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Vital Signs

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If you note any abnormality or change in any vital sign, it is your responsibility to report this immediately to your supervisor.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Heat is produced in the body by breathing, exercise, and elimination of urine.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Body temperature is usually higher in the morning.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

A clinical thermometer should be left in position for three to five minutes for an oral or rectal temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

An aural thermometer detects and measures the thermal, infrared energy radiating from blood vessels in the tympanic membrane.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The oral mode on an aural thermometer is usually used for infants up to three years of age.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

A temporal temperature measures the temperature in the temporal artery of the forehead.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

A temporal temperature is similar to a rectal temperature because it measures the temperature inside the body or blood stream.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Hyperthermia is a low body temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

A rectal clinical thermometer usually is marked with a red tip and has a long, slender bulb.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Electronic thermometers should be left in place for three to five minutes to record temperature accurately.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

If a clinical thermometer breaks, the mercury can evaporate and create toxic vapor that can harm both humans and the environment.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

To avoid touching the mercury from a broken thermometer, use a vacuum cleaner to clean up the mercury.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

If a person drinks cold water, wait at least 30 minutes before taking an oral temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Pull the ear pinna straight back on an adult before inserting the probe for a tympanic temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Any type of head covering or resting the head on a pillow will cause the temporal temperature reading to be

lower than the actual temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Pulse is defined as the pressure of the blood pushing against the wall of a vein as the heart beats and rests.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

A pulse rate below 60 beats per minute is bradycardia.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Words such as strong or weak describe the rhythm of pulse.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

An arrhythmia is an abnormal heart rhythm, usually caused by defective heart valves.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Having the forearm rest on the chest makes it easier to count respirations after taking a pulse.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

One respiration consists of one inspiration

and one expiration.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Respirations above 25 breaths per minute in an adult are orthopnea.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Respirations must be counted in such a way that the patient is unaware of the procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

A sphygmomanometer is used to take an apical pulse.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

An apical pulse is frequently taken on infants or small children.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The earpieces of the stethoscope should be bent forward when they are placed in the cars.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

A pulse deficit frequently occurs when the heart is weak and not pumping a sufficient amount of blood.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

For the most accurate determination of a pulse deficit, one person should check the apical pulse while a

second person checks the radial pulse.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Each "lubb-dupp" sound in the heart should be counted as two beats while taking an apical pulse.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The earpieces and bell or diaphragm of the stethoscope should be cleaned with alcohol before and after using

the stethoscope.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Hypertension is indicated when pressures are greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and 90 mm Hg diastolic.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Diastolic pressure occurs when the heart is contracting and pushing blood into the arteries.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

A mercury sphygmomanometer must always be placed on a flat, level surface or mounted on a wall.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

A patient should sit quietly for at least five minutes before blood pressure is taken.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The American Heart Association recommends that two separate blood pressure readings be taken and

averaged.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

A sphygmomanometer cuff that is too wide or too narrow will give inaccurate blood pressure readings.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The sphygmomanometer cuff should be positioned directly over the antecubital area.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Blood pressure is recorded as a fraction with the diastolic pressure listed over the systolic pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Many health care professionals are now regarding the degree of pain as the fifth vital sign.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Orthostatic hypotension occurs when there is a sudden drop in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure

when a person moves quicklv from a standing to a sitting position.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

If hypertension is not treated, it can lead to stroke, kidney disease, and/or heart disease.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The measurement of the balance between heat produced and heat lost is

a)

vital signs

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Temperature

d)

wellness

44.

The constant state of fluid balance is

a)

edema

b)

dehydration

c)

Hydration

d)

Homeostasis

45.

The most accurate method for taking a temperature is

a)

Rectal

b)

Oral

c)

Axillary

d)

Groin

46.

Which of the following does not lead to increased body temperature?

a)

Illness or infection

b)

Exercise

c)

Starvation or fasting

d)

Excitement

47.

Before a glass clinical thermometer is used, it should be soaked in a disinfectant for a minimum of

a)

15 min

b)

30 min

c)

45 min

d)

60min

48.

A pulse site at the neck is the

a)

Carotid

b)

temporal

c)

Popliteal

d)

femoral

49.

The pulse site used while taking a blood pressure is

a)

Carotid

b)

Femoral

c)

Brachial

d)

Popliteal

50.

A pulse is described as regular or irregular by its

a)

Rate

b)

character

c)

Volume

d)

rhythm

51.

A pulse rate over 100 beats per minute, except in children, is

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Arrhythmia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Fibrillation

52.

Which of the following is not considered one of the four main vital signs?

a)

apical pulse

b)

Pulse

c)

Temperature

d)

Respirations

53.

Difficult or labored respirations are

a)

Apnea

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Rales

d)

Chevne-Stokes

54.

Cheyne-Stokes respiration describes

a)

Rapid breathing

b)

difficult or labored breathing

c)

moist or stertorous breathing

d)

periods of apnea and dyspnea

55.

Why are vital signs recorded on a graphic record?

a)

It provides a visual diagram of variations in a person's vital signs

b)

It is the easiest way to record vital signs.

c)

It is required as a legal record.

d)

It provides proof that vital signs were taken.

56.

Heart sounds are caused by

a)

contraction of the heart muscle

b)

relaxation of the heart muscle

c)

closing of the valves in

the heart

d)

movement of blood through the heart chambers

57.

Constant pressure in the walls of the arteries is

a)

pulse dencit

b)

Systole

c)

diastolic

d)

hypertension

58.

A factor that does not increase blood pressure is

a)

exercise

b)

excitement or anxiety

c)

shock

d)

stimulant drugs

59.

Another term for fever is

a)

pyrexia

b)

afebrile

c)

hypothermia

d)

hyperthermia

60.

Difficult breathing with a high-pitched whistling or sighing sound during expiration is

a)

apnea

b)

Cheyne-Stokes

c)

orthopnea

d)

wheezing

61.

Prehypertension occurs when

a)

the diastolic reading is below 80 mmHg

b)

the diastolic reading is between 80 to 100 mmHg

c)

the diastolic reading is between 80 to 89 mmHg

d)

the diastolic reading is over 100 mmHg

62.

Which of the following statements is not the correct way to measure blood pressure?

a)

The patient's forearm should be supported on a flat surface.

b)

The lower edge of the sphygmomanometer cuff should be 1 to 1 1/2 inches below the

antecubital area.

c)

The length of the bladder on the cuff should be approximately 80 percent of the

circumference of the patient's upper arm.

d)

The patient's arm should be free of any constrictive clothing and the cuff should be

applied to the bare skin.