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Grade 6 Science Term 2 Revision

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does a habitat provide an organism that allows it to thrive?

a)

water

b)

shelter

c)

food

d)

predators

2.

What happens to any forest ecosystem when the land is cleared for farming?

a)

The forest ecosystem will be destroyed.

b)

The forest ecosystem will be healthy.

c)

The forest ecosystem will be relocated.

d)

The forest ecosystem will be unaffected.

3.

What is TRUE about renewable sources of energy?

a)

Fossil fuels are an example

b)

They are better for the environment than nonrenewables

c)

Solar, wind, and hydroelectric are examples

d)

They can be replaced as quickly as they are used

e)

They will run out

4.

Pollution caused by a coal factory most directly affects the...

a)

ocean

b)

soil

c)

atmosphere

d)

groundwater

5.

Moist skin covered in scales

a)

Vertebrate

b)

Birds

c)

Fish

d)

Reptiles

6.

Dry skin with scales

a)

mammals

b)

Fish

c)

Birds

d)

Reptiles

7.

P = Genus

Q = Phylum

R = Class

S = Kingdom

T = Family

U = Species

V = Order


which of the following sequence shows the hierarchy of classification

a)

Q, S, U, V, T, P, R

b)

S, Q, R, V, T, P, U

c)

V, T, P, S, U, Q, R

d)

U, T, Q, P, V, S, R

8.

which of the following statements about classification of organisms is incorrect

a)

it makes the study of organism easier

b)

it enables predictions of the organism

c)

it names the organisms using a standardize system

d)

it sorts organism into one group only

9.

Invertebrates do NOT have

a)

exoskeleton

b)

soft body

c)

internal skeleton

d)

eyes

10.

2. Worms and slugs have...

a)

an exoskeleton

b)

a soft body

c)

an internal skeleton

d)

a spine

11.

Even as the temperature changes, the body temp of the cheetah remains fairly constant. This is because the

cheetah is what kind of animal?

a)

Cold-Blooded

b)

Warm -Blooded

c)

Invertebrate

d)

Ectothermic

12.

Charles Darwin is best known for –

a)

His theory of natural selection

b)

His theory of selective breeding

c)

His work with the animals on the Galapagos Islands

d)

His theory of natural selection and his work on the Galapagos Islands

13.

Which of the following represents a variation?

a)

One rabbit being slightly larger than another

b)

A bear hibernating

c)

Gills in a fish

d)

A snake’s venom

14.

Which of the following statements is true about the above picture?

a)

The horses are all different species and that’s why they look different

b)

The horses are all the same species, but variation makes them look different

c)

The horses are all the same

d)

The horses are all the same species, but behavioral adaptations make them look different

15.

What is the difference between natural selection and selective breeding?

a)

In natural selection, nature decides which organisms live or die by a process known as survival of the fittest and in selective breeding, humans decide which traits are desired and breed animals for those desired traits.

b)

In selective breeding, nature decides which organisms live or die by a process known as survival of the fittest and in natural selection, humans decide which traits are desired and breed animals for those desired traits.

c)

Natural selection and selective breeding are the same thing

d)

Natural selection occurs quickly over 1-2 generations and selective breeding can take thousands of years.

16.

Which list of characteristics describes organisms classified as animals?

a)

Unicellular, prokaryotic, autotrophic

b)

Multicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic

c)

Unicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic

d)

Multicellular, eukaryotic, autotrophic

17.

organism that makes its own food

a)

autotroph

b)

heterotroph

c)

organism

d)

prokaryotes

18.

system for naming organisms in which each organism is given a unique, two-part scientific name consisting of genus and species

a)

binomial nomenclature

b)

genus

c)

species

d)

taxonomy

19.

process of grouping things based on their similarities

a)

classification

b)

binomial nomenclature

c)

taxnomy

d)

biodiversity

20.

organism whose cells contain nuclei

a)

eukaryotes

b)

prokaryotes

c)

autotroph

d)

heterotroph

21.

classification grouping that consists of a number of similar, closely related species

a)

genus

b)

species

c)

organism

d)

taxonomy

22.

any living thing

a)

organism

b)

species

c)

genus

d)

autotroph

23.

