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IT2 - Exam 4 JARVI

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why are most emerging infectious disease that infect humans due to viruses?

a)

Bacteria easier to treat than viruses

b)

Viruses easier to treat than bacteria

c)

Bacteria more variable

d)

Viruses are more variable

2.

Why are most emerging infectious disease that infect humans due to viruses?

a)

Viruses are zoonoses: larger reservoir, less likely to be eliminated

b)

Baceria are vector transmitted

c)

Bacteria are zoonoses: larger reservoir, less likely to be eliminated

d)

Viruses are vector transmitted

3.

Which of these describes the structure of a virus?

a)

Obligate intracellular

b)

Replicate only inside living cells

c)

Aerobic intracellular

d)

Contain nucleic acids, spikes, capsid and envelope

e)

Come in different shapes and sizes

4.

Select the components of a virus:

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Spikes

c)

Capsid

d)

Envelope

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

5.

Which structure may or may not be present and is attached to specific receptors such as (glycoproteins)?

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Spikes

c)

Capsid

d)

Envelope

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

6.

Which structure protects, determines shape and attachment to host cells?

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Spikes

c)

Capsid

d)

Envelope

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

7.

Which structure is acquired as a "bud" or move through membranes of host, help hide (increase infection by fusing with host membrane)?

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Spikes

c)

Capsid

d)

Envelope

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

8.

What are the two shapes a virus can come in?

a)

Helical

b)

Polyhedral

c)

Cylinder

d)

Spherical

e)

Oblong

9.

What word describes a viral host range?

a)

What hosts the virus can infect

b)

What types of pathogens are viruses

c)

Pathogens that can infect humans and animals

d)

Viruses that are resistant to antivirals

10.

Poliovirus is known to infect?

a)

Humans in nature

b)

Humans in labs

c)

Monkeys in labs

d)

Monkeys in nature

e)

Rabies (CNS) in warm blooded animals

11.

What word describes viral specificity?

a)

What hosts the virus can infect

b)

What types of pathogens are viruses

c)

Pathogens that can infect humans and animals

d)

Viruses that are resistant to antivirals

e)

Depends on receptors, availability of host enzymes to replicate, if able to be released from cell

12.

Where can papillomavirus appear?

a)

Skin as warts

b)

Arms as rash

c)

Genital areas as hives

d)

Mouth as white spots

13.

How does cytomegalovirus appear?

a)

Skin as warts

b)

Arms as rash

c)

Genital areas as hives

d)

Mouth as white spots

e)

Salivary glands, GI tract, liver, lungs and can cross placenta to attach to CNS of fetus

14.

What system is used to name and classify viruses?

a)

Baltimore Classification

b)

Maryland Classification

c)

Neuman Classification

d)

Dewey Decimal Classification

e)

North American Industry Classification System

15.

How many classes are in the Baltimore Classification system?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

7

e)

6

16.

How are viruses classified?

a)

Chemical/physical properties

b)

Mode of replication

c)

Shape

d)

Host range

e)

Person who discovered virus

17.

The name Picornaviridae was based on:

a)

Small, RNA

b)

Backward

c)

Toga or Clock

d)

Respiratory Enteric Orphans

e)

Crown

18.

The name Retroviridae was based on:

a)

Small, RNA

b)

Backward

c)

Toga or Clock

d)

Respiratory Enteric Orphans

e)

Crown

19.

The name Parvoviridae was based on:

a)

Small

b)

Backward

c)

Toga or Clock

d)

Respiratory Enteric Orphans

e)

Crown

20.

The name Togaviridae was based on:

a)

Small

b)

Backward

c)

Toga or Clock

d)

Respiratory Enteric Orphans

e)

Crown

21.

The name Reoviridae was based on:

a)

Small

b)

Backward

c)

Toga or Clock

d)

Respiratory Enteric Orphans

e)

Crown

22.

The name Coronaviridae was based on:

a)

Small

b)

Backward

c)

Toga or Clock

d)

Respiratory Enteric Orphans

e)

Crown

23.

Which of these describes DNA?

a)

Double stranded

b)

Single stranded

c)

Replicate in the nucleus of a cell

d)

Transcribe and replicate in the cytoplasm of a cell

24.

Which of these describes RNA?

a)

Double stranded

b)

Single stranded

c)

Replicate in the nucleus of a cell

d)

Transcribe and replicate in the cytoplasm of a cell

25.

Which of these describes DNA?

a)

Double stranded

b)

Single stranded

c)

Replicate in the nucleus of a cell

d)

Transcribe and replicate in the cytoplasm of a cell

e)

Must first transcribe DNA to RNA then synthesize proteins

26.

Which of these describes RNA?

a)

Double stranded

b)

Single stranded

c)

Replicate in the nucleus of a cell

d)

Transcribe and replicate in the cytoplasm of a cell

e)

Can bypass the stage when DNA transcribes into RNA

27.

