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Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 3hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Calculate the acceleration for segment A.
a)
2 m/s2
b)
20 m/s2
c)
-2 m/s2
d)
0 m/s2
2.
Acceleration of an object happens when things ________
a)
slow down
b)
go faster
c)
change direction (turn)
d)
All of the above
3.

Which of the following choices best represents the length reading from the metric ruler pictured?

a)

0.8 cm

b)

0.80 cm

c)

0.800 cm

d)

8 cm

4.

The diagram shows the height of a stack of identical coins. What is the thickness of one coin?

a)

0.20 mm

b)

2.00 mm

c)

0.24 cm

d)

2.00 cm

5.

The measurement by this vernier calliper is

a)

9.60 mm

b)

10.60 mm

c)

11.60 mm

d)

12.60 mm

6.

The measurement by this micrometer is

a)

5.18 mm

b)

5.68 mm

c)

6.18 mm

d)

6.68 mm

7.
A golf ball accelerates off a tee at 15m/s2, changing its velocity from 0m/s to 50 m/s down the fairway. How long did it take the golf ball to accelerate?
a)
750 seconds
b)
35 seconds
c)
0.3 seconds
d)
3.3 seconds
8.
Determine the motion of the car.
a)
at rest 
b)
moving at constant speed
c)
speeding up
d)
slowing down
9.
In each of the following cases, determine where the car has no acceleration ?
a)
A car shortly after a stoplight turns green.
b)
A car approaching a red light
c)
A car with the cruise control set at 80 km/h
d)
A car moving down a ramp
10.

A ball is moving at constant speed around the circle. Which letter represents the acceleration of the ball?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

Nonsense. The ball can't be accelerating while moving at a constant speed.

11.

Why do objects experience centripetal acceleration even though they can have a constant speed?

a)

Because they are speeding up as they move in a circle

b)

Because they are constantly changing direction and hence, velocity changes, and that net change is directed inward.

c)

Because they are constantly changing both speed and direction

d)

Because when you have 100 people pedaling, you can speed up more easily.

12.
A spring with k=73 N/m is compressed 70 cm.  An object of mass 4 kg is attached to one end of the compressed spring.  What is the acceleration of the object at the moment the spring is released?  
a)
.078 m/s/s
b)
0.17 m/s/s
c)
13 m/s/s
d)
1.3 X 10^5 m/s/s
13.

The graph shows the relationship between force and extension as a spring is extended. What is the name of point A?

a)

Point A is the optimum force.

b)

Point A is the limit of extension.

c)

Point A is the limit of force.

d)

Point A is the limit of proportionality

14.

The graph shows the relationship between force and extension as a spring is extended. What is another name for point A?

a)

Point A is the elastic limit

b)

Point A is the elastic summet

c)

Point A is the plastic limit

d)

Point A is the extension limit

15.

Which of the following produces the largest acceleration when forces are applied on a block?

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.

What is the moment produced by the 15 N?

a)

15 Nm

b)

150 Nm

c)

1.5 Nm

d)

0.15 Nm

17.

A wrench is used to tighten a nut. A 15N perpendicular force is applied 50cm away from the axis of rotation, and moves a distance of 10 cm as it turns. What is the moment of force applied to the wrench?

a)

7.5 Nm

b)

1.5 Nm

c)

750 Nm

d)

150 Nm

18.

Diagram shows Airin and Ammar sitting on a see-saw. The weight of Airin is 300 N while Ammar is 400 N. What is the distance of Ammar from the fulcrum so that the see-saw is balanced?

a)

1 m

b)

2 m

c)

3 m

d)

4 m

19.

What is the size of the moment shown by the black arrow?

a)

30 Nm

b)

36 Nm

c)

40 Nm

d)

60 Nm

20.
What is the anticlockwise moment acting on this crane?
a)
80,000Nm
b)
100,000Nm
c)
120,000Nm
d)
140,000Nm
21.

State the principle of moments.

a)

When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of the total clockwise moment is equal to the sum of the total anti-clockwise moment about the same pivot.

b)

When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of the total clockwise moment is greater the sum of the total anti-clockwise moment about the same pivot.

c)

When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of the total clockwise moment is less than the sum of the total anti-clockwise moment about the same pivot.

