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The Female Genital Tract (Robbins Pathology Ch22) - Book

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

INFECTIONS

major causes of infertility ?

(choose all that apply)

a)

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

b)

Candida Trichomonas

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Gardenella

2.

INFECTIONS

major causes of preterm delivery?

a)

Group B strept

b)

Gardnerella

c)

Candida

Vaginalis

d)

E.coli

3.

FIGURE 22.1

Early in development the mesonephric duct and ________ duct merge at the urogenital sinus to

form the _______ tubercle.

a)

Antimullerian

Mullerian

b)

mullerian

mullerian

4.

.....by birth the mullerian ducts have fused to form the______

(choose all that apply)

a)

ovaries

b)

uterus

c)

fallopian tubes

d)

endocervix

5.

Vaginal lesions due to herpes-simplex virus involve?

a)

papules that progress to vesicles

b)

red papules and discharge

c)

purulent discharge

6.

Where does HSV hide in the body (viral latency)?

a)

Coccysacral nerve ganglia

b)

Lumbosacral nerve ganglia

c)

Thorosacral

Nerve Ganglia

d)

Thorolumbar Nerve Ganglia

7.

MORPHO

Multinucleated squamous cells containing eosinophilic to basophilic viral inclusions with "ground-glass" appearance.

a)

HIV*

b)

HPV

c)

HSV

d)

IUD

8.

Previous infection with HSV 1, reduces transmission of HSV 2

a)

T

b)

F

9.

The cell shows HSV infection. The center shows HSV _____ effect. Infected cells become ______ and contain ______ viral inclusions with a characteristic of "ground-glass" appearance.

a)

cytopathic

multinucleated

internuclear

b)

cytopathic

nucleated

intranuclear

c)

cytopathic

multinucleated

intranuclear

d)

eosinopathic

multunicleated

internuclear

10.

active infection of HSV 2, decreases the risk of HSV 1

a)

T

b)

F

11.

Detection of anti-HSV antibodies in the serum is indicative of? _________

a)

post-infection immunity

b)

recurrent infection

c)

primary infection

12.

Cutaneous or mucosal lesion caused by poxvirus?

a)

Mycoplasma

Hominis

b)

Ureplasma Urealyticum

c)

Molluscum Contagiosum

d)

C. Trachomatis

13.

Molluscum contagiosum (poxvirus) is common in young children between ___________

a)

1-2

b)

2-11

c)

2-12

d)

3-12

14.

MOLLUSCUM CONTAGIOSUM

Reveals intracytoplasmic viral inclusions.

a)

A

b)

B

15.

Dx is made by finding pseudospores or filamentous fungal hyphae in wet KOH

a)

Indica infection

b)

Candida infection

c)

Gonorrhea infection

d)

Trichomonas vagialis

16.

Clinical manifestation

Vulvovaginal pruritus.

Erythema.

Swelling.

Curdlike vaginal discharge.

a)

Trichomonas Vaginalis

b)

Clostridium Perfringens

c)

Candida

17.

Your new boyfriend, Dr.Cabrera, complains of yellow, frothy penile discharge, dysuria, and painful intercourse. Soon after you become symptomatic as well. You being the smart medstudent Dx both of you with?

a)

Gardnerella Vaginalis

b)

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Fungal infection

18.

Patients typically present with thin, green-gray, malodorous (fishy) vaginal discharge.

a)

Gardenerella Vaginitis

b)

Trichomonas Vaginalis

c)

Clamidia

d)

Clostridium Perfringens

19.

Chlamydia Trachomatis leads to Cervicitis

a)

T

b)

F

20.

infection that begins in the vulva or vagina and spreads upward to involve most of the structures in the female genital system, resulting in pelvic pain, adnexal tenderness, fever, and vaginal discharge.

a)

Squamous cell hyperplasia

b)

Condyloma acuminatum

c)

pelvic inflammatory Dz

d)

Vulvar fibroepithelial polyps

21.

most COMMON cause of PID

a)

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Clostridium P.

d)

G.Vaginalis

22.

What are Puerperal infections?

a)

Infection after spontaneous abortion

b)

infection after induced abortion

c)

infection after abnormal abortions

d)

infection after abortion

23.

SALPINGITIS

Pus fills the center of the fallopian tube

a)

A

b)

B

24.