What are the major RNA viruses that cause human disease?

a)

Coronaviridae

b)

SARS and SARS-CoV-2

c)

MERS

d)

Single strand (+) positive sense

e)

RNA genome

28.

A (+) sense is:

a)

Similar to mRNA

b)

Can go right into a cell and synthesize proteins

c)

Dose not reply on polymerase or reverse transcriptase

d)

Needs its own polymerase

e)

Requires an extra step in order to produce proteins

29.

A (-) sense is:

a)

Similar to mRNA

b)

Can go right into a cell and synthesize proteins

c)

Dose not reply on polymerase or reverse transcriptase

d)

Needs its own polymerase

e)

Requires an extra step in order to produce proteins

30.

What is the first step in replication to produce more virions?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

31.

What is the 2nd step in replication to produce more virions?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

32.

What is the 3rd step in replication to produce more virions?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

33.

What is the 4th step in replication to produce more virions?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

34.

What is the 5th step in replication to produce more virions?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

35.

How many steps are in the replication process to produce more virions?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

e)

8

36.

What step pertains to the attachment, cell walls, pili or flagella?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

37.

What step pertains to the lysozyme in tail, phage penetrates bacterial cell wall and cell membrane. Phage DNA is injected?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

38.

What step pertains phage DNA to mRNA using host machinery to produce copies of phage DNA?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

39.

What step pertains assembly of head packed with DNA?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

40.

What step pertains lysozyme burst time 20-40 mins, 50-200 new phages?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

41.

True or false: DNA viruses all replicate in the nucleus except for pox viruses which replicate in the cytoplasm.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

What are the steps in animal virus replication?

a)

Adsorption

b)

Penetration

c)

Synthesis

d)

Maturation

e)

Release

43.

Where does pox virus replicate?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

ER

d)

Capsid

e)

Envelope

44.

Explain the utility of bacteriophage therapy

a)

Highly specific, leave good bacteria behind

b)

Cheap

c)

Rarely causes side effects

d)

Tablet/aerosol spray

e)

Western medicine turned away from phage therapy

45.

What is a bacteriophage?

a)

Virus that invade bacterial cells

b)

Disrupt bacterial metabolism

c)

Cause bacterium to lyse

d)

Can be used to treat pathogenic bacterial infections

46.

True or false: It is harder to develop new phage than new antibiotic.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

When any human becomes infected with a virus the interferon makes:

a)

Type 1 IFN

b)

Type 2 IFN

c)

MHC class 1

d)

CD8 cells

e)

FAs

48.

What does Type 1 IFN do?

a)

Interfere with viral replication

b)

Signals neighboring cells that a virus is present

c)

Make virus infected cells more vulnerable to attack by lymphocytes

d)

Control virus replicatoin

e)

Terminate infection or contain it until CD8+ CTL response

49.

Which are a part of the Innate Response system?

a)

Interferon

b)

NK cells

c)

CTL

50.

____ is an early component of host response o virus infection, help control virus replication, kill infected cells and secrete cytokine, can either terminate infection or contain it until CD8+ CTL response

a)

NK cells

b)

Interferon

c)

CD8 cells

d)

MHC Class 1

e)

Type 1 IFN

51.

Which immune response is responsible for antigen processing and presentation by MHC Class 1 molecules and CTL killing?

a)

Innate

b)

Adaptive

52.

When IFN's bind to ____ IFN receptor stimulate ____ cell into action to kill virally infected cells.

a)

NK cells

b)

CD4 cells

c)

MHC Class 1

d)

CTL

53.

____ are CD8+ cytotoxic cells that kill cells infected with viruses.

a)

CTL

b)

MHC Class 1

c)

RBC

d)

FAS

54.

CTL secrete ______ which trigger apoptosis.

a)

Granzymes

b)

Lysozyme

c)

Enzyme

d)

Proteases

55.

______ and ______ make holes in the membrane to help deliver granzymes into a cell.

a)

Perforins

b)

Granulysin

c)

Lysozyme

d)

Enzyme

e)

Viral peptide

56.

CTL express ____ ligand on membrane which binds ____ on target cell which triggers apoptosis?

a)

Fas

b)

CTL

c)

MHC

d)

Type 1 IFN

57.

True or false: Viruses take over cellular machinery to make their proteins in the cytosol. Proteasomes in the cytosol are modified upon infection to degrade and process viral peptides so that they bind MHC 1.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

CTL's are CD8+ cytotoxic T cells that kill cells infected with viruses. CTLs are activated by a viral peptide being presenting in the ____ of an ____ molecule on surface of APC.

a)

Cleft

b)

MHC Class 1

c)

MHC class 2

d)

Type 1 IFN

e)

Cytotoxic

59.

Which action does this describe? Aids in delivering contents of granules into the cytoplasm of target cell.

a)

Perforin

b)

Granzymes

c)

Granulysin

60.

Which action does this describe? Serine proteases, which activate apoptosis once in the cytoplasm of the cell target.

a)

Perforin

b)

Granzymes

c)

Granulysin

61.