22.

Assuming the system is in equilibrium, calculate the missing distance d

a)

3.4 m

b)

2.8 m

c)

4.4 m

d)

1.6 m

23.

Define Centre of Gravity

a)

An objects ability to maintain a stable position

b)

The area around the contact points with the ground. The larger it is, the greater stability a person has.

c)

Base of support contributing factors

d)

The point at which all parts of an object are equally balanced

24.

The illustration shows a bunsen burner in 3 different positions. Which of these positions is the most stable?

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

Z

d)

W

25.

In this illustrations, which factors affecting the stability of an object?

a)

Area of the base

b)

Position of CG

c)

Weight of an object

d)

Condition of equilibrium

26.
Most modern vehicles have padded dashboards. This reduces collision injuries by...
a)
reducing the driver's change in momentum
b)
increasing the driver's change in momentum
c)
increasing the force of impact
d)
increasing the time of impact
27.
A person on a stationary skateboard throws a bowling ball with a velocity of 5.0 m/s. What is a possible speed of the person after the throw? 
a)
0 m/s
b)
1.5 m/s
c)
5.0  m/s
d)
7.5 m/s
28.
A 50 kg ball rolls down the street at 5 m/s. Calculate the momentum of the ball. 
a)
55 kg*m/s
b)
100 kg*m/s
c)
250 kg*m/s
d)
500 kg*m/s
29.

Two skaters begin at rest. Skater 1 has a smaller mass than Skater 2. After they push off each other,...

a)

Skater 1 experiences a greater change in momentum

b)

Skater 2 experiences a greater change in momentum

c)

Skater 1 has a greater speed than Skater 2

d)

Skater 1 experiences a greater force

30.
While playing pool, the white cue ball strikes the 8 ball. Before the collision, the cue ball's velocity was 10 m/s and the 8 ball was at rest. If both ball's have a mass of 0.15 kg and the cue ball's velocity after the collision is 2 m/s, what is the 8 ball's velocity?
a)
2 m/s
b)
8 m/s
c)
-2 m/s
d)
1.5 m/s
31.
A 120 kg lineman moving at -2 m/s tackles an 80 kg fullback moving at +8 m/s. If the fullback's velocity after they collide is +2 m/s, what is the lineman's velocity?
a)
2 m/s
b)
8.7 m/s
c)
4.7 m/s
d)
6 m/s
32.

A 5 N force is applied to a 3 kg ball to change its velocity from +9 m/s to +3 m/s. The impulse on the ball is ______ N s.

a)

-2.5

b)

-10

c)

-18

d)

-45

33.
Softer landings tend to
a)
increase impact force
b)
increase force
c)
increase collision time
d)
increase change in momentum
34.
The purpose of crumble zones on a car is to
a)
decrease time of impact.
b)
increase force of impact.
c)
increase the time of impact.
d)
decrease the impulse during impact.
35.
The impulse-momentum theorem states that
a)
the impulse on an object is equal to the change in momentum it causes 
b)
the force on a moving object is equal to the magnitude of the impulse.
c)
the impulse on an object is greater than the change in momentum it causes 
d)
the impulse on an object is less than the change in momentum it causes
36.
If an air bag changes a 60 kg person's speed from 40.0 m/s to     0.0 m/s, what impulse must act on the person? 
a)
 2400 kg.m/s
b)
1.5 kg.m/s
c)
0.67 kg.m/s
d)
1500 kg.m/s
37.

Which energy path shows one way energy can get to a light bulb?

a)

sun → water → dam → light bulb

b)

sun → air → wind turbine → light bulb

c)

sun → corn → ethanol plant → light bulb

d)

All of the answers are correct.

38.

What source of energy causes winds to blow around the Earth?

a)

wind turbines

b)

the Sun

c)

the ocean

d)

a chicken

39.

__________________ is the process in which two or more smaller nuclei combine to create a larger, more stable nuclei.

a)

Nuclear Decay

b)

Nuclear Fission

c)

Nuclear Fusion

d)

None of the above

40.

