wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Histophatology

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Paraffin sections are usually cut in the microtome for routine histologic procedure with a thickness of:

a)

4-6 micra

b)

6-8 micra

c)

2-4 micra

2.

Microtone knives for PARAFFIN SECTIONING are usually made of:

a)

Carbon steel

b)

Diamond

c)

Glass

d)

Iron

3.

A frozen section apparatus is called:

a)

Rotary microtome

b)

Electron microscope

c)

Cryostat

d)

Autotechnicon

4.

Enzyme histochemistry:

a)

Celloidin section

b)

Paraffin section

c)

Frozen section

d)

Ultrathin section

5.

Removal of burrs on the cutting edge of knives is done by:

a)

Honing

b)

Stropping

6.

All of the following describes honing, Except:

a)

Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge

b)

Toe to heal direction

c)

Number of strokes usually amount to 20-30 times in each direction

d)

Makes use of natural sharpening stone

7.

When trimming tissue blocks, they must be surrounded by at least ___ of wax.

a)

4 mm

b)

2 mm

c)

1 mm

8.

Deparaffinization of tissue sections us accomplished by passing through:

a)

Ammonia water

b)

Xylol

c)

Alcohol

9.

Sections are floated out on a water bath set at:

a)

45 to 50 oc

b)

55 to 60 oc

10.

To avoid distortion of the image in stained tissue section, the refractive index of the mountant should be near as possible to that of the glass which is about:

a)

1.255

b)

1.518

c)

1.011

11.

Coverslips from old slides may be removed from immersion in:

a)

Xylene

b)

Water

c)

Acetone

12.

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:

a)

Keep heterochromatin from staining

b)

Ripen the hematoxylin

c)

Make nuclear staining more specific

13.

The acid use in combination with alcohol in acid-alcohol solution is:

a)

Acetic acid

b)

Oxaloacetic acid

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Nitric acid

14.

The substance imparts blue color to the nucleus of cells after decolorization:

a)

Ammonia water

b)

Acid alcohol

c)

Ethyl alcohol

d)

H & E stain

15.

In H & E staining method, eosin is used principally as:

a)

Counterstain

b)

Indicator

c)

Initial stain (Primary)

d)

Mordant

16.

Which of the following statements is true:

a)

Hematoxylin stains cytoplasm, while eosin stains the nucleus

b)

Ammonia water in H & E stain will make the tissue section bright pink

c)

In H & E stain, the nucleus stain blue and cytoplasm pale pink

d)

H & E stain is an example of a progressive stain

17.

Routine hematoxylin and Eosin stain:

a)

Progressive staining

b)

Regressive staining

18.

Immunohistochemical techniques are now routinely used for the identification of:

a)

Epitopes or antigens

b)

Primary antibody

c)

Secondary antibody

19.

Most commonly used antibody for immunocytochemistry:

a)

lgA

b)

lgM

c)

lgG

20.

Smears prepared for cytologic examination for cut surfaces of lymph nodes can be obtained by:

a)

Spreading

b)

Touch preparation

c)

Pull-apart

21.

The method of choice for staining in exfoliative cytology:

a)

Pap's stain

b)

Modified Pap's stain

c)

H & E stain

d)

Giemsa stain

22.

Which of the following is a good adhesive agent for cytological method:

a)

Pooled human serum

b)

95% alcohol

c)

Glycerine

d)

Acetone

23.

When do you fix smears for cytologic examination:

a)

After staining

b)

Immediately after preparation

c)

Before staining

d)

At any given time

24.

In the Shandon VARISTAIN 24-3, this function as the nuclear stain:

a)

Harris hematoxylin

b)

OG-6

c)

EA-50

25.

Microscopic examination of cytologic smears :

a)

Pap's stain

b)

Phase contrast microscopy

c)

Interference microscopy

d)

Acridine orange fluorescence technique

e)

All of these

26.

