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positioning pt 2 2022

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following forms the ankle mortise?

1. lateral malleolus of the fibula

2. medial malleolus of the tibia

3. inferior surface of the tibia

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

2.

The central ray is directed to which of the following for an AP or AP axial projection of the foot

a)

head of the second metatarsal

b)

head of the third metatarsal

c)

base of the third metatarsal

d)

base of the fourth metatarsal

3.

The most commonly performed oblique projection of the foot is the ____ oblique in _____

a)

AP, medial rotation

b)

AP, lateral rotation

c)

PA, medial rotation

d)

PA, Grashey method

4.

Which lateral projection of the foot is the most commonly performed

a)

lateromedial (Lateral recumbent position)

b)

mediolateral (lateral recumbent position)

c)

lateromedia (standing weight-bearing)

d)

mediolatera (standing weight-bearing)

5.

What is the central-ray angulation for the axial (plantodorsal) projection of the calcaneus?

a)

25 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

35 degrees

d)

40 degrees

6.

Which of the following is not clearly demonstrated on an AP projection of the ankle?

a)

tibiotalar

b)

lateral malleoli

c)

ankle mortise

d)

tibiofibular overlapping

7.

Where will the fibula be located on a properly positioned lateral radiograph of the ankle

a)

directly over the tibia

b)

behind the tibia

c)

over the anterior half of the tibia

d)

over the posterior half of the tibia

8.

The central-ray angulation for an AP oblique projection of the ankle is

a)

0 degrees

b)

5 degrees caudad

c)

7 degrees caudad

d)

15 degrees caudad

9.

What is the position of the femoral condyles when the leg is properly positioned for an AP projection

a)

perpendicular to the IR

b)

Parallel to the IR

c)

At a 15-20 degree oblique position (laterally)

d)

At a 15-20 degree oblique position (medially)

10.

When the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement is between 19-24cm, the central-ray angulation for an AP knee is

a)

0 degrees

b)

5 degrees caudad

c)

7 degrees caudad

d)

15 degrees caudad

11.

When the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement is less than 19cm, the central-ray angulation for an AP knee is

a)

0 degrees

b)

5 degrees cephalad

c)

5 degrees caudad

d)

7 degrees caudad

12.

The central-ray angulation for a lateral projection of the knee is

a)

0 degrees

b)

3-5 degrees cephalad

c)

dependent upon the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement

d)

5-7 degrees cephalad

13.

What is the central-ray angle for a lateral projection of the patella

a)

0 degrees

b)

5 degrees cephalad

c)

7 degrees cephalad

d)

10 degrees cephalad

14.

How many degrees should the limp be internally rotated for an AP projection of the femur

a)

10

b)

15

c)

18

d)

10-20

15.

How far should the IR/collimated field extend below the knee for a lateral projection of the femur

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inches

c)

3 inches

d)

4 inches

16.

The superior portion of the calcaneus contains a groove called the cacaneal sulcus. The inferior portion of the talus contains a matching groove called the sulcus tali. Collectively these to suci form the

a)

throclea

b)

ankle mortise

c)

sinus tarsi

d)

sustentaculum tali

17.

The proximal end of the tibia presents two prominent processes called the

a)

tubercles

b)

condyles

c)

malleoli

d)

tuberosities

18.

The two flat, superior surfaces of the tibia are called the

a)

tubercles

b)

malleoli

c)

condyles

d)

tibial plateaus

19.

On an anterior surface of the tibia is a prominent process called the

a)

body

b)

anterior border

c)

tibial tuberosity

d)

intercondylar eminence

20.

The circular fibrocartilage disks or pads that lie on the tibial plateaus are called the

a)

bursae

b)

menisci

c)

articular cartilages

d)

articular capsules

21.

What type of joint is the ankle mortise?

a)

synovial-gliding

b)

synovial-hinge

c)

synovial-ellipsoidal

d)

synovial-ball and socket

22.

Which of the following bones does not bear body weight

a)

tibia

b)

fibula

c)

navicular

d)

calcaneus

23.

The incomplete separation of avulsion of the tibial tuberosity is known as

a)

osteosarcoma

b)

osteomalacia

c)

paget's disease

d)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

24.

