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Cirrhosis Pharm

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a function of the liver?

a)

conversion of ammonia to urea

b)

production of anti coagulation factors

c)

synthesis and storage

d)

metabolism

e)

detoxification

2.

Which medication can lead to the development of cirrhosis?

a)

amoxicillin

b)

amiodarone

c)

amitryptilline

d)

ampicillin

3.

Which is a way blood enters the liver?

a)

hepatic vein

b)

portal vein

c)

inferior vena cava

d)

cystic duct

4.

Which of the following labs is least likely in a cirrhotic patient?

a)

decreased alkaline phosphate

b)

elevated INR

c)

elevated total bilirubin

d)

decreased platelets

5.

What scoring model is used to describe severity and prognosis, as well as predict complications in cirrhotic patients?

a)

Glasgow

b)

Child-Pugh

c)

MELD

d)

GOLD

6.

Portal hypertension is defined as a hepatic venous pressure gradient greater than what value?

a)

7 mmHg

b)

5 mmHg

c)

3 mmHg

d)

4mmHg

7.

What is the most common lethal complication of cirrhosis?

a)

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

b)

Variceal hemorrhage

c)

Portal Hypertention

d)

Hepatic encephalopathy

8.

What is the gold standard to diagnose varisces?

a)

Colonoscopy

b)

EGD

c)

CT abdomen

d)

abdominal XR

9.

True or False:

Fibrosis can be reversible if Hepatic stellate cells are depleted before cirrhosis stage is reached.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

At what size would you be concerned for possible variceal bleeding?

a)

> 5 m

b)

> 5 mm

c)

> 5 cm

d)

> 3 mm

11.

A pt is found to have a 3 mm varice and fits into Child-Pugh Class B. What is the best appropriate management for this pt?

a)

Amlodipine

b)

Nadalol

c)

atenolol

d)

EVL

12.

Which of the following would be a contraindication for non-selective beta blocker therapy?

a)

asthma

b)

acute heart failure

c)

baseline bradycardia

d)

heart block

e)

tachycardia

13.

Which of the following is NOT indicated for an acute variceal hemorrhage?

a)

IV epinephrine

b)

EVL

c)

IV Ceftriaxone

d)

IV Octreotide

14.

Which drug is a potent splanchnic vasoconstrictor that helps reduce blood flow to all splanchnic organs, which leads to decrease in portal pressure ?

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Octreotide

c)

Nadolol

d)

Ceftriaxone

15.

Which of the following adverse effects should you be aware of before starting Octreotide?

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

bradycardia

d)

abdominal distention

16.

What is the drug of choice for someone presenting with an acute variceal hemorrhage for prophylactic antibiotics?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Vancomycin

17.

A pt is has been hemorrhaging due to a large variceal rupture. No pharmacologic intervention has slowed the bleeding. Which of the following could you consider next?

a)

transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

b)

balloon tamponade

c)

chest slap

d)

gut punch

18.

Which of the following in combo is considered the most effective regimen for secondary prophylaxis of pts with a history of variceal bleed?

a)

ENT

b)

Propranolol

c)

EVL

d)

Atenolol

19.

Which is the safest and most effective option for controlling acute hemorrhage?

a)

balloon tamponade

b)

TIPS

c)

EVL

d)

Sclerotherapy

20.

What is the most common complication of cirrhosis?

a)

hepatic encephalopathy

b)

ascites

c)

portal hypertension

d)

variceal hemorrhage

21.

What should be done for every patient with new-onset ascites or hospitalized for complications of cirrhosis?

a)

CT abdomen

b)

paracentesis

c)

EGD

d)

abdominal XR

22.

What value of SAAG would indicate portal hypertension?

a)

>3

b)

> 1.1 -2.5

c)

> 2.5

d)

< 1.1

23.

A pt presents with new onset of ascites and overall fatigue. Your ascitic fluid analysis reveals PMNs > 250 cells/mm^3. What should you be most concerned of/not miss on diagnosing?

a)

hepatic encephalopathy

b)

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

c)

ascites

d)

portal hypertension

24.

What ratio is important to maintain when starting furosemide and spironolactone for ascites?

a)

400:100

b)

40:100

c)

4:1

d)

40:10

25.

You are given a case with new onset of ascites. Which of the following adverse effects should you consider when starting the appropriate drugs?

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

gynecomastia

c)

metabolic alkalosis

d)

muscle cramps

26.

A 56 year old patient presents with ascites and undergoes paracentesis. His SAAG is calculated to be 1.3. What cause of ascites does this indicate?

a)

pancreatic ascites

b)

portal hypertension

c)

nephrotic syndrome

d)

malignancy

27.

Which is a diuretic used in the treatment of ascites?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Metolazone

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Spironolactone

28.

A pt presents to the ER with abdominal pain. On exam you note that the pt is febrile with increasing ascites. You are suspecting spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. What would most likely be found on the culture of the ascitic fluid?

a)

mycosplasma

b)

E. coli

c)

Pseudomonas

d)

M. cattarhalis

29.

True or False:

Ascitic fluid, urine, and blood should be drawn for culturing after starting empiric antibiotic therapy.

a)

False

b)

True

30.

Antibiotics are indicated if patient presents with ascites and 1 or more

of the following:

a)

abdominal pain or tenderness

b)

temp > 37.8 C or 100 F

c)

PMNs >250 cells/mm^3

d)

PMNs <250 cells/mm^3

31.

A pt returns for follow up after starting treatment for SBP. Labs show a decrease in PMN <25% from baseline. What is the next best step in managing this patient?

a)

EVL

b)

repeat paracentesis

c)

hydrocortisone

d)

Bactrim

32.

A pt presents with a Low ascitic protein (<1.5 g/dL) and BUN 35 mg/dL. What is the best agent option in managing this pt?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Bactrim

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Nadolol

33.

A pt presents to the ER with Altered mental status. Upon examining the patient, you notice that the patient is very irritable with loss of motor control. What lab would direct your diagnosis?

a)

CK

b)

ammonia

c)

SCr

d)

BUN

34.

What is the first line treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?

a)

rifaximin

b)

lactulose

c)

octreotide

d)

ceftriaxone

35.

Which of the following is an antibiotic that helps alter the gut microbiota to create a more favorable microbiome and less nitrogen production?

a)

rifaximin

b)

lactulose

c)

ceftriaxone

d)

octreotide

36.

What antibiotic is appropriate first-line empiric therapy for active SBP?

a)

clindamycin

b)

cefotaxime

c)

meropenem

d)

piperacillin/tazobactam