SALPINGITIS

Scarring and fusion of the plicae with formation of glandlike spaces. This is considered Acute -or- Chronic?

Image A -or- B?

a)

Chronic

B

b)

Chronic

A

c)

Acute

B

d)

Acute

A*

25.

Basal cell carcinoma can also manifest in the vulva

a)

T

b)

F

26.

LINCHNEN SCLEROSUS

There is sclerosis of the superficial dermis, and chronic inflammatory cells in the deeper dermis.

a)

A

b)

B

27.

The process of Marsupialization is performed in the presence of acute inflammation (adenitis), which results in an abscess.

a)

Non-neoplastic epithelial disorders

b)

benign exophytic lesion

c)

Bartholin cyst

28.

Major causes of non-neoplastic leukoplakia?

a)

linchen slcerosis

b)

squamous cell hyperplasia

c)

Condyloma acuminatum

d)

Leukoplakia Simplex chronicus

29.

presents as smooth, white plaques or macules that in time may enlarge and coalesce, producing a surface that resembles porcelain or parchment.

Symptomatic women may develop squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva.

a)

Linchen simplex

b)

Linchen Sclerosus

c)

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN)

d)

Linchen simplex chronicus

30.

The hyperplastic epithelium may show mitotic activity but lacks cellular atypia.

a)

Metaplasia of endometrial tissue

b)

Squamous cell hyperplasia

c)

Linchen sclerosus

d)

condyloma latum

31.

Wart-like lesions of the vulva may be caused by infection or may be reactive conditions of unknown etiology

a)

Fungal infection

b)

Benign exophytic lesion

c)

Malignant Exophytic lesion

32.

Vulvar squamous papillomas are ______ exophytic proliferations covered by nonkeratinized squamous epithelium

a)

malignant

b)

benign

33.

consist of papillary, exophytic, treelike cores of stroma covered by thickened squamous epithelium.

Not considered cancerous.

(HINT: Koilocytic Atypia)

a)

Vulvar carcinoma

b)

Condyloma Acuminatum

c)

Classic VIN

d)

Differentiated VIN

34.

BASALOID VULVAR CARCINOMA

Composed of invasive small, immature (basaloid) cells. There is a focus of necrosis (red area)

a)

A

b)

B

35.

______ - may be discrete and white (hyperkeratotic) or slightly raised and pigmented.

________ - is characterized by marked atypia of the basal layer of the squamous epithelium and normal-appearing differentiation of the more superficial layers

a)

Differentiated VIN

Classic VIN

b)

Differentiated VIN

Differentiated VIN

36.

Well-differentiated, keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva (HPV negative) composed of invasive tumor nests with central keratin pearls.

a)

A

b)

B

37.

Presumably because of the “breastlike” features, the vulva may be involved by two tumors with counterparts in the breast, ______________ and _____________

a)

papillary hidradenoma

b)

extramammary Paget disease

c)

Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma

d)

cervical carcinoma

38.

all primary carcinomas of the vagina are ______ associated with high-risk HPV infection

a)

squamous cell carcinoma

b)

columnar cell carcinoma

c)

simple columnar cell hyperplasia

39.

Polyploid mass protruding from the vagina.

Found in infants and children younger than 5 years of age.

(HINT: grape-like tumor)

a)

Sarcoma Botryoides

b)

Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma

c)

Cervical Squamocolumnar Tumor

40.

______ - is visible on vaginal examination and is covered by a mature squamous epithelium that is continuous with the vaginal wall.

_______ - lined by columnar, mucus-secreting epithelium.

a)

Ectocervix

Endocervix

b)

Endocervix

Ectocervix

41.

The point where the squamous and the columnar epithelium meet is

referred to as the _______________

a)

Cuboidocolumnar junctoin

b)

Columnar junction

c)

squamocolumnar junction

42.

Label the Squamocolumnar Junction

a)

happy face

b)

sad face

c)

mad face

43.

composed of a dense fibrous stroma covered with columnar epithelium.

a)

Endocervical Polyp

b)

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia

c)

low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)

44.

does not progress directly to invasive carcinoma, and, in fact, most cases regress spontaneously

a)

low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)

b)

high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)

45.

