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3rd Quarter Science Grade 5

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the living and nonliving things in an environment or area interacting with one another?

a)

predator

b)

producer

c)

ecosystem

d)

abiotic factor

2.

NON-living things found in an ecosystem

a)

biotic

b)

abiotc

c)

habitat

3.

LIVING things in an ecosystem

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

c)

ecosystem

4.

Salinity of the water, sunlight and air are abiotic components of an ecosystem

a)

True

b)

False

5.
The most important abiotic factor in an ecosystem since it provides energy to producers
a)
water
b)
oxygen
c)
sunlight
d)
nutrients
6.
What type of organism makes its own food?
a)
consumer
b)
carnivore
c)
producer
d)
animal
7.
What are organisms that use other organisms for food in order to gain energy?
a)
decomposers
b)
producers
c)
herbivores
d)
consumers
8.
Which are examples of consumers?
a)
grass and cows
b)
turtles and seaweed
c)
owls and bears
d)
sun and mushrooms
9.
Which of the following would support that insects are consumers?
a)
Insects get their energy by eating plants or animals.
b)
Insects are able to make their own food.
c)
Insects get their energy from the air.
d)
Insects are able to live without energy.
10.

Plants get material for growth mostly from air and water, and obtain energy from sunlight. Producers provide food to consumers because ___.

a)
plants can easily make food from soil and water
b)
animals cannot produce their own food
c)
plants are more abundant in ecosystems
d)
many animals prefer eating plants to eating meat
11.
What do decomposers eat?
a)
only plants
b)
plants and animals
c)
only other animals
d)
dead organisms
12.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a decomposer
a)
fungi
b)
hawk
c)
bacteria
d)
insects
13.

Why do decomposers eat dead organisms?

a)

because it is the only way they get close to food

b)

because they break down dead organisms to simple nutrients

c)

because they consume the nutrients and transfer it to animals when they are eaten

d)

because dead organisms are easier to catch and no other animals will consume it

14.

Zooplanktons are _________

a)
decomposers
b)
producers
c)
herbivores
d)
consumers
15.

Cyanobacteria are oxygenic photosynthetic bacteria. They harvest the sun's energy, absorb carbon dioxide, and emit oxygen. What are they?

a)
decomposers
b)
producers
c)
herbivores
d)
consumers
16.

An estuary is best defined as a place where--

a)

fresh and salt water meet

b)

a river meets the Chesapeake Bay

c)

a group of animals are gathered

d)

the water from the land flows into a river

17.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of estuaries?

a)

Estuaries provide a habitat for biotic factors

b)

Estuaries create a protective refuge for living things

c)

Estuaries allow juvenile animals to grow into adults safetly

d)

Estuaries create shelter for aquatic and non-aquatic life.

18.
Which of the following is NOT true about an Estuary?
a)
They can be comprised of multiple other intertidal zones
b)
They are a common mating ground for Marine birds
c)
They are often found where a river meets the ocean
d)
They are all saltwater
19.

Why are estuaries important to our environment?

a)

Estuaries filter pollutants and prevent erosion.

b)

Estuaries provide nurseries for marine life.

c)

Estuaries act as home for many types of wildlife.

d)

All of the above.

20.
When salt and fresh water mix, what is the new water substance called?
a)
Brackish Acid
b)
Fresh Water
c)
Salt Water
d)
Brackish Water
21.

Plants like sampaguita and narra are the primary producers in estuaries.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Estuaries are among the most productive ecosystems in the world because the water flowing through them brings in nutrients from the surrounding land.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Estuaries play an important role in fishery as nursery grounds for some species of fish.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

All forms of aquatic organisms can survive in estuaries.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The two different states of the Intertidal Zone include:

a)

Low tide and the splash zone

b)

Low tide and medium tide

c)

Low tide and high tide

d)

High tide and the splash zone

26.

What is layer A?

a)

Upper intertidal zone

b)

Middle intertidal zone

c)

Lower Intertidal zone

27.