A __________________ is a nuclear fission reactor that produces more nuclear fuel than it consumes.

a)

Fission Reactor

b)

Breeder Reactor

c)

Core Reactor

d)

Fusion Reactor

41.
Where does fusion occur naturally?
a)
Underwater
b)
All around us
c)
In the radioactive waste
d)
On the sun
42.
Which of the following best describes the process of nuclear fission? 
a)
Splitting an atom's nucleus apart 
b)
Separating an atom's electrons from its nucleus 
c)
Fusing two atomic nuclei together 
d)
Splitting an atom's electrons in half 
43.
What is an advantage  of nuclear energy?
a)
radioactive waste
b)
no air pollution
c)
we will never run out
d)
it is the safest way to make energy
44.
Nuclear power uses ____ for fuel.
a)
steel
b)
coal
c)
uranium
d)
hydrogen
45.
What controls the reaction within a nuclear reactor?
a)
Control Rods
b)
Moderator
c)
Containment building
d)
Reactor Vessel
46.

Two equal mass marbles are at the top of a ramp. One marble falls to the ground off the back while the other rolls down the ramp. What is true about the marbles when they reach the ground?

a)

The marble that rolled down the ramp is moving faster than the marble that fell.

b)

The marble that fell down the back of the ramp is moving faster than the marble that rolled.

c)

The marble that rolled down the ramp is not moving when it reaches the ground.

d)

The two marbles are moving with the same speed.

47.

Suppose a cart has a kinetic energy of 0.5 J. If you add enough mass to double the mass and make the cart go three times as fast, its kinetic energy is now ---.

a)

6 J

b)

3 J

c)

18 J

d)

9 J

48.

In diagram 2, if the 600 kg cart is initially at rest, what is its velocity at point B?

a)

19.8 m/s

b)

15.0 m/s

c)

10.3 m/s

d)

3.8 m/s

49.

A crane lifts an 8-m long steel girder weighing 2600 N up 15 m off the ground. The crane did ___ of work.

a)

0 J

b)

39000 J

c)

20800 J

d)

2600 J

50.

A 40-kg person is climbing 3 m up a flight of stairs in 6 seconds. How much work did they do climbing the stairs?

a)

400 J

b)

1200 J

c)

200 J

d)

120 J

51.

How high up is a 3200-kg plane if it has 960000 J of potential energy?

a)

10 m

b)

30 m

c)

307200000 m

d)

300 m

52.

How does conservation of energy explain why something that is falling should speed up?

a)

It gains kinetic energy because it gains potential energy.

b)

It loses kinetic energy because no work was done on it.

c)

It gains kinetic energy because it loses potential energy.

d)

It loses kinetic energy because the Earth gains potential energy.

53.

A 100 N force is applied to move an object a horizontal distance of 5 meters at constant speed in 10 seconds. How much power is done?

a)

50J

b)

50W

c)

500J

d)

500W

54.
Which of the following would increase the pressure on a system?
a)
Increase the Temperature
b)
Pump in more gas
c)
Decrease the volume
d)
All of these
55.

Fluids exert pressure because they

a)

contain force particles

b)

are confined to small area

c)

have constantly moving particles

d)

all of these are correct

56.

A submarine is found 20 meters below the surface of the sea. The density of sea water is 1020 kg m-3 and g = 10 m/s2 What is the pressure due to the sea water acting on the submarine?

a)

20.4 Pa

b)

2.04 x 103 Pa

c)

2.04 x 102 Pa

d)

2.04 x 105 Pa

e)

2.04 x 10-2 Pa

57.

The pressure due to water at the base of a pond is measured as 50 kPa. What is the depth of the pond?

[density of water is 1,000 kg m-3]

a)

10 meter

b)

12 meter

c)

8 meter

d)

5 meter

58.

At what depth is the pressure due to water on a diver equal to the atmospheric pressure

[Atmospheric pressure at sea level = 100 kPa;

density of water = 1,000 kg m-3]

a)

1 m

b)

10 m

c)

20 m

d)

100 m

59.

Calculate the pressure exerted by the water on the fish.

[Density of water = 1 000 kg m−3

Atmospheric pressure at sea level, Patm = 1.0 x105 Pa]

a)

5.0 × 104 Pa

b)

5.0 × 107 Pa

c)

5.0 × 106 Pa

d)

5.0 × 10-1 Pa

60.

