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Electrical Power

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A typical AC power system design

a)

Prevents two sources to the same load at the same time

b)

Encourages two sources to the same load at the same time

c)

Provide 3 phase, 200V at 200Hz

2.

A static inverter uses battery power to make?

a)

AC power

b)

DC power

c)

AC and DC power

3.

Which of these is the correct hierarchy for power distribution?

a)

1. Hot bus 2.Essential bus

3. AC Bus

4. AC Essential bus

5. Non Essential bus

b)

1. Hot bus 2.Essential bus

3. AC Essential Bus

4. AC bus

5. Non Essential bus

c)

1. Essential bus

2. Hotbus

3. AC Bus

4. AC Essential bus

5. Non Essential bus

4.

The aircraft battery is normally directly connected to?

a)

Hot battery bus

b)

DC Essential battery bus

c)

AC Bus

5.

Shed busses or isolation busses are also called?

a)

Non-essential bus

b)

AC bus

c)

Essential DC bus

6.

Under normal operating conditions with both generators on line, the Bus Tie breaker in a parallel DC bus system is?

a)

Closed

b)

Open

c)

Alternating

7.

Under normal operating conditions with both generators on line, the bus tie contactor is what in a Split Bus system?

a)

Open

b)

Closed

c)

Alternating

8.

When does the Bus Tie Contactor in a Split Bus system close?

a)

When only one generator is available

b)

When both generators are available

c)

When neither generators are available

9.

In a Basic Twin Engine AC Bus System, should the AC supply fail, what would be commanded to start and provide emergency AC from the battery?

a)

Static inverter

b)

TRU

c)

Inverter

10.

Tied AC Bus Systems must be synchronised for?

a)

.Equal frequency

.In phase

.Correct Phase rotation

.Equal Output voltage

b)

.Equal frequency

.Out of phase

.Correct Phase rotation

.Inverse Output voltage

c)

.Different frequency

.In phase

.Opposite Phase rotation

.Equal Output voltage

11.

Relays are usually used for?

a)

Low-current switching applications

b)

High current switching applications

c)

Power distribution

12.

The part of the relay attracted by the electromagnet to close the contact points is called?

a)

Armature

b)

Pivot

c)

Spring

13.

What are used to prevent unsynchronised power sources being connected in parallel?

a)

Interlocking circuitry through auxiliary contacts

b)

Interlocking circuitry through essential contacts

c)

Interlocking circuitry through primary contacts

14.

Aircraft, almost without the exception, use a?

a)

Negative ground, single wire earth return system

b)

Positive ground, single wire earth return system

c)

Negative ground, double wire earth return system

15.

Benefit for grounding in a single wire earth system is?

a)

Reduced chance of developing RFI

b)

Less susceptible to arcing

c)

Provides a larger range of voltages

16.

Where does the positive terminal of the battery connect to?

a)

Battery solenoid

b)

Hot bus

c)

Master switch

17.

What is installed across the coil of the solenoid to eliminate spikes when the master switch is opened and the magnetic field from the coil collapses?

a)

Freewheeling diode

b)

Capacitor

c)

Solenoid

18.

What is used to allow the induced EMF to feed back into itself rather than back into the distribution system?

a)

Freewheeling diode

b)

Contactor

c)

Safety relay

19.

Most aircraft isolate the battery if the external DC power is applied to the aircraft. What is the purpose of this?

a)

Stop the build up of hydrogen released from batteries during charging

b)

Protect from overvoltage potentially causing an explosion

c)

So the battery can't supply any extra voltage damaging other systems

20.

Where are the thermistor mounted in a NiCad battery?

a)

Intercell connector link

b)

On the positive lead

c)

On the outer cover

21.

What can be used on a lead acid battery for ventilation?

a)

Sump jar

b)

Oil

c)

Coolant

22.

When installing a battery, always connect the?

a)

Positive lead first

b)

Negative lead first

c)

Positive to the negative terminal

23.

A type of automatic transmission that maintains a constant output rpm with a variable input rpm is called?

a)

Constant speed drive generator

b)

Voltage regulator

c)

DC motor

24.

What should you smear battery lugs with before connection to inhibit corrosion?

a)

Petroleum jelly

b)

Loctite

c)

WD-40

25.

If there is no inbuilt locking device on a battery connector, they should be wired closed with?

a)

26AWG copper wire (Safety wire)

b)

24AWG copper wire (Safety wire)

c)

22AWG copper wire (Safety wire)

26.