What is layer B?

a)

Upper intertidal zone

b)

Middle intertidal zone

c)

Lower Intertidal zone

28.

What is layer C?

a)

Upper intertidal zone

b)

Middle intertidal zone

c)

Lower Intertidal zone

29.

Which layer is flooded and unflooded twice a day with saltwater from the tides.

a)

Upper intertidal zone

b)

Middle intertidal zone

c)

Lower Intertidal zone

30.

They are always submerged in water and are only exposed for a longer period during extremely low tide

a)

Upper intertidal zone

b)

Middle intertidal zone

c)

Lower Intertidal zone

31.

Water is not enough to sustain many plants in this zone because it is covered by water only during high tide.

a)

Upper intertidal zone

b)

Middle intertidal zone

c)

Lower Intertidal zone

32.

The intertidal zone is the area where land meets the sea, between the highest high tide and the lowest low tide.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Ecosystem found on marine shorelines alternating between high and low tide

a)

Abyssal Zone

b)

Coral Reef

c)

Intertidal Zone

d)

Open Ocean

34.

Species living in the Intertidal Zone include

a)

Sharks

b)

Whales

c)

Sea Stars

d)

Jellyfish

35.

Seaweed can also be found in the upper intertidal zone.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Some animals hide under plants or burrow into the sand to avoid too much exposure to sun. This is a challenge related to _____.

a)

moisture

b)

salinity

c)

temperature

d)

wave action

37.

Seaweed have leaves that tough, preventing them from being torn by the waves. This is a challenge related to _____.

a)

salinity

b)

wave action

c)

temperature

d)

predators

38.

Look at the food web, who consume rabbit?

a)

bird and snake

b)

fox and hawk

c)

frog and bird

d)

hawk and snake

39.

Complete the food chain based form the foodweb.

Phytoplankton -> ________-> gull

a)

crab

b)

mussels

c)

prawn

d)

fish

40.

Complete the food chain based form the foodweb.

Phytoplankton -> zooplankton-> prawn->_____

a)

crab

b)

mussels

c)

prawn

d)

gull

41.

Which of the following can become a quaternary consumer? (select all)

a)

lobster

b)

fish

c)

prawn

d)

gull

e)

whelk

42.

Which of the following is a primary consumer?

a)

lobster

b)

fish

c)

crab

d)

limpets

e)

whelk

43.

Which of the following is a tertiary consumer?

a)

limpets

b)

fish

c)

zooplankton

d)

seaweed

44.

Which of the following is a tertiary consumer?

a)

limpets

b)

fish

c)

zooplankton

d)

seaweed

45.

Which receives the least energy?

a)

limpets

b)

crab

c)

zooplankton

d)

seaweed

46.

Which receives the most energy?

a)

limpets

b)

crab

c)

prawn

d)

seaweed

47.

Which way shows the best energy flow in the food chains below?

a)

Sun

b)

Plant- sun- water

c)

Sun- plant- fox

d)

Sun- plant- rabbit- fox

48.

True or False if one ecosystem loses a Primary consumer it can impact the secondary and tertiary consumers?

a)

False

b)

True

49.

If grass is a producer and a grasshopper is a primary consumer what level of consumer is a mouse?

a)

Secondary

b)

Tertiary

c)

Apex

d)

Primary

50.

Not all kinds of aquatic organisms can live and survive in estuaries and intertidal zones.  Why?

a)

These ecosystems are full of nutrients because of the constant wave action.

b)

The different areas in these ecosystems provide places for different fish to hide.

c)

There is plenty of food in these ecosystems that can support an entire food chain.

d)

The salinity of the water in these ecosystems is constantly changing as the tides rise and fall.

51.

Which among the following will received most amount of energy?

a)

producer

b)

primary consumer

c)

secondary consumer

d)

tertiary consumer

e)

quaternary consumer

52.