The hip bone is composed of which of the following?

1. Illium

2. pubis

3. ischium

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

25.

The ilia articulate with the sacrum posteriorly at the

a)

hip joint

b)

pubic symphysis

c)

sacroiliac joints

d)

lumbar-5 and sacral-1 area

26.

Which of the following will be shown "in profile" if the lower limbs are in correct position for an AP pelvis

a)

lesser trochanter

b)

greater trochanter

c)

anterior superior iliac spines

d)

anterior inferior iliac spines

27.

The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the

a)

sacroiliac joint

b)

pubic symphysis

c)

acetabulum

d)

;umbar-5, sacral-1 joint

28.

When viewed from the side, the vertebral column should present how many curves

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

29.

Which of the following vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve?

1. Thoracic

2. lumbar

3. sacrum and coccyx

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

30.

The articulations between the articular process of the vertebral arches are called the ____ joints

a)

costovertebral

b)

costotransverse

c)

intervertebral

d)

zygapophyseal

31.

Spinal nerves and blood vessels exit the spinal column through the

a)

verterbral arch

b)

vertebral notches

c)

vertebral foramen

d)

intervertebral foramen

32.

Which vertebral process projects posteriorly from the junction of the laminae and pedicles

a)

spinous process

b)

transverse process

c)

superior articular process

d)

inferior articular process

33.

The vertebra prominens is the same name given to the ____ vertebra

a)

first cervical

b)

second cervical

c)

seventh cervical

d)

first thoracic

34.

The openings in the cervical vertebrae for the transmission of the vertebral artery and vein are called the

a)

transverse foramen

b)

vertebral foramina

c)

intervertebral foramina

d)

inferior vertebral notch

35.

The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection

a)

AP

b)

lateral

c)

AP oblique

d)

PA Oblique

36.

The zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine form an angle of how many degrees from the posterior midsagittal plane

a)

45

b)

15 to 20

c)

30 to 50

d)

70 to 75

37.

The condition of the lumbar spine in which there is anterior displacement of one vertebra over another is termed

a)

scoliosis

b)

spondylolysis

c)

spondylolisthesis

d)

scoliokyphosis

38.

On each side of the sacral base is a large winglike mass called the

a)

ala

b)

base

c)

promontory

d)

superior articular process

39.

The angle of the articulation between the sacrum and the ilia (the sacroiliac joints) is ____ degrees

a)

10 to 15

b)

15 to 20

c)

25 to 30

d)

45 to 50

40.

Which of the following lines must be perpendicular to the IR for the AP "open mouth" atlas and axis

a)

glabellomeatal line

b)

orbitomeatal line

c)

acanthiomeatal line

d)

A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process

41.

The central-ray angle for an AP axial of cervical vertebrae is

a)

10 degrees cephalad

b)

20 degrees cephalad

c)

15 to 20 degrees cephalad

d)

variable, depending on the body habitus

42.

Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the dens within the foramen magnum?

a)

Grandy

b)

Fuchs

c)

Twining

d)

Pawlow

43.

The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine are demonstrated on which of the following projections?

1. AP Axial

2. AP axial oblique

3. PA axial oblique

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

44.

Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on an AP axial oblique projection of the cervical spine

a)

those farther from the IR

b)

those closest to the IR

c)

Both sides equally demonstrated

d)

The inferior six closest to the IR

45.

The swimmer's technique lateral projection is performed to demonstrate the

a)

cervical vertebrae

b)

thoracic vertebrae

c)

atlas and axis

d)

cervicothoracic vertebrae

46.

Ideally, the cathode end of an x-ray tube should be positioned to take advantage of the "heel effect" of the tube. Where should the cathode be placed for an AP thoracic spine?

a)

toward the head

b)

toward the feet

c)

head or foot end

d)

variable, depending on body habitus

47.

If a lead rubber sheet is not placed on the table when performing a lateral projection of the thoracic spine, the image may be

a)

underexposed

b)

overexposed

c)

too high in contrast

d)

too low in contrast

48.

Which of the following planes is placed perpendicular to the tabletop and centered to the midline of the grid for a lateral lumbar spine

a)

horizontal plane

b)

midcoronal plane

c)

midsagittal plane

d)

transverse plane

49.

