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AIPT Questions

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Important factors bearing on effective rescue in a survivable aircraft accident is the:

a)

training received

b)

effective fire vehicle capabilities

c)

the effectiveness of the equipment and .

d)

the speed with which personnel and equipment, designated for RFF purposes, can be deployed

2.

Categorizing aircraft using the airport, is by first evaluating it's, ( 1 ) and secondly it's, ( 2 )

a)

1) overall length of the aircraft

b)

2) overall length of the aircraft

c)

1) maximum fuselage width

d)

2) maximum fuselage width

3.

Categorizing aircraft using the airport, is by first evaluating it's, ( 1 ) and secondly it's, ( 2 )

a)

1) overall length of the aircraft

b)

2) overall length of the aircraft

c)

1) maximum fuselage width

d)

2) maximum fuselage width

4.

1) Principal agents produces a, 1 control.

2) Complementary agents have 2 capability but offers a, transient control.


Choose the correct answer according the numbers assigned.

a)

1) temporary

b)

1) permanent

c)

1) transient

d)

2) rapid machine suppression

e)

2) rapid fire suppression

5.

Control time is the time required to reduce the initial intensity of the fire by:

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

80%

e)

90%

6.

Foam application rates:


I) 5.5L/min/m2

II) 3.75L/min/m2

III) 8.2L/min/m2


Referring to the application rates above choose the correct foam level assignments

a)

I) B, II) C, III) A

b)

I) 2, II) 3, III)1

c)

I) B, II) A, III) C

d)

I) 2, II) 1, III) 3

7.

Q1 = A × R × T


A: practical critical area

R: (What is R)

T: time of application

a)

the practical critical area

b)

the theoratical critical area

c)

raid of application

d)

rate of application

8.

The operational objective of the RFF service should be to achieve response times of 2 mins and not exceeding 3 mins to the end of each runway, as well as to any other part of the movement area, in optimum conditions of visibility and surface conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

There may be enough residual heat in turbine aircraft engines to ignite fuel vapours up to ( ? ) mins after shutdown or ( ? ) mins on piston engines.

a)

30 I 10

b)

10 I 30

c)

60 I 15

d)

15 I 60

10.

Confined turbine engine fires (jet). Foam should be used in the intake or exhaust of turbine engines unless control cannot be secured with the other agents and the fire appears to be in danger of spreading.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

I) RFF personnel should stay how far from the front and side intake of a turbine engine?

II) Remain up to how far from the rear?

a)

I) 10 metres

b)

I) 100 metres

c)

II) 500 metres

d)

II) 1000 metres

12.

Identify the incorrect DG Classifications:


Class 1: Explosive

Class 2: Gases

Class 3: Flammable liquids

Class 4: Flammable solids

Class 5: Radioactive materials

Class 6: Toxic and infectious substances

Class 7: Oxidizing substances ; Organic peroxides

Class 8: Corronary substances

Class 9: Miscellaneous dangerous articles

a)

Class 5

b)

Class 9

c)

Class 7

d)

Class 8

13.

Which type of firefighting method is using a straight stream or solid hose stream to deliver water directly onto the base of the fire?

a)

Indirect firefighting

b)

Direct straight stream

c)

Three-dimensional

d)

Directs semi-fog

14.

Which statement best describe the three-dimensional method?

a)

in the event that the fire is fuel fed, as in the case of an engine fire.

b)

in situations where the temperature is increasing

c)

to deliver water directly onto the base of the fire.

15.

Which firefighting method shall be used in situations where the temperature is increasing and it appears that the cabin or fire area is ready to flash over?

a)

Direct straight stream

b)

Indirect firefighting

c)

Three-dimensional

16.

In a three-dimensional firefighting method. FF One directs semi-fog at the fire while FF Two discharges a ( ? ) or ( ? ) into the semi-fog stream starting at ground level and moving upward to the source of the fire.

a)

dry chemical

b)

clean agent

c)

Low expansion foam

d)

High expansion foam

17.

Aircraft hydraulic fluid reservoirs located at, ( ? ) or ( ? )

a)

fuselage forward

b)

near wing root

c)

aft bulk head

d)

under side of main plane

18.

( ? ) tanks are normally in nacelles behind engine firewall - some forward of firewall.

a)

Oil

b)

Fuel

c)

Diesel

d)

Petrol

19.

( ? ) combustion heaters located in wings.

a)

Gasoline

b)

Petroleum

c)

Diesel

d)

Jet A1

20.