Which among the following will received least amount of energy?

a)

producer

b)

primary consumer

c)

secondary consumer

d)

tertiary consumer

e)

quaternary consumer

53.

Motion is the change in position of an object with respect to a moving reference point.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of the following is not a unit in measuring distance?

a)

kilometer

b)

yard

c)

inches

d)

seconds

55.

What is the standard unit in measuring time?

a)

second

b)

minute

c)

hour

56.
You can measure _____ by dividing distance over time.
a)
motion
b)
position
c)
speed
d)
velocity
57.
_____ is when there is a change in a object's position as compared to other objects around it.
a)
motion
b)
position
c)
speed
d)
velocity
58.

The distance traveled and length of time are used for measuring speed.

a)

true

b)

false

59.

which of the following is NOT a measure of speed?

a)

km/meter

b)

miles/hour

c)

cm/s

d)

km/minute

60.

What is the formula for calculating speed?

a)

Speed = force/distance (force divided by distance)

b)

Speed = mass x acceleration (mass times acceleration)

c)

Speed = distance/time (distance divided by time)

d)

Speed = time x energy (time times energy)

61.

What is the speed of a plane that travels 450 miles in 2 hours?

a)

225 meters per second

b)

225 miles per hour

c)

900 miles per hour

d)

900 meters per second

62.

If an object travels 42 meters in 6 seconds, what is its average speed?

a)

6 m/s

b)

7 m/s

c)

42 m/s

d)

252 m/s

63.

A motorcycle traveled 250 kilometers at a speed of 50 miles per hour. What was its amount of time it took?

a)

12,500 hours

b)

300 hours

c)

5 hours

d)

5 miles per hour

64.

It takes five hours to drive from Fort Worth to Midland, at a speed of 60 miles per hour. What is the distance for this trip?

a)

300 miles

b)

12 miles

c)

60 miles

d)

1200 miles

65.

A cruise ship travels at a speed of 15 mi/h for 3.5 hours. What is the total distance traveled by the comet during this time?

a)

52.5 mi

b)

32.5 mi

c)

15.5 mi

d)

16.5 mi

66.

In a practice race, a driver maintains a speed of 90 miles per hour. How long will he take to cover a 108-mile racetrack?

(a)  

67.

A type of magnet that has temporary magnetic effect when electric current flows through it.


This refer to

a)

Electric

b)

Electronic

c)

Electrostatic

d)

Electromagnet

68.

Which statement is true?

a)

I. All electromagnets are permanent magnets.

b)

II. Increasing the number of coils in an electromagnet decreases it strength.

c)

III. Increasing the batteries increases the strength of an electromagnet.

d)

Both I and II

69.

Which can increase the strength of an electromagnet?

a)

increasing the number of coils around the nail

b)

increasing the number of batteries

c)

making the core bigger

d)

all of the above

70.

Which of the electromagnets would have the greatest magnetic field?

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

Which of the following is NOT part of an electromagnet?

a)

wire

b)

core

c)

battery

d)

needles

72.

Electromagnets are ___________________.

a)

permanent

b)

instant

c)

temporary

d)

stable

73.

Which makes an electromagnet work?

a)

needle

b)

electricity

c)

pin

d)

thumbtacks

74.

How do you increase the strength of an electromagnet?

a)

add more magnets

b)

larger core

c)

increase the number of coils around the core

d)

salt water

75.

True or false: All magnets are electromagnets.

a)

True

b)

Fasle

76.

A doorbell uses electromagnets

a)

True

b)

Fasle

77.

The less battery, the stronger the electromagnet

a)

True

b)

Fasle

78.

The more number of coil of wire wrapped around the core of electromagnet, the stronger the electromagnet becomes

a)

True

b)

Fasle

79.

(a)   are materials that allow heat and electricity to pass through them while

80.

(a)   are materials that do not readily allow heat and electricity to flow through them.