The diagnosis of SIL is based on identification of ________ characterized by nuclear enlargement, _________ (dark staining), coarse chromatin granules, and variation in nuclear size and shape

a)

nuclear atypia

hypochromasia

b)

nuclear atypia

hyperchromasia

46.

More than 80% of LSILs and 100% of HSILs are associated with high-risk HPVs,

with ________ being the most common HPV type in both lesions.

a)

HPV-6

b)

HPV-11

c)

HPV-16

HPV-11

d)

HPV-16

47.

low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

a)
b)
c)
48.

Diffuse atypia, loss of maturation, and expansion of the immature basal cells to the epithelial surface

a)
b)
c)
d)
49.

normal squamous epithelium

(choose all that apply)

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
a)

adenocarcinoma of the cervix

b)

Invasive adenocarcinoma

51.

_____________ - is characterized by proliferation of glandular epithelium composed of malignant endocervical cells with large, hyperchromatic nuclei and relatively mucin-depleted cytoplasm, resulting in a dark appearance of the glands

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Adenocarcinoma

52.

An invasive nest breaking through the basement membrane of a high-grade intraepithelial lesion.

(HINT: EARLY STAGE)

a)

A

b)

B

53.

_____________ - spreads by direct extension to contiguous tissues, including paracervical soft tissue, urinary bladder, ureters (resulting in hydronephrosis), rectum, and vagina.

a)

Advanced Adenocarcinoma

b)

Advanced cervical carcinoma

c)

early cervical carcinoma

d)

Early Adenocarcinoma

54.

CERVICAL CARCINOMA

Carcinoma has extended to the pelvic wall. On rectal examination, there is no cancer-free space between the tumor and the pelvic wall. The tumor involves the lower third of the vagina.

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

55.

CERVICAL CARCINOMA

Carcinoma extends beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall. Carcinoma involves the vagina but not the lower third.

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

56.

An additional important aspect of cervical cancer prevention is vaccination against high-risk oncogenic HPV, which is now recommended for all girls and boys by ______years of age, as well as young men and women up to ____years of age

a)

11-15

21

b)

11-12

26

c)

9-12

25

d)

12-16

29

57.

Cervical LSIL is a productive HPV infection that usually regresses spontaneously but occasionally progresses to _____.

HSIL is characterized by progressive ________ of the cell cycle and increasing cellular atypia. HSIL may progress to invasive carcinoma.

Almost all cervical precursor lesions and cervical carcinomas are caused by high-risk HPV types, most commonly _______

a)

HPV-16

HSIL

Regulation

b)

deregulation

HPV-16

HSIL

c)

HSIL

deregulation

HPV-16.

d)

HSIL

regulation

HPV-16.

58.

The endometrium undergoes dynamic physiologic and morphologic changes during the _______cycle in response to sex steroid hormones coordinately produced in the _____

a)

Ovulatory

Hypothalamus

b)

menstrual

ovary

c)

menstrual

Ant. Pituitary

59.

Proliferative during Mitosis

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

Early secretory phase with subnuclear vacuoles

a)
b)
c)
d)
61.

Late secretory exhaustion and predecidual changes

a)
b)
c)
d)
62.

Menstrual endometrium with stromal breakdown

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

Reduction in cytoplasm and the increase in the nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio, which occurs as the grade of the lesion increases. This reflects the progressive loss of cellular differentiation on the surface of the lesions from which these cells are exfoliated.

a)
b)
c)
d)
64.

HISTOLOGY OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE

The cycle commences with ____, during which the superficial portion of the endometrium, referred to as the ______ is shed.

a)

menses

basalis

b)

ovulation

functionalis

c)

menses

functionalis

d)

follicular phase

basalis

65.

The endometrial stroma is composed of spindle cells with scant cytoplasm that are also actively proliferating

a)

Proliferative phase

b)

Ovulation

c)

secretory phase

66.

at _________, endometrial proliferation ceases and differentiation commences in response to the effects of progesterone made by the corpus luteum in the ovary.

a)

ovulation

b)

postovulation

c)

proliferative phase

d)

secretory phase

67.

at _________, is initially marked by the appearance of secretory vacuoles beneath the nuclei in the glandular epithelium

a)

ovulation

b)

postovulation

c)

secretory phase

d)

proliferative phase

68.

