Font size
WorksheetsOB Final Review
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 53mins
Which of the following is the priority assessment immediately after the rupture of membranes?
Fetal heart rate
Maternal temperature
Degree of dilation
Frequency of contractions
A nurse is caring for a client at 30 weeks gestation with signs of preterm labor. Which medication might be given to promote fetal lung maturity?
Oxytocin
Betamethasone
Magnesium sulfate
Misoprostol
Which fetal position is most favorable for vaginal delivery?
Occiput posterior
Occiput anterior
Breech
Transverse
What is the purpose of Leopold's maneuvers?
To assess cervical dilation
To determine fetal presentation and position
To measure uterine contractions
To assess amniotic fluid levels
Which signs and symptoms are associated with preeclampsia?
Proteinuria
Headache
Hypotension
Blurred vision
Epigastric pain
What should the nurse include in postpartum education for a client after a C-section?
Encourage ambulation
Avoid lifting more than 10 lbs
No driving for 2 weeks
Report signs of infection
Begin abdominal exercises immediately
Which are signs of true labor?
Cervical change
Contractions that go away with rest
Contractions felt in the back and abdomen
Membrane rupture
Fundal height increase
At what gestational age does the fundus typically reach the umbilicus?
12 weeks
16 weeks
20 weeks
24 weeks
Which milestones are matched with the correct gestational weeks? (SATA)
Fetal heart tones heard with Doppler at 10-12 weeks
Quickening felt around 28 weeks
Viability usually considered at 24 weeks
Neural tube closes by 12 weeks
Surfactant production begins around 28 weeks
How much folic acid should a woman of childbearing age consume daily to prevent neural tube defects?
100 mcg
200 mcg
400 mcg
800 mcg
Which foods should be avoided during pregnancy due to risk of listeria or high mercury? (SATA)
Sushi
Unpasteurized cheese
Cooked eggs
Swordfish
Deli meats
Which test is done between 11-14 weeks to detect Down Syndrome and other trisomy disorders (13. 18, 21)?
Non-stress test
Group B strep swab
Nuchal Translucent Testing
Chorionic villus sampling
Which are components of a Biophysical Profile? (SATA)
Fetal tone
Amniotic fluid volume
Placental location
Fetal movement
Fetal breathing
Which are common signs of gestational diabetes? (SATA)
Polyuria
Headache
Polydipsia
Glucosuria
Weight loss
Group B strep is screened at 35–37 weeks gestation.
True
False
A woman with preeclampsia is admitted. Which orders would you anticipate? (SATA)
Magnesium sulfate
Continuous fetal monitoring
Seizure precautions
High-sodium diet
Vital signs q4h
Which signs suggest that a woman is in the transition phase of labor? (SATA)
Cervical dilation 8–10 cm
Strong urge to push
Mild contractions every 10 minutes
Nausea and vomiting
Irritability
What is the normal range for a newborn's Apgar score at 1 minute?
0–2
4–6
7–10
10–12
When should Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) be administered? (SATA)
Within 72 hours postpartum if baby is Rh+ and mom is Rh–
At 28 weeks gestation for Rh– mothers
After miscarriage or trauma
Only if the mother is Rh+
Given to all mothers regardless of blood type
Which of the following are normal findings in a newborn? (SATA)
Acrocyanosis
Mottled skin
Meconium within 24–48 hours
Bilateral clear breath sounds
A positive Babinski reflex
A firm, midline uterus is a sign of uterine atony.
True
False
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the endometrial lining in early pregnancy?
Estrogen
Progesterone
hCG
Oxytocin
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is primarily produced by the:
Pituitary gland
Corpus luteum
Placenta
Hypothalamus
Which hormones increase joint laxity and prepare the pelvis for labor? (SATA)
Relaxin
Estrogen
Oxytocin
Prolactin
Progesterone
Which of the following are presumptive signs of pregnancy? (SATA)
Amenorrhea
Chadwick’s sign
Quickening
Positive pregnancy test
Breast tenderness
Which of the following are positive signs of pregnancy? (SATA)
Fetal movement felt by the mother
Fetal heart tones on Doppler
Visualization of fetus via ultrasound
Braxton Hicks contractions
Palpation of fetal movement by examiner
A woman’s last menstrual period was July 10. What is her estimated due date using Naegele’s Rule?