Which action does this describe? Has antimicrobial actions and can induce apoptosis.

a)

Perforin

b)

Granzymes

c)

Granulysin

62.

What are the mechanisms that viruses use to evade and subvert the host immune system?

a)

Antigenic drift

b)

Antigenic shift

c)

Genomic shift

d)

Genomic drift

e)

Host evasion

63.

Which causes a point mutation in the genes that encode hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, changes 2-3 years and is usually mild epidemics?

a)

Antigenic drift

b)

Antigenic shift

64.

Which causes major influenza pandemics, big changes, genetic reassortment when two viruses (usually from different animal hosts ie.birds and humans) infect the SAME cell.

a)

Antigenic drift

b)

Antigenic shift

65.

Which virus can be latent which means the virus is not being replicated. It does NOT cause disease but it CANNOT be eliminated since there are no viral peptides being made to flag its presence.

a)

Herpes

b)

SARS

c)

Covid

d)

HIV

e)

AIDS

66.

_______ a state or period of inactivity or dormancy.

a)

Latent

b)

Quiescent

67.

_______ when virus is not being replicated, dos not cause disease but cannot be eliminated due to lack of viral proteins being made to flag its presence.

a)

Latent

b)

Quiescent

68.

What causes chicken pox, but remains in dorsal root ganglia. When reactivated causes Shingles?

a)

Herpes zoster (varicella zoster)

b)

Epstein Barr

c)

SARS

d)

HIV

69.

What can latent memory B cells lead to?

a)

Burkitt's lymphoma

b)

Chicken pox

c)

AIDS

d)

Hep B

e)

Meningitis

70.

Development and function of NK cells and CD8+ T cells are dependent on ______ molecules.

a)

MHC Class 1

b)

IFN

c)

CPE

d)

CTL

71.

_____ effects of a virus on cell in vitro can sometimes determine which virus is present by cells' reaction.

a)

Cytopathic

b)

Erythemic

c)

Transversal

d)

Teratogenic

72.

The earlier in pregnancy infected the greater the damage. This describes which type of effect?

a)

Cytopathic

b)

Erythemic

c)

Transversal

d)

Teratogenic

73.

How are viruses detected?

a)

Serology

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Biology

d)

Microscopology

74.

What can the TORCH test detect?

a)

Toxoplasma

b)

Other disease causing viruses - Hep B, chicken pox

c)

Rubella - german measles

d)

Cytomegalovirus neurological 1% at bitch

e)

HSV herpes simplex virus, acquired at or shortly after birth

75.

Which test is a serial dilution of virus?

a)

Quantitative hemagglutination

b)

Hemagglutination inhibition

c)

ELISA

d)

PCR and rRT-PCR

76.

Which test is a serial dilution of antiserum where you add standard amount of virus, let bind and add standard RBC to detect virus unbound to antibody.

a)

Quantitative hemagglutination

b)

Hemagglutination inhibition

c)

ELISA

d)

PCR and rRT-PCR

77.

Which test is an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay?

a)

Quantitative hemagglutination

b)

Hemagglutination inhibition

c)

ELISA

d)

PCR and rRT-PCR

78.

Which test is an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay?

a)

Quantitative hemagglutination

b)

Hemagglutination inhibition

c)

ELISA

d)

PCR and rRT-PCR

79.

Which test the test where you don't have to culture the virus to detect it, need to know the nucleotide sequence of viral genes and where you can amplify genes from non-cultivable viruses for vaccine production. These cloned genes can then be injected into an animal and express protein = dna vaccine?

a)

Quantitative hemagglutination

b)

Hemagglutination inhibition

c)

ELISA

d)

PCR and rRT-PCR

80.

What are some examples and characteristics that cause cancer?

a)

Cells that divide repeatedly causing neoplasm and tumor

b)

Tissue metastasize

c)

Epstein Barr virus - infecting B cells

81.

What is the most common mosquito-borne viral disease in the world?

a)

Dengue

b)

Zika

c)

Coronavirus

d)

SARS

82.

What is the specific treatment for dengue/severe dengue?

a)

No treatment

b)

Bactrim

c)

Sulfamethoazole

d)

Acetaminophen

83.

What are some symptoms of dengue fever?

a)

Sudden onset of fever

b)

Severe headache

c)

Eye pain

d)

Joint paint

e)

Rash

84.

True or false: you can give the dengue vaccine to those with NO prior infection.

a)

False

b)

True

85.

True or false: The Dengue vaccine developed by Sanofi Pasteur is a 3-dose series, 0/6/12 month schedule vaccination

a)

True

b)

False

86.

_____ protein allows virus to attach to human cells during infection.

a)

Spike

b)

CHD

c)

B cells

d)

Terogenic

87.

How many serotypes exist for Dengue fever?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

88.

True or false: Serotypes of Dengue fever are cross-protective.

a)

False

b)

True