_________ - in the late secretory phase, due predominantly to ________, are the most significant features.

a)

stromal changes

progesterone

b)

Saw tooth appearance

estrogen

c)

Endometrial proliferation

Progesterone

69.

_________ - down-regulates the expression of estrogen receptor in both the glands and the stroma, and as a result endometrial proliferation is suppressed.

a)

progesterone

b)

estrogen

c)

estradiol

70.

What is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding?

(choose all that apply)

a)

submucosal leiomyoma

b)

anovulatory endometrium with stromal breakdown

c)

chronic endometritis with plasma cells.

d)

dysfunctional uterine bleeding

71.

CAUSES OF ABNORMAL UTERINE BLEEDING BY AGE GROUP

(causes)

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

Anovulatory cycle.

Anatomic Lesiona (carcinoma, hyperplasia, polyps)

Present in what age group?

a)

Reproductive age

b)

prepuberty

c)

perimenopausal

d)

postmenopausal

72.

Present in what age group?

Anovulatory cycle.

Coagulation disorders.

a)

Adolescence

b)

Prepuberty

c)

repro age

d)

postmenopausal

73.

The most frequent cause of dysfunctional bleeding is anovulation

a)

T

b)

F

74.

Failure of ovulation results in ________ endometrial stimulation by estrogens that is unopposed by ________.

a)

Reduced

Estrogen

b)

Excessive

Progesterone

75.

Endometriosis is defined by the presence of “ECTOPIC” endometrial tissue at a site INSIDE of the uterus.

a)

T

b)

F

76.

What do you see?

a)

endometrial glands and stroma adjacent to normal colonic mucosa.

b)

Endometriosis involving the mucosa of the colon

77.

Most common sites of endometriosis are within the ___________, but occasionally it is found at distant sites.

Endometriosis commonly results in _________, pelvic pain, and infertility.

Peritoneal and ovarian endometriosis may be a precursor to endometrioid and _________

a)

abdominal cavity.

Dysmenorrhea.

squamous cell carcinoma.

b)

abdominal cavity.

Dysmenorrhea.

Clear cell carcinoma.

c)

Thoracoabdominal cavity.

Dysmenorrhea.

Clear cell carcinoma.

78.

Endometrial hyperplasia is an important cause of abnormal bleeding and a frequent precursor to the most common type of ____________

a)

Squamous carcinoma

b)

Myometrial carcinoma

c)

endometrial carcinoma

79.

Inactivation of the ________ tumor suppressor gene is a common genetic alteration in both endometrial hyperplasias and endometrioid endometrial carcinoma

a)

PUTIN

b)

PTEN

c)

NTEPN

d)

PTNE

80.

Endometrial hyperplasia is defined as an ______ in the number of glands relative to the stroma, appreciated as __________, often with abnormal shapes.

It is most commonly caused by unopposed ______stimulation and is an important cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding.

It is divided into typical and atypical hyperplasia based on ____________.

a)

increase

Crowded Glands

progesterone

Nuclear morpho.

b)

increase

Crowded Glands

estrogen

Nuclear morpho.

c)

decrease

Crowded Glands

estrogen

Nuclear morpho.

d)

increase

Crowded Glands

estrogen

mitotic division.

81.

TYPE I & II OF ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA

(precursor)

-Hyperplasia

-Serous clear cell mixed mullerian tumor

a)

Type I

Type II

b)

Type II

Type I

82.

TYPE I & II OF ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA

(clinical setting)

Atrophy and Thin physique.

Unopposed estrogen, obesity, Hypertension, Diabetes.

a)

Type II

Type I

b)

Type I

Type II

83.

TYPE I & II OF ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA

(Behavior)

Indolent

Spreads via lymphatics

a)

Type II

Type I

b)

Type I

Type I

c)

Type II

Type II

d)

Type I

Type II

84.

TYPE I & II OF ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA

(Mutated Genes)

TP53

PTEN

a)

Type II

Type I

b)

Type I

Type II

85.

TYPE I & II OF ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA

(age)

65-75

55-65

a)

Type II

Type I

b)

Type I

Type II

86.

Endometrial carcinoma is the most common invasive cancer of the female genital tract

a)

T

b)

F

87.

