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Year 12 Week 8 Quizziz Term 1 2022

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
what kind of social media
a)
Blogs and Forums
b)
Bookmarking Sites
c)
Media Sharing 
d)
Microblogging
2.
what kind of social media
a)
Blogs and Forums
b)
Bookmarking Sites
c)
Media Sharing 
d)
Microblogging
3.
what kind of social media
a)
Blogs and Forums
b)
Bookmarking Sites
c)
Media Sharing 
d)
Microblogging
4.

The simulation of human intelligence processes by machines

a)

Computer Intelligence

b)

Artificial Intelligence

c)

Content Marketing

d)

Marketing Intelligence

5.

Demographic of people most likely to be interested in your product or service.

a)

Brand awareness

b)

marketing

c)

market segmentation

d)

target market/audience

6.

an individual who has the power to affect purchase decisions of others because of his/her authority, knowledge, position or relationship with his/her audience in a particular field.

a)

Marketer

b)

Consumer

c)

Influencer

7.

business metric used to evaluate the success of a company, organization, employee or to track and analyze factors of success in an organization.

a)

Centimeter

b)

marketing indicator

c)

Key talent indicator

d)

Key Performance Indicator

8.

Strategy that relies on getting to know the customers and their individual choices, then tailoring marketing plans toward each customer differently based on those choices.

a)

one-to-many marketing

b)

one-to-one marketing

c)

niche marketing

9.

Social media sites started appearing in these years:

a)

1997-1999

b)

2005-2007

c)

2003-2004

10.

Happens when the desired outcome of a marketing message is achieved.

a)

Web 2.0

b)

Conversion

c)

Dot Com Bubble

d)

Demographics

11.

Search Marketing includes

a)

helping to open the internet for marketing

b)

providing useful content leas to business

c)

brands establishing online presence like Google, Yahoo, MSN

d)

businesses starting to create their own social media profiles.

12.

Percentage of marketing executives who use social media in marketing strategies (marketing mix).

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

Over 70%

d)

Over 90%

13.
What is the most important thing to ask yourself before posting on social media?
a)
Will this make me more popular?
b)
Will my friends think this is funny?
c)
Am I ok with everybody I know seeing this?
d)
Did I check my spelling
14.
When you get a friend or follow request what should you consider?
a)
Let them add me, who care's?
b)
Request, what's a request?
c)
Do I know who it is?
15.
What percentage of employers check a potential employees social media presence before employing them?
a)
46%
b)
25%
c)
70%
d)
50%
16.
What should you be aware of when setting your privacy settings on social media?
a)
Allow everyone to see my location
b)
Location services are switched off
c)
Post photo's of where I am when I am on my holiday
17.
I can defriend someone who is offending me or I don't like what they are posting
a)
True
b)
False
18.
When you post something on the Internet how long does it stay there for?
a)
6 months
b)
Forever
c)
30 years
d)
5 years
19.

1 out of ______ teens have experienced cyberthreats online.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

20.

How old do you have to be to have social media?

a)

10

b)

11

c)

12

d)

13

21.

How much screen time is recommended for a teenager have each day?

a)

2 hours

b)

3 hours

c)

5 hours

d)

7 hours

22.

Preventing snapchat users from seeing your current location.

a)

snapmats

b)

snapmaps

c)

ghost mode

d)

filters

23.

What social media platform is the most widely used?

a)

Instagram

b)

YouTube

c)

SnapChat

d)

Facebook

24.

What is your digital footprint?

a)

A record of everywhere you have been online

b)

A record of all the different devices you have

c)

A new world order

25.

Which is the most basic element of design?

a)

color

b)

shape

c)

line

d)

pattern

26.

Horizontal lines convey feelings of

a)

nature and softness

b)

strength and dignity

c)

excitement and movement

d)

relaxation and restfulness

27.

Vertical lines convey feelings of

a)

nature and softness

b)

strength and dignity

c)

excitement and movement

d)

relaxation and restfulness

28.

Diagonal lines convey feelings of

a)

nature and softness

b)

strength and dignity

c)

excitement and movement

d)

relaxation and restfulness

29.

Curved lines convey feelings of

a)

nature and softness

b)

strength and dignity

c)

excitement and movement

d)

relaxation and restfulness

30.

Which image best represents horizontal lines?

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.

Which is the best example of curved lines in a house?

a)

a spiral staircase

b)

a large-screen television

c)

a kitchen cabinet

d)

rafters in the attic

32.

Which of these is a representation of a shape?

a)
b)
c)
d)
33.

Which statement about form is not true?

a)

a gradual change in form can smoothly direct the eyes

b)

form follows function

c)

related forms are more agreeable than unrelated forms

d)

forms are the outline of objects

34.

