm

b)

8-12 cm

c)

10 cm

d)

6 cm

75.

The most commonly used beam restriction device is the

a)

Cones and cylinders

b)

Aperture-diaphragm

c)

Variable-aperture

d)

Positive beam limitation (PBL)

76.

Increasing collimation results in:

a)

Larger field size, lower receptor exposure

b)

Smaller field size, higher receptor exposure

c)

Larger field size, lower contrast

d)

Smaller field size, higher contrast

77.

At a higher kVp _____ interactions occur overall, and of those that occur a greater percentage are ______ interactions.

a)

fewer, Compton

b)

more, Photoelectric

c)

fewer, Photoelectric

d)

more, Compton

78.

Which of the following is true regarding scatter radiation?

a)

Scattered photons can strike the IR, contributing useful diagnostic information.

b)

Scattered photons gain energy when they interact with the tissue, posing significant danger to the technologist.

c)

Scattered photons will always continue to undergo interactions within the tissue until they are completely absorbed.

d)

Scattered photons can strike the IR, contributing no useful information.

79.

PSP plates are read using:

a)

helium neon laser

b)

fluorescent light

c)

electron beams

d)

active matrix array

80.

As compared with lower kVp exposures, when using high kVp will result in a scattered photon that is of ________ energy.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

the same

d)

half

81.

Two major factors that affect the amount of scatter radiation produced and exiting the patient are

a)

kVp and mAs.

b)

volume of tissue irradiated and mAs.

c)

volume of tissue irradiated and kVp.

d)

kVp and the use of a grid.

82.

The simplest type of beam-restricting device is a flat piece of lead with a hole in it called a(n)

a)

aperture diaphragm.

b)

collimator.

c)

cone or cylinder.

d)

none of these.

83.

The purpose of automatic collimation is

a)

improved image quality.

b)

limiting patient exposure.

c)

increasing the cost of equipment.

d)

none of these.

84.

Grids absorb scatter radiation because the scattered photons

a)

have high energy.

b)

have extremely low energy.

c)

travel in the same direction as the transmitted photons.

d)

travel at an angle to the transmitted photons.

85.

The number of lead lines per inch or centimeter is the grid

a)

number.

b)

ratio.

c)

frequency.

d)

rating.

86.

Which of the following is the formula used to determine grid ratio?

a)

Grid ratio = distance between the lead strips/height of the lead strips.

b)

Grid ratio = width of the lead strips/height of the lead strips.

c)

Grid ratio = height of the lead strips/distance between the lead strips.

d)

Grid ratio = height of the lead strips/width of the lead strips.

87.

The grid is part of a device located just below the tabletop that also includes a tray to hold the IR. This device is the

a)

wafer grid.

b)

bucky.

c)

grid cap.

d)

grid cassette.

88.

To compensate for the reduction of radiation reaching the IR when a grid is used, ___________ is typically increased.

a)

SID

b)

kVp

c)

mAs

d)

OID

89.

When the x-ray beam is not lined up with the center of the grid you have _________ cutoff.

a)

upside-down focused

b)

off-level

c)

off-center

d)

off-focus

90.

The type of phosphor found in the PSP plate for computed radiography is

a)

plastic.

b)

amorphous selenium.

c)

barium fluorohalide.

d)

cesium iodide.

91.

The part of the reader that senses the light released from the PSP plate is the

a)

photomultiplier.

b)

optical system.

c)

drive mechanism.

d)

photostimulable luminescence.

92.

The scintillator for the indirect capture DR system that utilizes a CCD is

a)

cesium iodide.

b)

barium fluorohalide.

c)

amorphous selenium.

d)

crystalline silicon.

93.

Amorphous silicon is used as the

a)

photoconductor for indirect capture DR imaging.

b)

photodetector for indirect capture DR imaging.

c)

photoconductor for direct capture DR imaging.

d)

photodetector for direct capture DR imaging.