Sequencing of the genomes of endometrioid carcinomas has shown that the most common mutations act to increase signaling through the _______pathway

a)

PIK3CA

b)

ARID1A

c)

PI3K/AKT

d)

PI3K

88.

Proliferative Endometrium -> Non-atypical hyperplasia

a)

due to mutation in PTEN

b)

due to mutation in MLH1

c)

due to mutation in KRAS

d)

due to mutation in ARID1A

89.

Aatypical hyperplasia -> Grade 1 uterine endometrioid Carcinoma

a)

due to mutation in ARID1A

b)

due to mutation in PIK3CA

c)

due to mutation in CTNNB1

d)

due to mutation in FGFR2

90.

Atrophic endometrium -> Serous endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma

a)

due to mutation in KRAS

b)

due to mutation in TP53

c)

due to mutation in MLH1

d)

due to mutation in PUTIN

91.

Serous endometrial Intraepithelial Carcinoma -> Serous Carcinoma

a)

due to mutation in FBXW7

b)

due to mutation in PTEN

c)

due to mutation in MLH1

92.

Endometrial adenocarcinoma presenting as a fungating mass in the fundus of the uterus

a)
b)
c)
d)
93.

Well differentiated (grade 1) endometrioid adenocarcinoma with preserved glandular architecture but lack of intervening stroma.

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.

Moderately differentiated (grade 2) endometrioid adenocarcinoma with glandular architecture admixed with solid areas

a)
b)
c)
d)
95.

Poorly differentiated endometrioid adenocarcinoma with a predominantly solid growth pattern.

a)

Grade 1

b)

Grade 2

c)

Grade 3

96.

Serous endometrial carcinoma is highly associated with disruptive mutations in the ______tumor suppressor gene.

a)

TP16

b)

TP53

c)

Rb

97.

an accumulation of p53 protein in the nucleus.

a)
b)
c)
d)
98.

Serous carcinoma of the endometrium with papillary growth pattern consisting of malignant cells with marked cytologic atypia including high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, atypical mitotic figures, and hyperchromasia

a)
b)
c)
99.

Strong, diffuse expression of p53 as detected by immunohistochemistry in endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma

a)
b)
c)
100.

Carcinosarcomas (also referred to as malignant mixed müllerian tumors) are mixed ___________and __________tumors

a)

epithelial

b)

mesenchymal

c)

endermal

d)

adenomal

101.

Carcinoma is confined to the corpus uteri itself.

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

102.

Carcinoma extends outside the true pelvis or involves the mucosa of the bladder or the rectum

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage III

c)

Stage II

d)

Stage IV

103.

Carcinoma extends outside the uterus but not outside the true pelvis

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

104.

Lymph node metastasis from a carcinosarcoma showing only the epithelial component, as is typically the case.

a)
b)
c)
105.

Micrograph showing both malignant epithelial and stromal component

a)
b)
c)
106.

Stage remains the most important factor in outcome; _________ are much more likely to present at advanced stage and have a decidedly worse prognosis.

Carcinosarcomas are aggressive tumors that resemble ________carcinoma genetically and have _______outcomes with current therapies.

a)

serous tumors

myometrial

poor

b)

serous tumors

Endometrial

Good

c)

Mucinous tumors

Endometrial

Good

d)

cervical tumors

Endometrial

poor

107.

Endometrioid (type ? ) carcinoma is often preceded by atypical hyperplasia and commonly has mutations that upregulate PI3K/ AKT signaling.

Serous (type ? ) carcinoma is associated with serous endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma, and the most common mutations are in TP53. TP53 mutations are also found in precursor lesions

a)

II

I

b)

I

II

108.

___________ is the most common malignancy of the female genital tract.

Type I tumors are _______and usually indolent; type II tumors are ______ aggressive tumors and have a _____prognosis.

a)

endometrial carcinoma

low-grade

high-grade

poor

b)

endometrial carcinoma

low-grade

high-grade

good

c)

endometrial carcinoma

high-grade

low-grade

poor

109.

___________ (commonly called fibroid) is perhaps the most common tumor in women

a)

intravenous leiomyomatosis

b)

Uterine leiomyoma

c)

disseminated peritoneal leiomyomatosis

110.