Which of the following is the essential projection used to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine

a)

AP

b)

lateral

c)

AP oblique

d)

PA oblique

50.

Which of the following devices might be used to improve image quality on a lateral projection of the lumbar spine?

1. Close collimation

2. 48-inch SID

3. Sheet of leaded rubber

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

51.

Which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine

a)

joints farthest from the IR

b)

joints closest to the IR

c)

both joints equally demonstrated

d)

the L1 to L4 joints closest to the IR

52.

Which projection of the lumbar spine displays the vertebrae in the form of a "Scottie dog"?

1. lateral

2. AP oblique

3. PA oblique

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

53.

How many degrees is the body rotated for an AP oblique projection of the sacroiliac joint

a)

20

b)

40

c)

30

d)

25 to 30

54.

The central-ray angle for an AP oblique sacroiliac joint is

a)

0 degrees

b)

5 degrees caudad

c)

10 degrees caudad

d)

15 degrees caudad

55.

The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the sacrum is

a)

10 degrees caudad

b)

5 degrees caudad

c)

10 degrees caudad

d)

15 degrees cephalad

56.

Where does the central-ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the sacrum

a)

2 inches at the pubic symphysis

b)

1 inch inferior to the symphysis

c)

1 inch at the pubic symphysis

d)

2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

57.

The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the coccyx is

a)

10 degrees caudad

b)

15 degrees caudad

c)

10 degrees cephalad

d)

15 degrees cephalad

58.

Which of the following techniques should be utilized to decrease radiation dose during scoliosis radiography?

1. close collimation

2. breast shields

3. PA projection instead of AP

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

59.

How many true, or movable, vertebrae are there in the vertebral column

a)

7

b)

12

c)

24

d)

33

60.

The vertebral body and the vertebral arch surround a space called the

a)

lamina

b)

vertebral notch

c)

vertebral foramen

d)

intervertebral foramina

61.

Spina bifida is a congenital deformity of the vertebral column in which the _____ fail to unit posteriorly

a)

arches

b)

bodies

c)

pedicles

d)

lamina

62.

The second cervical vertebrae is called the

a)

dens

b)

atlas

c)

axis

d)

vertebra prominens

63.

The superior and inferior articular processes of the cervical spine form thick columns called the

a)

facets

b)

laminae

c)

pedicles

d)

articular pillars

64.

The part of the lamina that lies between the superior and inferior articular processes on a typical lumbar vertebrae is called the

a)

transverse process

b)

pars interarticularis

c)

accessory process

d)

mammillary process

65.

The zygapophyseal joints of the vertebral column are classified as

a)

synovial, gliding

b)

synovial, pivot

c)

synovial, ellipsoidal

d)

cartilaginous symphysis

66.

Ribs lie in an oblique plane in the thorax. How are the anterior ends situated in comparison to the posterior ends?

a)

1 inch lower

b)

1 inch higher

c)

3 to 5 inches lower

d)

3 to 5 inches higher

67.

The space between each of the ribs is called the

a)

coastal cartlidge

b)

intercostal spaces

c)

costovertebral joints

d)

costotransverse joints

68.

Which joints articulate with a vertebra?

1. costovertebral

2. costotranverse

3. costochondral

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

69.

For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the lowest position in the body

a)

obese

b)

hyposthenic

c)

emaciated

d)

hypersthenic

70.

Which of the following is the essential projection and body position for demonstration of the sternum?

a)

AP, supine

b)

PA, prone

c)

PA oblique, LAO

d)

PA oblique, RAO

71.

Which SID is recommended for the lateral projection of the sternum for management of magnification

a)

48 inches

b)

60 inches

c)

72 inches

d)

120 inches

72.

The central-ray angle for a lateral sternum is

a)

5 degrees caudad

b)

10 degrees caudad

c)

10-12 degrees caudad

d)

perpendicular

73.

How much is the body rotated for the PA oblique projection of the sternoclavicular articulation (body rotation technique)

a)

10 degrees

b)

20 degrees

c)

10 to15 degrees

d)

20 to 30 degrees

74.