The diagram shows an apparatus set up to measure atmospheric pressure.

Calculate the pressure at point Q.

a)

10 cm Hg

b)

85 cm cm Hg

c)

90 cm Hg

d)

15 cm Hg

61.

The diagram shows a set up of apparatus for measuring atmospheric pressure. If the density of mercury is

13,600 kgm-3, determine the atmospheric pressure as measured by the instrument.

a)

100,000 Pa

b)

101,000 Pa

c)

123,760 Pa

d)

103,360 Pa

62.

What is the pressure difference, in cm of water, shown by the manometer?

a)

9

b)

16

c)

20

d)

25

63.

A manometer is used to measure the pressure of an unknown gas. What is the Pressure of the unknown gas? (atmospheric pressure = 100 kPa, density of mercury = 13,600 kg/m3)

a)

121.8 kPa

b)

128.6 kPa

c)

106.8 kPa

d)

93.2 kPa

64.

The pressure inside the toy is

a)

more than the air pressure

b)

less than the air pressure

c)

equal to the air pressure

d)

equal to the gauge pressure

65.

What is the pressure of trapped gas

a)

76 cm of Hg

b)

66 cm of Hg

c)

86 cm of Hg

d)

10 cm of Hg

66.

The kinetic model of matter states that

a)

atoms and molecules move in continuous and non-random motion.

b)

atoms and molecules move in continuous and random motion.

c)

the kinetic energies of atoms and molecules increase with increasing temperature.

d)

the pressure of atoms and molecules is due to the collision of these particles with the walls of the container they are in.

67.

Using a microscope, Peter observes that some pollen grains suspended in water move in an irregular manner. This is due to the

a)

pollen grains colliding with one another.

b)

pollen grains repelling one another.

c)

bombardment of pollen grains by water molecules.

d)

bombardment of water molecules by pollen grains.

68.

Solids have high densities relative to liquids because

1 the particles in solids are far apart.

2 the particles in solids have large masses.

3 the particles in solids do not move about.

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

None of the above

69.

What effect does Evaporation cause ?

a)

Heating Effect

b)

Magnetic Effect

c)

Cooling Effect

d)

Warming Effect

70.

What happens when a liquid perfume is sprayed on your palm ?

a)

The liquid gain heat from the sanitizer and evaporate

b)

The liquid gain heat from the surroundings and evaporate

c)

The liquid gain heat from the palm and evaporate

d)

The liquid gain heat from the palm or surroundings and evaporate

71.

What is the difference between boiling and evaporation ?

a)

Boiling happens at any temperature while evaporation happens at 100 C for pure water

b)

evaporation happens at any temperature while boiling happens at 100 C for pure water

c)

Boiling happens only at the surface of the liquid

d)

No difference

72.

A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct?

a)

Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.

b)

Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid surface.

c)

Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid surface.

d)

Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

73.

Which two variables must be held constant for Boyle’s Law to apply?

a)

pressure & volume

b)

volume & temperature

c)

temperature & mass (amount of gas)

d)

volume & mass (amount of gas)

74.
A gas occupies 4.98 L at 2.6 atm of pressure. What volume does it occupy at 1.8 atm pressure?
a)
12.9 L
b)
0.72 L
c)
7.2 L
d)
3.44 L
75.

In CHARLES'S LAW, volume and temperature have a ______ proportionality.

a)

direct

b)

inverse

c)

linear

d)

exponential

76.

1. Chlorine gas occupies a volume of 1.2 liters at 720 torr pressure. What volume will it occupy at 1 atm pressure?

a)

42 L

b)

1 L

c)

8 L

d)

6 L

77.

A resistor whose resistance changes a lot over a small temperature range is called...

a)

thermocouple

b)

thermistor

c)

thermal

d)

thermometer

78.

the total energy of all particles is called...

a)

energy

b)

internal energy

c)

thermistor

d)

thermocuple

79.

Which thermometer has the greatest sensitivity and which thermometer has the greatest range?

a)

greatest sensitivity:P greatest range:R

b)

greatest sensitivity:P greatest range:S

c)

greatest sensitivity:Q greatest range:R

d)

greatest sensitivity:Q greatest range:S

80.