Leiomyoma showing well-differentiated, regular, spindle-shaped smooth muscle cells associated with hyalinization.

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
111.

The tumor cells are irregular in size and have hyperchromatic nuclei. Numerous mitotic figures are present

a)
b)
c)
d)
112.

Stromal nodules are _____, well-circumscribed tumors.

High-grade _______shows marked atypia and is associated with other gene fusions.

Both low- and high-grade ________are prone to late recurrences.

Leiomyomas are very common benign smooth muscle tumors that cause significant morbidity, but ______prone to malignant transformation.

_______(a malignant smooth muscle tumor) is an uncommon, highly malignant myometrial tumor that usually arises de novo.

a)

benign

stromal sarcoma

stromal sarcoma

they are

Leiomyosarcoma

b)

benign

stromal sarcoma

stromal sarcoma

are not

Leiomyosarcoma

c)

malignant

stromal sarcoma

stromal sarcoma

are not

Leiomyosarcoma

d)

malignant

stromal sarcoma

serous sarcoma

are not

Leiomyosarcoma

113.

___________ - is a complex endocrine disorder characterized by hyperandrogenism, menstrual abnormalities, polycystic ovaries, chronic anovulation, and decreased fertility

a)

Stromal hyperthecosis

b)

PCOS

c)

Serous Tumors

d)

Mucinous cystadenoma

114.

Most primary ovarian neoplasms arise from müllerian epithelium.

a)

F

b)

T

115.

most ovarian cancers have spread beyond the ovary and fallopian tube by the time of diagnosis.

a)

T

b)

F

116.

These cystic neoplasms include the most common malignant ovarian tumors and account for approximately 40% of all cancers of the ovary

a)

Mucinous tumor

b)

Serous tumor

117.

Mucinous tumors differ from the serous variety in several ways. The surface of the ovary is rarely involved, and only 5% of _________ and _________ are ______.

a)

primary mucinous cystadenomas

serous carcinomas

Bilateral

b)

primary mucinous cystadenomas

mucinous carcinomas

Bilateral

c)

primary mucinous cystadenomas

mucinous carcinomas

unilateral

118.

_____________ - characteristically demonstrates confluent glandular growth that is now recognized as a form of “expansile” invasion

a)

Mucinous carcinoma

b)

Serous carcinoma

119.

Mutation of the _____proto-oncogene is a consistent genetic alteration in mucinous tumors of the ovary

a)

PTEN

b)

KRAS

c)

BRCA2

120.

15% to 20% of cases, ___________ coexists with endometriosis.

a)

Serous tumor

b)

Mucinous tumor

c)

endometrioid carcinoma

121.

All ovarian carcinomas produce similar clinical manifestations, most commonly ________________ and abdominal enlargement.

a)

upper abdominal pain

b)

lower abdominal pain

c)

Mid-abdominal pain

122.

Most women with ovarian carcinoma present with high stage disease

a)

F

b)

T

123.

Epithelial ovarian tumors are classified into benign, ________, or malignant.

80% of all ovarian epithelial tumors are _____ and occur in _____women. The malignant tumors occur most commonly in _____women and account for approximately 3% of all cancers in women in the United States.

The majority of the malignant epithelial tumors are _________carcinomas, which have a poor prognosis in large part because they are usually detected after they have spread beyond the ovary and/or the fallopian tube

a)

borderline

benign

young

older

low-grade serous

b)

borderline

benign

young

older

high-grade serous

c)

borderline

malignant

young

older

high-grade serous

d)

borderline

benign

older

young

high-grade serous

124.

There are three major histologic types of epithelial ovarian tumors: serous, mucinous, and ________, all of which have a benign, borderline, and malignant category.

_______tumors are composed of well-differentiated epithelial cells with minimal proliferation.

_________ tumors show increased cell proliferation, but lack stromal invasion.

________tumors show increased epithelial atypia and are defined by the presence of stromal invasion.

a)

endometrioid

Benign

Malignant

Borderline

b)

endometrioid

malignant

Borderline

benign

c)

endometrioid

Benign

Borderline

Malignant

125.

1% of the dermoid cysts undergo malignant transformation, most commonly to ______

a)

cuboidal cell carcinoma

b)

squamous cell carcinoma

c)

adenocarcinoma

126.