The only servicing permitted on lead acid batteries fitted to an airacft is?

a)

Check the electrolyte levels and cleaning the terminals

b)

Check the electrolyte levels

c)

Cleaning the terminals

27.

Lead acid batteries require what to neutralise?

a)

Water and bicarbonate soda

b)

Chromic acid solution

c)

Boric acid solution or vinegar

28.

NiCad batteries spills on aircraft require what to neutralise?

a)

Water and bicarbonate soda

b)

Chromic acid solution

c)

Boric acid solution or vinegar

29.

NiCad battery spills off airacft require what to neutralise?

a)

Water and bicarbonate soda

b)

Chromic acid solution

c)

Boric acid solution or vinegar

30.

The dashpot P provides what in a vibrating type regulator?

a)

Smoother operation by acting as a dampener to prevent hunting

b)

Elimiate sparking

c)

Excess current to build up

31.

Capacitor C across contact B purpose is?

a)

Smoother operation by acting as a dampener to prevent hunting

b)

Eliminate sparking

c)

Over voltage protection

32.

If the solenoid should malfunction or the contacts stick closed, excess current would flow to the field and?

a)

The generator output would increase

b)

The generator output would decrease

c)

The rheostat would fail

33.

L4 is?

a)

Current (series) winding made of a few turns of heavy wire

b)

Voltage (shunt) winding made of many turns of fine wire

c)

Current (series) winding made of a few turns of fine wire

34.

L5 is?

a)

Current (series) winding made of a few turns of heavy wire

b)

Voltage (Shunt) winding made of many turns of fine wire

c)

Voltage (Shunt) winding made of many turns of heavy wire

35.

What is a heavy duty, compound wound generator with differential voltage reverse current cut out relays used to produce current for some large older aircraft?

a)

Carbon pile regulator

b)

Brushless alternator

c)

Voltage regulator

36.

On a carbon pile voltage regulator, what does the leaf spring do in a overvoltage condition?

a)

Releases tension

b)

Builds tension

c)

Adjusts the rheostat

37.

What does the grounded regulator control?

a)

The amount of current in the ground wire to the field winding in the rotor

b)

The amount of current in the battery wire to the field winding in the rotor

c)

The amount of current through the voltage regulator

38.

What does the regulator in a grounded field type voltage regulator control?

a)

The amount of current in the ground wire to the field winding in the rotor

b)

The amount of current in the battery wire to the field winding in the rotor

c)

The amount of current through the voltage regulator

39.

What is the purpose of the surge quench diode?

a)

The diode is reverse bias and will not conduct, protecting T1

b)

The diode is forward bias and will not conduct, protecting T1

c)

The diode is reverse bias and will not conduct, protecting T2

40.

What will happen if the more generator output is required?

a)

The GCU will increase the exciter field current, increasing the exciter armature output and the main field current

b)

The GCU will decrease the exciter field current, decreasing the exciter armature output and the main field current

c)

The GCU will increase the exciter field current, decreasing the exciter armature output and the main field current

41.

A constant speed drive will maintain what frequency?

a)

400 Hz

b)

4800 Hz

c)

1200 Hz

42.

What is used to provide constant speed generator operation in an AC electrical system?

a)

Constant speed drive

b)

Governor drive

c)

Rectifier assembly

43.

What is used for fast line repair of an aircraft that has a defective Integrated Drive Generator?

a)

QAD adapter

b)

Hydraulic release connector

c)

Mechanical slip-nut

44.

A normal operating temperature for oil in an Integrated Generator System is approx?

a)

93 Degrees Celsius

b)

83 Degrees Celcuis

c)

73 Degrees Celsius

45.

After disconnection during flight of a constant speed drive, it can only be reconnected?

a)

On ground

b)

During flight

c)

Anytime

46.

What is a benefit to a Constant Speed Drive generator?

a)

Reduce both weight and size of traditional two unit system

b)

Cannot fail

c)

Can give a variety of frequency outputs

47.

If the adjustment screw is turned clockwise on a Integrated Drive Generator, what will happen?

a)

Increase frequency

b)

Decrease frequency

c)

Change the frequency 3-4 Hz

48.

A 360 degree turn of the adjustment screw on an Integrated Drive Generator will?

a)

Increase the frequency

b)

Decrease the frequency

c)

Change the frequency 3-4Hz

49.

What is a negative to the governor adjustment on a Integrated Drive Generator?

a)

Unstable and erratic frequencies cannot be corrected

b)

Only select frequencies can be corrected

c)

Very short life span

50.