March 10
April 3
April 17
May 3
Which test measures the nuchal translucency to assess chromosomal abnormalities in the first trimester?
Amniocentesis
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
Nuchal translucency test (NTT)
Alpha-fetoprotein
The biophysical profile (BPP) includes which of the following components? (SATA)
Non-stress test
Amniotic fluid volume
Fetal tone
Umbilical cord pH
Fetal breathing movements
Which of the following is true about contraction stress testing (CST)?
A positive CST means fetal well-being
Oxytocin or nipple stimulation is used
It is preferred over the non-stress test
It is done before 20 weeks gestation
Which are accurate descriptions of amniocentesis? (SATA)
Performed between 15–20 weeks for genetic testing
Assesses fetal lung maturity in third trimester
Involves removal of amniotic fluid
Done via cervical approach
Associated with risk of miscarriage
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) differs from amniocentesis in that:
It is done later in pregnancy
It has no risk of limb defects
It samples placental tissue
It is used to assess lung maturity
PUBS (Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling) is most often used to:
Check for gestational diabetes
Monitor fetal blood gases and infections
Screen for Down syndrome
Measure fetal heart rate
An elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) may indicate: (SATA)
Neural tube defects
Down syndrome
Multiple gestation
Fetal demise
Ectopic pregnancy
Variable is defined as fluctuations in the fetal heart rate.
True
False
Which are true about maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)? (SATA)
Ideally done between 16–18 weeks
It is diagnostic
Abnormal results require follow-up
It screens for trisomy 18 and 21
Which are signs of a placenta previa? (SATA)
Bright red vaginal bleeding
Painless bleeding
Uterine tenderness
Soft, relaxed uterus
Bleeding after 20 weeks
Which statement about abruptio placentae is correct?
It causes painless bleeding
It’s always managed expectantly
It presents with a firm, tender uterus
It occurs in the first trimester
What are common complications of hyperemesis gravidarum? (SATA)
Dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance
Fetal macrosomia
Ketosis
Weight loss
What medication is commonly used to treat hyperemesis gravidarum around the clock?
Diclegis
Ondansetron
Oxytocin
Magnesium sulfate
Which are characteristics of uterine tachysystole? (SATA)
More than 5 contractions in 10 minutes
Increased fetal variability
May be caused by Pitocin
Leads to fetal hypoxia
Requires immediate C-section
Although a fetus is relatively protected in the mother’s womb, a number of different toxins can harm the fetus. These include lead, mercury, illegal drugs, and many other substances. How do toxins usually reach the developing fetus?
by diffusion across the placental membrane
by osmosis across the placental membrane
by blood flow from the mother to the fetus
Through the umbilical cord
In weeks 29-36 of pregnancy the woman should expect prenatal visits to occur:
Every week
Every 2 weeks
Every 4 weeks
Oxytocin: first-line use for post partum bleeding and or hemorrhage
False
True
A client is about 16 weeks pregnant and is concerned because she feels her abdomen contracting. She calls the primary care providers office and speaks to the nurse. What is the most appropriate response to this clients concern?
What you are feeling are called Braxton Hicks contractions. They are considered practice contractions during pregnancy.
You need to report to the emergency room immediately
Are you experiencing any bleeding, or discharge?
Have you been exposed to any STI's?
During an examination a client at 32 weeks pregnant becomes dizzy, light headed, and pale while supine. What is the priority action of the nurse?
Raise the head of the bed to 30 degrees
Assess the clients vital signs
Turn patient on left side
A pregnant client reports an increase in a thick whitish vaginal discharge. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Ask the client if there is a possibility of an STI
Inform the client that the provider will need to do a vaginal exam.