Batteries normally located forward as shown and marked on exterior - disconnect if no fire after crash.

Some located in nose wheel well.

Quick - disconnect fittings normally are provided.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Fuel tanks normally in wings.


Choose all the correct statements listed below:

a)

Some run through fuselage

b)

Others all outboard of inboard engines

c)

Fuel tanks are interconnected and have cross-feed valves

d)

Tank vents are normally at trailing edge of wing

e)

Fuel that passes through the APU is air-cooled

22.

For casualty categorization, choose the correct care description for PII - ( ? ) & PIII - ( ? ) casualties.

a)

deceased & immediate

b)

immediate & deceased

c)

delayed & minor

d)

minor & delayed

23.

Chooses the collect colour code for a PIII casualty tag ?

a)

Black

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

24.

For a P1 casualty:

a)

To be treated first and received ambulance transportation priority when stabilized

b)

Immediate transportation of the seriously wounded before stabilized should be avoided

c)

Stabilization should be prioritized for all casualty tags excluding the PIV tag

25.

Choose the correct type of injuries for PI casualty tag.

a)

Major haemorrhages & Crush injury

b)

Severe smoke inhalation & Shock

c)

Compound factures & Spinal Cord injury

d)

Extensive burn > 30%

e)

Cranial trauma without shock / coma

26.

The list below are injuries for what type of casualty tag?


- Non-asphyxiating thoracic trauma

- Closed fractures

- Burns < 30%

- Cranial trauma without shock / coma

- Injuries to soft parts

a)

PI

b)

PII

c)

PIII

d)

PIV

27.

Emergency medical training of airport personnel.

Which personnel should be given first aid and CPR training?

a)

Airport Emergency Service

b)

Personnel assigned to rescue duties

c)

Personnel assigned to ‘public-contact

d)

Personnel assigned by airport operator

28.

During a shift to be trained to an EMT level determined by local medical authority ?

I) or II) .

a)

II) Other on-airport staff

b)

I) At least 2 RFF members

c)

I) At least 2 ARFF members

d)

II) Other in-airport staff

29.

It is recommended that as many rescue and fire fighting personnel as is practicable receive training to meet minimum standards of medical proficiency and preferably to the level of personnel highly qualified in medical administration or the equivalent.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

It is recommended that as many rescue and fire fighting personnel as is practicable receive training to meet minimum standards of medical proficiency and preferably to the level of personnel highly qualified in medical administration or the equivalent.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Suggestive statistics for an aircraft crash are as of:

%, of total occupants are surviving casualties.

%, belongs to PI

%, belongs to PII

50%, belongs to PIII

a)

90, 10, 30

b)

50, 0, 0

c)

75, 20, 30

d)

20, 10, 20

32.

CAG's SMS Objectives


We adopt a proactive approach to management of safety with adequate allocation of resources to achieve the following safety objectives:


Pick the 3 correct objectives below:

a)

Comply with international standards and regulatory safety requirements

b)

Minimize unplanned disruptions to ensure safe and efficient airport operations

c)

Provide a safe and seamless travelling experience for passengers

d)

Mitigate all unforeseen incidents as quickly as possible to return the aerodrome to normalcy;

33.

Question I)

I) The operational objective of the RFF service should be to achieve response times of 2 mins and not exceeding 3 mins to the end of each runway, as well as to any other part of the movement area, in optimum conditions of visibility and surface conditions


Question II)

II) Any other vehicles required to deliver the amounts of extinguishing agents should arrive in 3 mins and no more than 4 mins from the initial call so as to provide ( ? )

a)

I) True

b)

I) False

c)

II) continuous agent application

d)

II) undisrupted water supply

34.

To maintain at ? 2 mins for 1st AES vehicle and ? 3 mins for last AES vehicle to any point of each operational runway in optimum visibility and surface conditions.

a)

<

b)

>

c)

below

d)

not exceeding

35.

To maintain at < 3 mins for 1st AES vehicle and < 4 mins for last AES vehicle to any other part of the movement area in optimum visibility and surface conditions

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The operational objective of the RFF service should be to achieve response times of 2 mins and not exceeding 3 mins to both ends of the runway, as well as to any other part of the movement area, in optimum visibility and surface conditions. - What manual does this statement comes from?

a)

ASM - Part 1

b)

Adam Section 4

c)

CAG SMS

d)

AES Safe manual

37.