81.
An insulator is a material that:
a)
Transfers thermal and electrical energy
b)
Transfers electrical energy and slows thermal energy
c)
Slows electrical energy and allows thermal energy to pass
d)
Slows thermal and electrical energy from transfering
82.
A great conductor of energy is:
a)
wood
b)
plastic
c)
metal
d)
cloth
83.
What object would best complete this circuit?
a)
A battery
b)
a peice of yarn
c)
an insulator
d)
a conductor
84.
What is NOT an example of an insulator in the kitchen?
a)
An oven mitt
b)
Pots and pans
c)
A wooden spoon
d)
A plastic measuring cup
85.
The plastic covering is there to:
a)
Provide a conductor for electrical energy to flow.
b)
Provide an insulator so that electrical energy will not pass outside of the wires.
c)
Provide a conductor so that electrical energy can NOT flow.
d)
Provide an insulator so that electrical energy can flow.
86.
The metal copper is there to:
a)
Provide a conductor for energy to flow from one place to another.
b)
Provide an insulator for energy to flow from one place to another.
c)
Provide an insulator to slow the flow of energy.
d)
Provide a conductor so slow the flow of energy.
87.
Olivia wanted to complete her circuit with a conductor.  What object is her best option?
a)
Wood stick
b)
Glass bead
c)
Aluminum foil
d)
Styrofoam
88.
You know that the object connected to the wires is a conductor because:
a)
The light bulb is glowing bright.
b)
It's a complete circuit.
c)
It's a closed circuit.
d)
The object is shiny.
89.
Which is NOT an insulator.
a)
Wool
b)
Plastic
c)
Copper
d)
Glass
90.
What is the difference between a conductor and an insulator?
a)
An insulator allows electricity to flow through it easily and a conductor does not
b)
A conductor allows electricity to flow through it easily and an insulator does not.
c)
An insulator is magnetic and a conductor is not
d)
A conductor is magnetic and an insulator is not
91.

Identify what component of circuit is A.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

92.

Identify what component of circuit is B.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

93.

Identify what component of circuit is C.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

94.

Identify what component of circuit is D.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

95.

Identify what component of circuit is D.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

96.

Identify what component of circuit is C.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

97.

Identify what component of circuit is B.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

98.

Identify what component of circuit is A.

a)

switch

b)

load

c)

wire

d)

power source

99.

Which will light up?

a)

open circuit

b)

short circuit

c)

closed circuit

100.

What type of circuit is shown?

a)

series

b)

parallel

101.

What type of circuit is shown?

a)

series

b)

parallel

102.

It has one-way flow of electricity due to the one-way arrangement of the wire.

a)

series

b)

parallel

103.

It has two or more loops through which current can flow.

a)

series

b)

parallel

104.

If one of the loads in this circuit does not work, the other loads in this circuit would still work.

a)

series

b)

parallel

105.

If one of the loads in this circuit does not work, the other loads would not work.

a)

series

b)

parallel

106.

How does increasing the battery affects the circuit?

a)

it makes bulbs brighter

b)

it makes bulb dimmer

c)

No effect

107.

How does increasing the light bulbs affects the circuit?

a)

it makes bulbs brighter

b)

it makes bulb dimmer

c)

No effect

108.

This circuit is .....?

a)

open

b)

parallel

c)

closed

d)

broken

109.

A circuit must be closed for electricity to travel.

a)

true

b)

false

110.

Which of these best allows electricity to flow in the circuit?

a)

rubber band

b)

metal nail

c)

leather shoelace

d)

wooden toothpick

111.

How does increasing the lenght of wire affects the circuit?

a)

it makes bulbs brighter

b)

it makes bulb dimmer

c)

No effect

112.

Which one is the circuit diagram of this picture?

a)
b)
c)
d)
113.

In which circuit the bulbs will light up brighter?

a)

X

b)

Y

114.

Which bulb will light up the dimmest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

115.

If bulb J is broken, what will happen to the other bulbs? Tick the correct answer.

a)

bulb K lights up

b)

bulb L lights up

c)

bulb K and L do not light up

116.