Dysgerminoma is the ovarian counterpart of testicular _______

a)

Non-seminoma

b)

seminoma

127.

__________are distinguished from mature teratomas by the presence of embryonal or fetal elements, most often consisting of ____________.

a)

Immature teratomas

primitive neuroepithelium

b)

mature teratomas

primitive neuroepithelium

128.

Germ cell tumors constitute ________ of ovarian tumors.

The majority are mature cystic teratomas (dermoid cysts) in women of ________.

The remainder occur in young women and children; in these age groups, _________tumors dominate.

a)

25% to 30%

reproductive age.

malignant

b)

15% to 20%

reproductive age.

malignant

c)

15% to 20%

menopausal age.

malignant

129.

Granulosa cell tumors are of clinical importance for two reasons:

a)

they may behave like high-grade malignancies.

b)

they sometimes elaborate large amounts of estrogen

c)

they sometimes elaborate large amounts of progesterone

d)

they may behave like low-grade malignancies.

130.

These tumors are often functional; they most commonly produce masculinization or defeminization, but a few have estrogenic effects

a)

Fibromas

b)

Leydig tumors

c)

Sertoli tumors

d)

Sertoli-Leydig tumors

131.

___________are indolent tumors, but may recur 10 to 20 years after resection of the primary tumor. They are often hormonally active; such tumors are associated with _________, leading to an elevated risk of __________

a)

Granulosa cell tumors

hyperestrinism

myometrial carcinoma.

b)

Granulosa cell tumors

hyperestrinism

endometrial carcinoma.

c)

Granulosa cell tumors

hypoestrinism

endometrial carcinoma.

132.

Fibromas are relatively common benign tumors composed of fibroblasts. They are predominantly _______and are generally hormonally ________.

Pure thecomas are rare but may be hormonally _______.

Sertoli–Leydig cell tumors commonly present with ________; less than 5% recur or metastasize.

a)

bilateral

active

active

masculinization

b)

unilateral

inactive

active

masculinization

c)

bilateral

inactive

active

masculinization

d)

unilateral

inactive

active

feminization

133.

Ectopic pregnancy refers to implantation of the fetus in a site other than the normal intrauterine location; the most common site is the _________ (approximately 90% of cases).

a)

ampulla

b)

uterine fallopian tube

c)

extrauterine fallopian tube

d)

liver

134.

Spontaneous abortion, or “miscarriage,” is defined as pregnancy loss before _____weeks of gestation

a)

15

b)

20

c)

30

d)

35

135.

Tubal pregnancy is the most common cause of _______(blood-filled fallopian tube) and should always be suspected when a tubal hematoma is present

a)

hematosalpinx

b)

intraperitoneal hemorrhage

c)

tubal abortion

136.

Rupture of a tubal pregnancy is not medical emergency.

a)

T

b)

F

137.

Infections in the placenta develop by two pathways:

a)

descending infection through the birth canal

b)

ascending infection through the birth canal

c)

hematocritic

(transplacental) infection

d)

hematogenous (transplacental) infection

138.

Preeclampsia is a systemic syndrome characterized by widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction that presents during pregnancy with ______, _______, and _______

(choose all that apply)

a)

Hypotension

b)

hypertension

c)

edema

d)

proteinuria

139.

Hydatidiform moles are important to recognize because they are associated with an increased risk of persistent _________(invasive mole) or ________

a)

hematomas

b)

trophoblastic disease

c)

abnormal decidual vessels

d)

choriocarcinoma

140.

________ - is an infiltrative lesion that penetrates or even perforates the uterine wall.

a)

borderline mole

b)

Invasive mole

c)

benign mole

141.

______comprise less than 2% of gestational trophoblastic neoplasms. They are neoplastic proliferations of ___________, also called___________

a)

PTSDs

extravillous trophoblasts

intermediate trophoblasts

b)

PSTTs

extravillous trophoblasts

intermediate trophoblasts

c)

PSTTs

villous trophoblasts

intermediate trophoblasts

142.

__________- usually manifests as irregular vaginal spotting of a bloody, brown fluid. This discharge may appear in the course of an apparently normal pregnancy, after a miscarriage, or after curettage

a)

hydatidiform mole

b)

Gestational choriocarcinoma

c)

Trophoblastic Tumor