When performing the PA oblique projection (body rotation technique) of the sternoclavicular articulations, which of the joints would be demonstrated?

a)

both joints are demonstrated

b)

the joint closest to the IR

c)

the joint farthest from the IR

d)

both joints-but varies depending on body habitus

75.

Which of the following body positions will project the left ribs clear of the heart?

1. lateral

2. LAO

3. RPO

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

76.

What is the respiration phase for the AP projection of the ribs below the diaphragm

a)

suspended respiration

b)

full inspiration

c)

full expiration

d)

slow, shallow breathing

77.

The easily palpable superior border of the manubrium is called the

a)

body

b)

xiphoid

c)

sternal angle

d)

jugular notch

78.

How many ribs attach directly to the sternum

a)

5

b)

7

c)

10

d)

12

79.

Which ribs are called the false ribs

a)

1 to 7

b)

1 to 10

c)

8 to 12

d)

11 and 12

80.

Which ribs are attached to the vertebrae only

a)

1 to 7

b)

1 to 10

c)

8 to 10

d)

11 and 12

81.

What degree of x-ray tube angulation is required to demonstrate the sternum on a patient whose thorax measures 30cm

a)

12 degrees

b)

16 degrees

c)

19 degrees

d)

22 degrees

82.

The area between the two lungs is termed the

a)

carina

b)

thorax

c)

mediastinum

d)

pleural space

83.

Where does the trachea lie in relation to the esophagus

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

c)

to the left

d)

to the right

84.

After entering the hilum, each primary bronchus divides. How many primary branches are in the right lung

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

85.

The lungs are composed of a light, spongy substance called the

a)

pleura

b)

bronchioles

c)

parenchyma

d)

serous membrane

86.

The part of the lung that extends above the clavicle is termed the

a)

apex

b)

base

c)

hilum

d)

lingula

87.

What is the name of the double-walled serous membrane sac that encloses the lung

a)

lingula

b)

pleura

c)

pleura cavity

d)

costodiaphragmatic recess

88.

What is the most optimal position of the patient for the examinations of the heart and lungs

a)

prone

b)

supine

c)

upright

d)

decubitus

89.

Why is the left lateral chest position the most commonly used for lateral radiographs of the chest

a)

less chance of body rotation

b)

patients heart is closer tot he IR

c)

there is greater magnification of the heart

d)

easier to visualize interlobar fissure

90.

The presence of gas or air in the pleural cavity is termed

a)

pneumonias

b)

pneumothorax

c)

pneumomediastinum

d)

pneumopericardium

91.

Which of the following exposure techniques is required to penetrate all of the thoracic anatomy

a)

low kVp

b)

high kVp

c)

short exposure time

d)

long exposure time

92.

How many ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a PA chest radiograph

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

93.

Which plane must be accurately parallel with the IR to prevent distortion of the thoracic structures during a lateral chest radiograph

a)

coronal plane

b)

horizontal plane

c)

transverse plane

d)

midsagittal plane

94.

If a patient cannot be placed in the lordotic position for radiography of the pulmonary apices, what is the central-ray angle that can be used to project the clavicles above the apices?

a)

5 to 10 degrees caudad

b)

5 to10 degrees cephalad

c)

15 to 20 degrees caudad

d)

15 to 20 degrees cephalad

95.

How is the central-ray positioned for an x-ray projection done with the patient placed in a decubitus position?

a)

vertical

b)

horizontal

c)

transverse

d)

longitudinal

96.

How long should the patient remain in position before making the exposure when performing a projection in the lateral or dorsal decubitus position

a)

1 minute

b)

2 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

10 minutes

97.

If the lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate free air in the pleural cavity, on which side must the patient lie?

a)

affected side

b)

unaffected side

c)

either side

98.

If the lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate fluid in the pleural cavity, on which side must the patient lie?

a)

affected side

b)

unaffected side

c)

either side

99.

What is the patient position for the lateral projection done in the dorsal decubitus position?

a)

seated

b)

standing

c)

prone

d)

supine

100.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged by diffusion within the

a)

alveoli

b)

alveolar duct

c)

bronchioles

d)

terminal bronchioles