Which bulbs will light up brighter?

a)

A

b)

B

117.

Based on the circuit diagram above, suggest one way to increase the brightness of the bulbs.

a)

Increase the number of the bulbs

b)

Decrease the number of the bulbs

c)

Increase the number of the switch

d)

Decrease the number of dry cells

118.

is the bouncing of light when it strikes a smooth and shiny surface.

a)

reflection

b)

absorption

c)

transmission

119.

The reflection of light enables us to see the things around us.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

Light is absorbed and changed into heat the most in materials with ________ and _________ surface

a)

light color and smooth

b)

dark color and rough

c)

light color and rough

121.

The white light is something that the human eyes cannot detect.

a)

true

b)

false

122.

When light strikes a material, the light can be reflected or absorbed but never transmitted.

a)

true

b)

false

123.

Materials are all the same with their ability to transmit light.

a)

true

b)

false

124.

In the picture, the light is being ______

a)

Reflected

b)

Absorbed

c)

Transmitted

d)

Scattered

125.

In the picture, the light is being ______

a)

Reflected

b)

Absorbed

c)

Transmitted

d)

Scattered

126.

In the picture, the light is being ______

a)

Reflected

b)

Absorbed

c)

Transmitted

d)

Scattered

127.

Why do apples appear to be color red?

a)

When light reaches the apple, all 7 colors of the spectrum are absorbed.

b)

When light reaches the apple, all 7 colors of the spectrum are reflected.

c)

When light reaches the apple, the color red is reflected and the remaining colors are absorbed.

d)

When light reaches the apple, the color red is absorbed and the remaining colors are reflected.

128.

Why is it not advisable to wear dark-colored clothes during hot season?

a)

Because dark-colored clothes absorbed most light which transforms into heat.

b)

Because dark-colored clothes transmit most light.

c)

Because dark-colored clothes reflects most light which transforms into heat.

d)

Neither of the choices is correct.

129.

What happens when light reaches a white object?

a)

It scatters all the light.

b)

It absorbs all the light.

c)

It transforms all the light.

d)

It reflects all the light

130.

Which statement is true?

a)

The lighter the color of the object, the more heat it emits.

b)

The darker the object, the more heat it emits.

c)

Color doesn't affect the temperature of a material.

d)

Light and color has no relationship with one another.

131.

Objects that allow a material to pass through them is ______

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

132.

Some light is scattered or absorbed and you cannot see them clearly

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

133.

Some materials may appear to be invisible because most light is transmitted through this kind of material.

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

134.

It does not allow light to pass through at all.

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

135.

What kind of material is in the picture?

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

136.

What kind of material is in the picture?

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

137.

What kind of material is in the picture?

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

138.

What kind of material is in the picture? (Lens)

a)

Transparent

b)

Tranaslucent

c)

Opaque

139.
When the car moves AWAY from you, its horn seems...
a)
Low pitched
b)
High pitched
c)
Normal
140.
When an ambulance move TOWARD you it sounds ________ pitched. 
a)
high
b)
low
c)
medium
141.

The pitch of a sound wave relates to the wave's _________________.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Period

142.

What is the Doppler Effect?

a)

A change in frequency due to the relative motion of a wave source and an observer

b)

When a wave overlaps with another wave

c)

When a wave bounces off of another object

d)

When a wave bends due to traveling through a different medium

143.

An ambulance is driving towards you as you stand on the sidewalk. What happens to the pitch of the siren as it comes towards you?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

144.

You are standing on the side of the road when a police car races past you with its siren on. After the police car passes you, what happens to the pitch of the siren?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It turns red

145.

Look at the picture. Who is experiencing a higher pitched sound?

a)

Observer A

b)

Observer B

c)

There's no difference

146.

Look at the picture. Who is experiencing a lower pitched sound?

a)

Observer A

b)

Observer B

c)

There is no difference

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