Complete the word equation below:

Acid + alkali --> ............... + water

a)

water

b)

salt

c)

gold

d)

metal

24.

.............................. + sodium hydroxide --> sodium chloride + water

a)

Nitric acid

b)

Sulphuric acid

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Ethanoic acid

25.

Why is toothpaste alkaline?

a)

It can neutralise strong alkaline in

your mouth

b)

It can neutralise acid in

your mouth

c)

It can refresh your teeth

d)

Toothpaste is not alkaline.

26.
Pure water has a pH of 7. Pure water _______.
a)
is a base
b)
is a neutral substance
c)
could be either an acid or a base
d)
is an acid
27.

What colour is Universal indicator when the solution is neutral?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

Purple

28.

Sulphuric acid + potassium hydroxide --> ........................ + water

a)

potassium sulphate

b)

potassium sulphurate

c)

potassium nitrate

d)

magnesium hydroxide

29.

ph range of acids are .....

a)

0-6

b)

7

c)

8-14

d)

4-10

30.

ph range of alkalis are .....

a)

0-6

b)

7

c)

8-14

d)

4-10

31.

What colour change would you see if you added nitric acid to sodium hydroxide and universal indicator?

a)

red -> blue

b)

purple -> green

c)

red -> yellow

d)

pink -> colourless

32.

Conditioners contain ........................ that neutralize shampoo on hairs.

a)

acid

b)

alkali

c)

vinegar

d)

natrium hydroxide

33.

Excess acids in stomach can be neutralized using ............

a)

antacid

b)

vinegar

c)

slaked lime

d)

hydrochloric acid

34.

Which of the following alkaline is used to neutralise acidic soil?

a)

Soap solution

b)

Potassium hydroxide

c)

Sodium hydroxide

d)

Calcium hydroxide

35.

Which solution would turn litmus red?

a)

Potassium hydroxide

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

HNO3

d)

Ammonia

36.

Which solution would turn litmus blue?

a)

HCl

b)

Citric fruits

c)

H2SO3

d)

NH3

37.

Which of the set of pH paper depicts that the dipped solution is highly acidic?

(compare with the pH scale and find out)

a)
b)
c)
38.
An indicator will ______________ when it is in contact with an acid or base
a)
Bubble
b)
Form a new substance
c)
Change color
d)
Stay the same color
39.
The pH of a strong base would be:
a)
1-2
b)
5-6
c)
8-9
d)
13-14
40.
One drawback of pH paper is that it
a)
Only tells you if a substance is an acid or a base
b)
is very expensive
c)
has to be connected to a computer
d)
is not very accurate
41.
One drawback of litmus paper is that it
a)
Only tells you if a substance is an acid or a base
b)
is very expensive
c)
is messy
d)
has to be connected to a computer
42.

Adding harmful things to the environment is called

a)

Pollution

b)

Waste

c)

Acid rain

d)

Sulfur dioxide

43.

Which of these problems can be caused by air pollution?

a)

Respiratory problems

b)

Increased disease for humans

c)

Reduced food sources for humans

d)

Decrease in global temperatures

44.

The ____________________ protects people from the effects of too much ultraviolet radiation.

a)

smog layer

b)

cloud cover

c)

temperature inversion

d)

ozone layer

45.

The ozone layer is damaged by

a)

Increased global temperatures

b)

CFCs

c)

Increase in greenhouse gases

d)

Sulfuric and nitric acids

46.

Ozone absorbs UV _________

a)

Heat

b)

Radiation

47.

Which of the symbols represents ozone?

a)

O2

b)

O3

c)

Cl2

d)

Cl3

48.

In which of the atmospheric layers is the ozone layer found?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

49.