The liquid -in-glass thermometer contains mercury.Which physical property of the mercury varies with temperature, enabling the thermometer to operate?

a)

mass

b)

melting point

c)

resistance

d)

volume

81.

Which statement defines the thermal capacity (heat capacity) of a solid body?

a)

the energy needed to melt the body without a change in temperature

b)

the energy needed to raise the temperature of the body by one degree Celsius

c)

the increase in the volume of the body when its temperature is raised by one degree Celsius

d)

the total amount of internal energy in the body

82.

A liquid X of mass 1 kg requires 3800 J of heat to raise its temperature by 10C.

Calculate the total heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of liquid X by 30C.

a)

3800 J

b)

7600 J

c)

11 400 J

83.

The time taken by an electric heater to raise the temperature of 4 kg of water from 250C to 300C is 1 minute. If the specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg-1 oC-1, calculate the power of the heater.

a)

70 W

b)

140 W

c)

700 W

d)

1400 W

84.

The specific heat of a liquid is 1000 J kg-1 K-1. What amount of heat is needed to raise the temperature of 4.0 kg of liquid from 30°C to 40°C?

a)

4.0 × 103 J

b)

2.0 × 104 K

c)

4.0 × 104 J

d)

4.0 × 104 K

85.

A 2.0 kg solid has a specific latent heat of of fusion of 220 kJ kg-1. An electric heater of power 1500 W is used to heat the solid. Assuming no heat loss, how long does it take to completely melt the solid at constant temperature?

a)

290 seconds

b)

290 minutes

c)

150 seconds

d)

150 minutes

86.

Find the energy released by a copper block when it is cooled from 100°C to 20°C. Given that the heat capacity of the block is 770 J°C-1.

a)

7.70x104 J

b)

8.61x104 J

c)

6.16x104 J

d)

5.02x104 J

87.

Latent heat is

a)

the heat absorbed or released at a boiling process during a change of phase

b)

the heat absorbed or released at a constant temperature during a change of phase

c)

the heat absorbed or released at a constant temperature during a change of phase of 1 kg object

d)

the heat absorbed or released by an object to increase or decrease its temperature by 1 degree Celcius

88.

The heat absorbed by melting a solid is known as

a)

latent heat of fusion

b)

latent heat of solid

c)

latent heat of liquid

d)

latent heat of vaporisation

89.

Calculate the energy absorbed by 30 g of 100 ⁰C water that is turned into 100 ⁰C.

a)

67 800 J

b)

6 7800 J

c)

678 J

d)

67.8 J

90.

How much energy is required to change 5 kg of ice at 0 °\degree C into water at the same temperature? (latent heat of fusion is 3.36 X 10610^6 J/kg )

a)

16.1 XundefinedJ

b)

16.8 XundefinedJ

c)

15.1 Xundefinedcal

d)

16.8 Xundefinedcal

91.

Consider the following temperature-time graph when a solid is heated. which part of the graph involves latent heat of vaporization?

a)

Part I

b)

Part II

c)

Part III

d)

Part IV

92.

The transfer of energy through molecules in direct contact is ...

a)

Heat

b)

Conduction

c)

Convection

d)

Radiation

93.
The flow of energy that occurs when a warm liquid or gas rises ..
a)
Heat
b)
Conduction
c)
Convection
d)
Radiation
94.
The transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves.
a)
Heat
b)
Conduction
c)
Convection
d)
Radiation
95.
What is the difference between heat and temperature?    
a)
a.  Temperature measures the motion of molecules, and heat is the energy of that motion
b)
b.  Temperature is measured by a thermometer, and heat is measured by a barometer
c)
c.  Heat is measured in calories, and temperature is measured in joules
d)
d.  Heat is caused by the sun, and temperature is caused by conditions in the atmosphere
96.

What is thermal conductivity?

a)

The rate at which particles move in a substance

b)

The ability of a substance to have a large thermal energy

c)

A factor that determines the amount of thermal energy of a substance

d)

The rate at which a substance transfers heat

97.

Oil storage tanks are painted white because white surfaces are

a)

good absorbers of radiation

b)

good emitters of radiation

c)

poor absorbers of radiation

d)

poor emitters of radiation

98.