What on a Integrated Drive Generator does not have bypass capabilities and will become blocked causing the IDG to be replaced?

a)

Hydraulic filters

b)

Oil cooler

c)

Charge relief valve

51.

The use of oil cooling in a IDG allows for?

a)

Higher speed rotor

b)

Lower speed rotor

c)

Less friction in the system

52.

What is installed in generator feeder cables to prevent shorting to the airframe?

a)

Differential feeder fault protection

b)

Shielded wiring

c)

Voltage protectors

53.

What is used to convert a portion of DC power to AC power?

a)

Inverter

b)

Converter

c)

Transformer

54.

Which inverter is lighter for the same power rating, but has complications in disturbing multiphase power and in keeping the loads balanced?

a)

Multiphase inverter

b)

Single phase inverter

c)

Static inverter

55.

Which maintenance should not be carried out in the field on an inverter?

a)

Control box on top of the inverter

b)

Complete removal for bench testing

c)

The connector

56.

Which type of inverter has the disadvantages such as lack of frequency control, low surge capability (50% above maximum rating) and lower efficiency (50-80%)?

a)

Rotary inverter

b)

Static inverter

c)

Transformer

57.

What is the major difference between a static inverter and a rotary inverter?

a)

No moving parts in a static inverter

b)

No moving parts in a rotary inverter

c)

There is no differences

58.

What allows the value of AC voltage and current to be changed through the use of mutual inductance?

a)

Transformers

b)

Inverters

c)

Current limiter

59.

Whenever the volts are increased in a transformer, the amperes must?

a)

Decrease by the same ratio

b)

Increase by the same ratio

c)

No change

60.

The conversion of AC to DC is accomplished by a circuit called?

a)

TRU

b)

Transformer

c)

Current limiter

61.

The thermal switch on a TRU system will activate at what temperature to illuminate a warning light?

a)

150-200 degrees C

b)

100-150 degrees C

c)

50-100 degrees C

62.

A star to star transformer's input and output are?

a)

In phase

b)

Out of phase

c)

30 degrees out of phase

63.

A star to delta transformer's input and output are?

a)

In phase

b)

Out of phase

c)

30 degrees out of phase

64.

The parallel rectified outputs of the two secondary windings in a TRU have a DC ripple of?

a)

4800 Hz

b)

1200 Hz

c)

400 Hz

65.

What kind of fuse is commonly found in aircraft power distributions and other high current DC power systems?

a)

Current limiter

b)

Fuse links

c)

Slow blow fuse

66.

A current limiter will take over _______ longer to open than a fast blow fuse?

a)

6 times

b)

3 times

c)

2 times

67.

If a circuit breaker has tripped, what must you do?

a)

Reset it

b)

Isolate the fault and repair it

c)

Replace the circuit breaker

68.

Which circuit breaker will still trip even if trying to reset it?

a)

Trip free

b)

Non trip free

c)

Reverse current

69.

Which circuit breaker can be manually held closed?

a)

Trip free

b)

Non trip free

c)

Reverse current

70.

What is the primary reason why circuit breakers and fuses are so close to the power supply?

a)

Protect the wiring run from short circuits

b)

Protect the component at the end of the wiring

c)

Less RMI from the large variety of voltages and current

71.

What is the secondary feature of placing circuit breakers and fuses so close to the power supply?

a)

Protect the wiring run from short circuits

b)

Protect the component at the end of the wiring

c)

Less RMI from the large variety of voltages and current

72.

What serves the purpose to permit switching of a generator on to the main bus bar and at the same time retain the disconnect function in the event of reverse current in a DC generator system?

a)

Relay

b)

Voltage regulator

c)

Shunt field

73.

Which type of circuit breaker is designed to protect power supply system and associated circuits against currents of a magnitude greater than those at which cut outs normally operate?

a)

Trip free

b)

Non trip free

c)

Reverse current

74.

What is the purpose of the inverse time delay?

a)

Prevent nuisance tripping under transient conditions

b)

Prevent excess current build up through the overvoltage doctor

c)

Act as a relay for the system

75.

Which system is applied to some AC generating systems to provide protection against faults between phases or between one of the phases and ground?

a)

Merz Price Protection

b)

Differential Current Protection

c)

Magnetic Amplifier Overvoltage Protection

76.

The smaller pin on a DC external power receptacle is for?

a)

Interlock sensing and polarity check

b)

Power supply

c)

Ground return