Inform the client that this discharge is normal during pregnancy
A client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy is anxious about the blotchy, brown pigmentation appearing on her forehead and cheeks. She also reports increased pigmentation on her breasts and genitalia. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
You need to adjust your skin care routine during pregnancy.
This is called facial melasma (chloasma) and should fade after birth.
Use hypoallergenic soap and lotions to reduce the discolorations.
Meconium-stained amniotic fluid is always an emergency.
True
False
The height of the clients fundus is 24 cm. Approximately how many weeks pregnant would this client be?
20 weeks
22 weeks
24 weeks
30 weeks
SATA
Which are POSITIVE signs of pregnancy?
A softened cervix
Electronic device detects fetal heart rate.
Ultra Sound detects baby
Fetal movement palpated by Dr. or Nurse.
A softened cervix
Early decelerations:
An abrupt decrease in fetal hear rate below the baseline with the onset to the lowest point lasting less than 30seconds
A gradual decrease in fetal heart rate with an onset to the lowest point that is greater than or equal to 30 seconds with a return to baseline associated with a contraction.
Accelerations are reassuring and means the baby is well oxygenated.
True
False
Magnesium sulfate is used to stop contractions during preterm labor and prevent seizures in preeclampsia.
True
False
A reactive non-stress test includes at least 2 fetal heart rate accelerations in 20 minutes.
True
False
Lochia rubra should last up to 2 weeks postpartum.
True
False
A hypotonic labor pattern is best described as:
Strong contractions with no dilation
Infrequent, weak contractions
A medical emergency
Frequent, painful contractions with rapid dilation
Which drugs are used as tocolytics? (SATA)
Terbutaline
Nifedipine
Magnesium sulfate
Oxytocin
Which are diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia? (SATA)
BP ≥ 140/90 after 20 weeks
Proteinuria or signs of organ damage
Seizures
Edema in ankles
Eclampsia differs from preeclampsia in that the patient has:
elevated liver enzymes
hypertension
proteinuria
seizures
Which are components of HELLP syndrome? (SATA)
Hemolysis
Elevated liver enzymes
Low platelets
Hyperglycemia
Hyponatremia
ABO incompatibility usually affects infants with which maternal blood type?
Type AB
Type A
Type B
Type O
TORCH infections include: (SATA)
Toxoplasmosis
Osteomyelitis
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex virus
Which TORCH infection is associated with cat litter exposure and can cause hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis?
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Toxoplasmosis
HSV
Which factors affect the "Passenger" in labor? (SATA)
fetal attitude
fetal presentation
fetal station
uterine contractions
fetal lie
Which pelvic type is most favorable for vaginal delivery?
Android
Antropoid
Platypelloid
Gynecoid
True signs of labor include: (SATA)
Cervical effacement and dilation
Irregular contractions
Bloody show
Contractions that stop with rest
Rupture of membranes
A fetal station of 0 means the fetal head is at the:
uterine fundus
pelvic inlet
ischial spines
perineum
List the Stage number for each following event: Delivery of placenta, Recovery period, onset of labor to 10cm, 10cm to delivery of baby (separate numbers by commas)
(a)
A second-degree laceration involves:
Only vaginal mucosa
Perineal skin and muscle
Anal sphincter
Rectal wall
Which are true regarding external fetal monitoring (EFM)? (SATA)
Uses ultrasound transducer
Can measure contraction intensity
Noninvasive
Cannot detect baseline variability
Used in intermittent or continuous formats
Internal monitoring includes which methods? (SATA)
Fetal scalp electrode (FSE)
Intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC)
Tocotransducer
External cephalic version
Requires ruptured membranes
External cephalic version is used to:
Turn breech baby to vertex
Flip posterior baby to anterior
Start labor
Manage shoulder dystocia
Which Bishop score indicates the cervix is favorable for induction?
<4
5–6
≥8
3
Which are common indications for C-section? (SATA)
Placenta previa
Fetal distress
Active genital herpes
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
Preeclampsia with stable BP