In the CAG's SMS, we are committed to:

I)

II)

III)

VI)

a)

Continually Improve Safety Performance and Safety Risk Management

b)

Encourage an Open and Learning Culture

c)

Provide the Necessary Resources and Training

d)

Encourage Teamwork with Our Partners

e)

To build a strong safety culture based on clarity

38.

In ASM - Part 1, choose the correct operational objective stated below:

a)

The operational objective of the RFF service should be to achieve response times of 2 mins and not exceeding 3 mins to both ends of the runway, as well as to any other part of the movement area, in optimum visibility and surface conditions.

b)

The operational objective of the RFF service should be to achieve response times of 2 mins and not exceeding 3 mins to the end of each runway, as well as to any other part of the movement area, in optimum conditions of visibility and surface conditions

39.

Who in CAG is responsible to participate and contribute towards the safety of the whole organisation’s operation?

a)

The management

b)

Every individual

c)

The accountable executive (CEO)

d)

Unit's Safety Officer

40.

As part of safety management system, all CAG staff should be responsible to:


I) Consider safety implications and incorporate safety requirements in all stages of development and implementation of new projects, systems, facilities or procedures to minimise risk of harm.


II) Adhere to standard operating procedures and comply with regulatory requirements in daily operations and activities.


III) Ensure that operational safety issues or concerns identified are appropriately considered and duly resolved.

a)

Report or highlight any safety deficiencies or lapses to relevant party to take the necessary correction actions to prevent any accidents from happening.

b)

Ensure proper documentation of safety procedures and processes and maintain currency of all operating manuals, procedures and work instructions.

c)

Keep abreast of new technological developments and harnessing these technologies to enhance safety and efficiency of operations

d)

All of the above

41.

Hazards are, in most cases, an ( ? ) and inherent part of operational activities.

a)

inevitable

b)

inclusive

c)

exclusive

d)

impartial

42.

Hazards may be identified from the CAG reactive, pro-active or predictive processes.


Choose the correct process assignments for the below examples


1) Hazard Reporting

2) Accident /Incident Investigation Reports

3) Safety Data Analysis

4) Safety Audits & Inspections

a)

Pro-active: Hazard reporting, Safety audits & inspections & Safety data analysis

b)

Predictive: Safety data analysis

c)

Reactive: Accident/Incident report

d)

Pro-active: Hazard reporting, Safety audits & inspections

43.

Conducting Officer does not need to:


I) deliver the training

II) assess if the training had been conducted effectively

IV) ensure the proper recording of the training

a)

Identify the training objectives and deliverables

b)

prepare the training facilities

c)

assess if the training had been conducted effectively

d)

ensure the proper recording of the training

e)

go through relevant Risk Assessment

44.

Safety officer is to:

a)

Ensure actions within Safety Training Checklist completed and go through relevant Risk Assessment

b)

Observe the training and call for a safety time-out when safety breaches are observed

c)

Ensure the proper documentation of the AES Safety Training Checklist

d)

None of the above

45.

The conduct of training in AES is updated and monitored by the Staff Training Management System (STMS). All operational AEOs and SAEOs are required to complete the training items as stipulated in the STMS

a)

True

b)

False

46.

BA training is designed to equip the operational staff with ( ? ) and ( ? ) to work in heat and humid environment.

a)

confidence

b)

courage

c)

sound knowledge

d)

professional knowledge

47.

Hot fire fighting training is designed to:

a)

is designed to test the staff and their handling of equipment under controlled fire conditions

b)

is designed to test the unit and their handling of a scenario under adverse conditions

c)

Train the crew on the various operational and tactics conducted for every operational AEOs once every quarter of the year

d)

Train the crew on the various practical components and tactics conducted for every operational AEOs & SAEOs once every quarter of the year

48.

Reaction time test: 3 / Month

Response test: 1 / Month

Grid reference test: 1 / 2 Month

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The main purpose of the reaction time test is to test the operational crew’s ( ? _

a)

alertness

b)

responsiveness

c)

quick wits

d)

agility

50.

On termination of a response time test, the Duty officer will conduct a roll call and brief:

a)

Responsiveness of the crew

b)

Tactical positioning of the vehicles

c)

Proper donning of the PPE

d)

The route taken to threshold

51.

Pick the correct S.A.F.E recognition requirements:

a)

Enhance safe workplace environment;

b)

Enhance safety culture;

c)

Eliminate unsafe work condition

d)

Eliminate the need of a paticular RA

52.

Risk is usually not totally eliminated but it can be decreased to acceptable conditions by implementing ( ? )

a)

control measures

b)

control perimeters

c)

control of direction

d)

kontol