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Worksheets

Pharm Week 6

Total questions: 28

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. Fungal infections are not as common as bacterial infections, but they can be difficult to treat. Broad spectrum antibiotics kill the bacteria that keep the fungus in control.


2. Fungal infections are less common in immunocompromised patients

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

2.

1. The steroid component within the asthma inhaler increases the amount of mucous in the airway.


2. It is important to rinse your mouth after using a powdered form inhaler. If not, it sits in the vestibule, and this can promote fungal infections

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

3.

Select the oral manifestations of Candida Albicans.

a)

Acute Pseudomembranous Candidiasis (thrush)

b)

Chronic Atrophic Candidiasis (denture sore mouth)

c)

Angular Cheilitis

d)

Stomatitis

e)

Gingival Hyperplasia

4.

1. Thrush is a white plaque that wipes off the mucous membranes. It leaves a red, raw, bleeding area located.


2. To provide a differential diagnosis, take a 2x2 gauze wipe the white plaque tissue. If it comes off, it is candida.

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

5.

You will typically find denture sore mouth under a ______ denture or partial. It occurs when patients do not remove their dentures at night .

a)

maxillary

b)

mandibular

6.

This oral manifestation is located in the commissures of the lips. It is caused by either a fungus or B vitamin deficiency.


The fungus develops because of drooling that creates a wet environment.

a)

Denture Sore Mouth

b)

Thrush

c)

Angular Cheilitis

7.

Which is an unlikely way to get a fungal infection?

a)

broad spectrum antibiotic

b)

ill fitting denture that is not properly cleansed

c)

immunocompromised patients

d)

open margin on a crown

8.

1. Nystatin is indicated for oral candida.


2. Clotrimazole (Mycelex) is indicated for oropharyngeal candida, and it is less potent than Nystatin.

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

9.

Select the antifungal agents.

a)

Nystatin

b)

Clotrimazole (Mycelex)

c)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

d)

Narcan

10.

Select indications for Fluconazole (Diflucan).

a)

Oropharyngeal and Esophageal infections

b)

Systemic infections

c)

Prophylactic for immunocompromised patients

d)

Infections not responding to other antifungal medications

11.

1. Oral candidiasis usually responds to topical therapy.


2. Systemic antifungal agents are used primarily for fungal infections NOT involving the oropharyngeal area, but can be used for severe mucocutaneous candidiasis infections

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

12.

The ________ virus stays latent in the trigeminal ganglion until stress in induced.

a)

Herpes Simplex

b)

Epstein Barr

c)

Stomatitis

13.

-most often in children under 3

-vesicles on the oral mucosa rapidly rupture to form small ulcers

-lesions appear 12 to 36 hours after the first symptoms

-sometimes it is completely asymptomatic

a)

Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

b)

Recurrent Herpes Labialis

14.

Caused by HSV-1 and occurs in adults who previously had primary herpes-latent stage reactivated


Reactivation of this infection is common in immunocompromised patients

a)

Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

b)

Recurrent Herpes Labialis

15.

________ is the most common antiviral HSV topical agent.

a)

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

b)

Penciclovir (Denvavir)

c)

Xerese Acyclovir + Hydrocortisone

d)

Docosanol (Abreva)

16.

These sedative drugs effects include: anti-anxiety, CNS depression, and sedation.


Pre-medication is effective for patients with pre-op dental anxiety, and it's important to ensure he or she has a ride home.

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Analgesic-Sedative Combos

c)

Barbiturates

17.

Select Benzodiazepines.

a)

Diazepam (Valium)

b)

Lorazepam (Ativan)

c)

Midazolam (Versed)

d)

Triazolam (Halcion)

e)

Propofol (Diprivan)

18.

Non-Benzodiazepines are considered schedule IV because of the physical and psychological dependency. They are used for insomnia. Select them.

a)

Zolpidem (Ambien)

b)

Zaleplon (Sonata)

c)

Eszopiclone (Lunesta)

d)

Baclofen

19.

1. Barbiturates have the same effects as Benzodiazepines, but they are not as commonly used. An example is Pentothal, "truth serum".


2. Non-Barbiturates have fewer side effects and less cardiac depression. An example is Propofol (Diprivan), and it is used for moderate sedation. It has a rapid induction, short duration, quick recovery.

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

20.

This sedative drug is used for Multiple Sclerosis & Trigeminal Neuralgia.

a)

Pentothal

b)

Baclofen

c)

Zolpidem (Ambien)

d)

Diazepam (Valium)

21.

1. The objective for antiepileptic is to suppress seizures by maintaining an effective concentration of the drug in the blood and brain cells at all times.


2. In drug therapy, monotherapy refers to the use of multiple drugs to treat a disease or condition.

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

22.

_________ is a seizure drug for tonic clonic and partial seizures.


An oral manifestation of this drug causes gingival hyperplasia. It occurs in 50% of all long-term patients.

a)

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

b)

Phenobarbital (Luminal)

c)

Diazepam (Valium)

23.

The mechanism of action of _______ may be its effect on sodium or potassium channels.


This seizure drug inhibits platelet aggregation. Patients will obtain INR checks prior to invasive procedures.

a)

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

b)

Valproate

c)

Phenobarbital

24.

1. Individuals who have Parkinson's Disease have an elevation in Dopamine.


2. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter responsible for movement, emotional response, ability to experience pleasure and pain.

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false

25.

In health, there is a balance between ______ and Dopamine. ______ is excitatory & Dopamine is inhibitory, and together they regulate smooth body movements.


In Parkinson’s disease, there is a decreased synthesis and release of Dopamine , and an increase in _______. This results in more tremors that Dopamine would depress.

a)

Acetylcholine (Ach)

b)

Norepinephrine (Ne)

c)

Epinephrine

d)

GABBA

26.

Select oral manifestations of Parkinson’s disease.

a)

Orofacial pain

b)

TMJ pain

c)

Cracked teeth

d)

Soft tissue trauma

e)

Ptyalism (lack of salivary control)

27.

This is a common drug for Parkinson's disease, and it stimulates dopamine receptors .

a)

Ropinirole (Requip)

b)

Valproate

c)

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

28.

1. Most anti-Parkinson’s disease drugs cause anticholinergic (no saliva) side effects and orthostatic hypotension.


2. Aggregated mouth and tongue movements and drooling may be a sign of a serious adverse side effect of the medication and a physician’s consult may be needed

a)

first statement true, second false

b)

first statement false, second true

c)

both true

d)

both false