What are "holes" in the ozone layer?

a)

places where the ozone concentrations are higher than under normal conditions, allowing more UV radiation to reach the Earth's surface.

b)

places where the ozone concentrations are higher than under normal conditions, allowing less UV radiation to reach the Earth's surface.

c)

places where the ozone concentrations are lower than under normal conditions, allowing more UV radiation to reach the Earth's surface.

50.

How do CFCs affect the ozone layer?

a)

By increasing the amount of ozone

b)

By reacting with ozone and breaking it down

c)

By releasing carbon dioxide

51.

Although the use of CFCs has been banned, the threat to the upper atmospheric ozone continues because CFCs

a)

become harmless quickly.

b)

persist and continue to destroy ozone for decades.

c)

destroy ozone for only a short time.

d)

persist but stop destroying ozone.

52.

Ancient land mass where all continents were together

a)

Pangea

b)

North America

c)

continental plate

d)

continental drift

53.

Earth's crust is made of large, solid pieces that move around on convection currents.

a)

Plate Tectonic Theory

b)

Continental Drift Theory

c)

Survival of the Fittest Theory

d)

Gene Theory

54.

The continents were once all together but have slowly moved apart over time.

a)

Continental Drift Theory

b)

Plate Tectonic Theory

c)

Seafloor Spreading

d)

Convection Current

55.

Which person was the first to publish and publicise his view that a single continent existed about 300 million years ago?

a)

Albert Einstein

b)

Sir Francis Bacon

c)

Alfred Wegener

d)

Alexander Du Toit

56.

Going from earth's surface to the interior, what trends are found?

a)

Density and temperature increase

b)

Density and temperature decrease

c)

Density increases and temperature decreases

d)

Density decreases and temperature increases

57.

Approximately how many tectonic plates are there?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

58.

Which of the following was the main reason why scientists did not accept Wegener's hypothesis?

a)

Wegener was smarter than all other scientists

b)

Animals could swim

c)

Wegener could not explain the mechanism for movement of the continents

d)

Continental landmasses were too big to move slowly over Earth’s surface

59.

The arrangement of things in the order that they occurred

a)

Diversity

b)

Fossils

c)

Chronological Order

d)

Extinction

60.

Why would a FISH fossil be in the DESERT?

a)

A desert formed in an area that was once covered by an ocean.

b)

A bird must have dropped the fish as it flew over the desert.

c)

Water, wind, and ice must have brought the fish to the desert.

d)

The fossil came from a volcano that started on the ocean floor.

61.

Fossils can provide evidence that some environments on Earth have changed greatly over time.

a)

true

b)

false

62.

Fossils are often found in sedimentary rock. In undisturbed sedimentary rock, where would the oldest fossils be found?

a)

the bottom layer

b)

the middle layer

c)

the top layer

63.

Scientists who study fossils are known as....

a)

archeologists

b)

geologists

c)

biologists

d)

paleontologists

64.

This type of fossil (like a footprint) shows evidence of past behaviors.

a)

cast fossil

b)

mold fossil

c)

inclusion fossil

d)

trace fossil

65.
A unit of geologic time that subdivides eras
a)
period
b)
time span
66.
The Triassic Period, the Jurassic Period, and the Cretaceous Period occurred in what era?
a)
Cenozoic
b)
Mesozoic
67.
___________ a record of the geologic events and the evolution of life forms as shown in the fossil record. 
a)
Eras
b)
Geologic Time Scale
68.

In what time period did Pangaea, the super-continent, appear?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

69.
What is the approximate percentage of the Earth that is illuminated by the Sun at any given time?
a)
90%
b)
10%
c)
25%
d)
50%
70.
In which position would an observer NOT be able to see the Moon?
a)
the Moon is in between the Sun and Earth
b)
the Moon is behind the Earth
c)
the Moon is at a right angle to the Sun and Earth
d)
during waxing gibbous phase

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