Why does the ice take a long time to melt, even when the water at the top of the test-tube

is boiling?

a)

Convection cannot occur in water.

b)

Ice is a poor radiator of heat.

c)

Convection is taking place.

d)

Water is a poor conductor of heat.

99.

Why the the cooling fins at the back of a refrigerator painted black?

a)

black surfaces are good absorbers of radiation

b)

black surfaces are good emitters of radiation

c)

black surfaces are poor absorbers of radiation

d)

black surfaces are poor emitters of radiation

100.

In cold countries, animals grow thicker layers of fur in winter because

a)

it is a good conductor of heat.

b)

it is a poor conductor of heat.

c)

it traps more air, which is a good conductor of heat.

d)

it traps more air, which is a poor conductor of heat.

101.

Which type of waves do the particles vibrate perpendicular to the energy?

a)

surface

b)

transverse

c)

mechanical

d)

longitudinal

102.

What is the amplitude of a wave?

a)

the amount of time that occurs in one cycle

b)

the amount of cycles that occur in a given time

c)

the distance traveled by the wave during one full cycle

d)

the size of the disturbance

103.

What is the wavelength of a wave?

a)

the size of the disturbance

b)

the distance between two crests of a wave

c)

the amount of time that occurs in one full cyle

d)

the amount of cycles that occur in a given time

104.

The lowest point on a wave is the :

a)

amplitude

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

wavelength

105.

The number of wavelengths that pass a point in a given amount of time is:

a)

frequency

b)

longitudinal

c)

period

d)

transverse

106.

When the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to the wavelength?

a)

the wavelength is not directly affected by the frequency

b)

the wavelength increases

c)

the wavelength decreases

d)

not enough information is given

107.

Amplitude reflects the amount of _______________ in a wave.

a)

energy

b)

speed

c)

number of cycles

d)

number of troughs

108.

If a wave has a frequency of 2 cycles per second and its wavelength is 5 meters, the wave speed is

a)

2.5 meters per second

b)

2.5 meters

c)

10 meters per second

d)

10 meters

109.

Sound waves travel 343 meters per second. What is the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 343 Hz?

a)

343 m

b)

1 m

c)

343 seconds

d)

1 second

110.
One end of the rope is vibrated to produce a wave with a wavelength of .25 m.  The Frequency of the wave is 3.0 Hz.  What is the speed of the wave?
a)
3.00 m/s
b)
2.50 m/s
c)
.75 m/s
d)
1.25 m/s
111.
A wave has wavelength of 10 m and a speed of 340 m/s. What is the frequency of the wave?
a)
34 m/s
b)
3400 Hz
c)
3400 m/s
d)
34 Hz
112.
Bending of waves around an object (such as through a doorway)
a)
sound
b)
diffract
c)
pitch
d)
volume
113.
A wave in which the vibration is in the same direction as that in which the wave is traveling; sound waves
a)
longitudinal wave
b)
ocean wave
c)
transverse wave
d)
mechanical wave
114.
The part of a longitudinal wave where the particles of the medium are close together.
a)
rarefaction
b)
compression
c)
crest
d)
trough
115.
A part in a longitudinal wave where the particles are spread apart
a)
compression
b)
rarefaction
c)
crest
d)
trough
116.
A reflected sound wave
a)
frequency
b)
pitch
c)
echo
d)
rarefaction
117.
If a wave is traveling at 260 m/s and has a wavelength of 0.8 m/s, what is its frequency?
a)
208 Hz
b)
325 Hz
c)
430 Hz
d)
160 Hz
118.

The speed of sound depends on these two things:

a)

The type of medium and the temperature of the medium

b)

Speed of the medium and temperature of the medium

c)

Temperature of the medium and sound of the medium

d)

None of the above

119.
According to Willebord Snell, light passing from air to glass will cause the light to
a)
maintain its original speed 
b)
accelerate while it is in glass
c)
increase its speed
d)
reduce its speed
120.
According to the Law of reflection, a light ray striking a mirror
a)
continues moving through the mirror in the same direction
b)
moves into the mirror at a slightly different angle
c)
bounces off the mirror toward the direction it came from
d)
bounces off the mirror at the same angle it hits.
121.
This shows the phenomenon known as....
a)
reflection
b)
refraction
c)
mirrors
d)
focal point