FERNING in vaginal smear is the basis for early detection of:

a)

Early malignancy

b)

Normal cervix

c)

Menopausal cervix

d)

Early pregnancy

27.

Malignant tumors of epithelial tissue origin:

a)

Carcinoma

b)

Sarcoma

28.

Malignant tumors of connective tissue origin:

a)

Carcinoma

b)

Sarcoma

29.

Benign tumors arising from glands:

a)

Adenomas

b)

Polyps or papillomas

30.

Benign tumors arising from epithelial surfaces:

a)

Adenomas

b)

Polyps or papillomas

31.

Malignant tumors of MESENCHYMAL tissue are known as:

a)

Carcinomas

b)

Lipomas

c)

Sarcomas

d)

Fibromas

32.

A zone of preserved neutrophils around a necrotic focus, and outside this region vascular dilation and parenchymal and fibroblastic proliferation occur, indicating chronic inflammation and repair:

a)

Abscess

b)

Ulcer

c)

Granuloma

d)

Neoplasm

33.

A focus of chronic inflammation consisting of microscopic aggregation of macrophages that are transformed into epithelium-like cells:

a)

Necrosis

b)

Neoplasm

c)

Keloid

d)

Granuloma

34.

Major changes that are observed in the nucleus, Except:

a)

Pyknosis

b)

Karyorrhexis

c)

Karkolysis

d)

Fatty degeneration

35.

Trichrome stain is a special stain for:

a)

Amyloid

b)

Collagen

c)

Mucin

36.

Common chromogen(s) for peroxidases is(are):

a)

Diaminobenzidine (DAB)

b)

Aminoethylcarbazol (AEC)

c)

Both of these

37.

This type of diagnosis is restricted to two words only - the causative agent and the site of the lesion (i.e., mycobacterial enteritis)

a)

Morphologic diagnosis

b)

Etiologic diagnosis

38.

A summary of the lesion but generally does not describe what is causing the lesion (i.e., diffuse severe granulomatous enteritis)

a)

Morphologic diagnosis

b)

Etiologic diagnosis

39.

The organ most commonly affected by fatty degeneration:

a)

Heart

b)

Kidney

c)

Lungs

d)

Liver

40.

It is most commonly encountered when the ARTERIAL SUPPLY IS CUT OFF, producing anemic or ischemic infarction:

a)

Coagulation necrosis

b)

Liquefaction necrosis

c)

Fat necrosis

d)

Caseous necrosis

41.

Postmortem clotting:

a)

Immediately after death, rubbery

b)

Before death, friable

42.

STAT tests:

a)

Tests done on urgent cases

b)

Result of which shall be released immediately, within one (1) hour after the procedure

c)

An abbreviation for statim which means immediately

d)

All of these

43.

In what phase of management process does the manager gather together the necessary resources and people and develop an organizational structure to put the formal plan into action?

a)

Directing

b)

Planning

c)

Organizing

d)

Controlling

44.

What phase of management process involves the day-to-day tasks of running the laboratory according to the management plan?

a)

Directing

b)

Planning

c)

Organizing

d)

Controlling

45.

Which management function is responsible for monitoring the standards and feedback mechanisms set in place when objectives were established during the planning stage?

a)

directing

b)

planning

c)

organizing

d)

controlling

46.

Which management function is LEADERSHIP considered the fulfillment of?

a)

Planning

b)

Controlling

c)

Organizing

d)

Directing

47.

Which management function does staffing of the laboratory fulfill?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Directing

d)

Controlling

48.

The scheduling process can be considered a major part of:

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing and Planning

c)

Directing

d)

Controlling and Directing

49.

Which type of authority is assigned through the formal bureaucratic process?

a)

Line

b)

Supervisory

c)

Functional

d)

Staff

50.

Which type of authority do physicians exerts when they write patient orders?

a)

Line

b)

Supervisory

c)

Functional

d)

Staff

51.

Which type of authority does the personnel office exert?

a)

Line

b)

Supervisory

c)

Functional

d)

Staff

52.

A person who can work in many sections of the lab and is assigned according to workload?

a)

Professional extender

b)

Technical assistant

c)

Generalist

d)

Floater

53.

What is the meaning of decoding a message?

a)

Selection of transmission method

b)

Formatting a message

c)

Translation of the message by the receiver

d)

A hidden meaning

54.

It measures risk by assessing a value, expressed as a percentage, to the likelihood of a specific event occurring.

a)

Linear programming

b)

Probability analysis

c)

Queuing theory

d)

Simulation

55.

It provides recommendation for the number of staff (e.g. phlebotomists) needed to handle an unpredictable workload.

a)

Linear programming

b)

Probability analysis

c)

Queuing theory

d)

Simulation

56.

A tool for allocating limited resources among competing needs.

a)

Linear programming

b)

Probability analysis

c)

Queuing theory

d)

Simulation

57.

It designs models to imitate real-life conditions so the different intervention scenarios can be compared.

a)

Linear programming

b)

Probability analysis

c)

Queuing theory

d)

Simulation

58.

If the laboratory manager wishes to determine the number of phlebotomists needed to provide emergency room coverage on Sunday nights during the 11:00 to 7:00 shift, which one of the decision making procedures may prove the most useful?

a)

Probability analysis

b)

Queuing theory

c)

Simulation

59.

What is the term that represents the physical parts of a computer?

a)

CPU

b)

ILY

c)

Software

d)

Hardware

60.

The instructions given to the computer are contained in the _____ selected by the user.

a)

CPU

b)

Hardware

c)

Software

61.

Application software communicates with this type of software to receive data from the system disks:

a)

Interface

b)

Operating system

c)

Security

d)

Program

62.

Software that allows a computer system to send data to or receive data from another computer system.

a)

Interface

b)

Operating system

c)

Security

d)

Program

63.

Select the term that deals with incorrect performance or improper conduct on the part of a purveyor, Especially, either through negligence or by violation of ethical standards for the business or profession.

a)

Peer and community review standards

b)

Malpractice

c)

Tort violation

d)

Regulatory violation

64.

If a light bulb needs to be changed, what is requested?

a)

Job description

b)

Job order

c)

Incident report

d)

Requisition form

65.

MT works under the supervision of a:

a)

Pathologist

b)

Licensed physician authorized by the DOH

c)

Either of these

66.

Appointed as member of the Board of Examiners for Medical Technology:

a)

Filipino citizen, good moral character

b)

Qualified Pathologist, or a duly registered MT

c)

Practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 10 yrs prior to his appointment

d)

Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least 2yrs prior to appointment

e)

All of these

67.

Which of the following is NOT included in the MT Code of Ethics:

a)

Reliability

b)

Integrity

c)

Honesty

d)

Humility

68.

In cases where the SCREENING DRUG-TESTING LABORATORY is a division, section, or unit of a Clinical Laboratory, it shall be headed by:

a)

Licensed physician

b)

Chemist, chemical engineer

c)

Medical technologist

d)

Pharmacist

e)

Any of these

69.

In 1990, the Philippine Congress enacted the Toxic Substances, Hazardous Wastes and Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990, commonly known as REPUBLIC ACT 6969. The act seeks to protect the public health and environment from unreasonable risks posed by these substances. This legislation is under the jurisdiction of:

a)

DOH, BHFS

b)

DENR, PNRI

70.

One who donates blood on one's own volition or initiative and without monetary compensation:

a)

Paid blood donor

b)

Voluntary blood donor

c)

Directed blood donor

d)

Secretary of health

71.

An individual included in the list of qualified voluntary blood donors, who is ready to donate blood when needed in his/her community:

a)

Directed blood donor

b)

Paid blood donor

c)

Walking blood donor

d)

Running blood donor