Which of these terms is the 3 dimensional area a designer is working with?

a)

line

b)

space

c)

shape

d)

texture

35.

The white space in this image would be

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

36.

Which image shows a space with high mass?

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.

Which image shows a naturalistic pattern?

a)
b)
c)
38.

Which image shows an abstract pattern?

a)
b)
c)
39.

What is the most important element of design?

a)

color

b)

shape

c)

texture

d)

pattern

40.

Which image is not a good representation of texture?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

The way a texture feels when touched can be referred to as

a)

auditory

b)

tactile

c)

visual

d)

olfactory

42.

The black part of this image represents

a)

positive space

b)

neutral space

c)

negative space

d)

it depends on your perception

43.

What are the three categories that define all shapes?

a)

Hemisphere, Natural, Abstract

b)

Natural, Geosphere, Abstract

c)

Geometric, Natural, Obtuse

d)

Geometric, Organic, Abstract

44.

What design element BEST describes the visual surface on an orange?

a)

Balance

b)

Rhythm

c)

Space

d)

Texture

45.

John wants to lead the viewers' eyes toward a house in the background, on the left of his canvas--by making the top of the fence run from the right foreground of the painting past the front door. Which design elements would BEST would accomplish this task?

a)

Line / Movement

b)

Scale / Proportion

c)

Color / Value

d)

Texture / Rhythm

46.

David is making a new dungeon crawler game and wants to differentiate between the Boss Monster and the minor monsters. To do this, he makes the boss significantly larger than other enemies in the game. Which design Principles is he using?

a)

Contrast & Rhythm

b)

Balance & Movement

c)

Alignment

d)

Scale & Proportion

47.

Which term BEST describes an area occupied by the subjects or objects in a design?

a)

Positive space

b)

Negative space

c)

Proximity

d)

Emphasis

48.

Which design element is a primary tool for symbolic representation that often evokes a variety of emotions based on the artist's selection?

a)

Color

b)

Texture

c)

Shape

d)

Scale

49.

In Photoshop which tool is best for creating Scale & Proportion between visual elements?

a)

"CTRL + T" (Transform)

b)

"V" Key (Move)

c)

CTRL + SHIFT + I (Invert)

d)

CTRL + J (Copying Layer)

50.

When we create and use Layer Masks in Photoshop, we're editing our images by modifying/controlling which design element?

a)

Line

b)

Space

c)

Color

d)

Texture

51.

This design element is created when a line creates some path that ends where it began.

a)

Shape

b)

Form

c)

Space

d)

Line

52.

The design element FORM can be implied or defined by which of the following?

a)

Transitions from Light to Shadow

b)

Showing Multiple Sides of an Object

c)

Showing One Side of an Object

d)

Using Patterns to Define Shape

e)

By Giving Shapes Depth

53.

Patterns that repeat shapes that appear to be sharp, dull, soft, or rigid best describe this design element.

a)

Emphasis

b)

Shape

c)

Texture

d)

Line

54.

The design elements that BEST define shapes, directions, and edges in a design are which of the following?

a)

Lines

b)

Form

c)

Texture

d)

Space

55.

A design element that refers to the lightness and darkness of a an area

a)

Color

b)

Value

c)

Texture

d)

Space

56.

A mark created by a path of a moving point.

a)

Line

b)

Value

c)

Texture

d)

Form

57.

The empty or open area between, around, above, below and within objects. Such as the hole inside a doughnut.

a)

form

b)

texture

c)

color

d)

space

58.

Any three dimensional object that can be measured by height, width and depth.

a)

color

b)

space

c)

form

d)

shape

59.

The surface quality or the way something feels such as rough-smooth

a)

shape

b)

texture

c)

color

d)

line

60.

What is a self contained 2-dimensional defined area and can be geometric or organic?

a)

Shape

b)

Color

c)

Size

d)

Value

61.

This is an example of

a)

space

b)

line

c)

shape

d)

form

e)

texture

62.
A ________ leads the eye from one point to another.
a)
color
b)
line
c)
proportion
d)
texture
63.
The degree of lightness to dark in a work of art is______________.
a)
Color
b)
Shape
c)
Value
d)
Form
64.
The response of vision to wavelengths of light is __________.
a)
Color
b)
Line
c)
Shape
d)
Space
65.
A symbol of direction: the boundaries of shape is ___________. 
a)
Form
b)
Line
c)
Texture
d)
Value
66.
A 2-D area enclosed by a line that establishes contour is __________.
a)
Space
b)
Form
c)
Color
d)
Shape
67.

_______________ is the ability for letters to be discernable enough so words can be read.

a)

Legibility

b)

Readability

68.

_______________ is the ability for a length of text to be read easily and quickly.

a)

Legibility

b)

Readability

69.

Which of the following is NOT a type of typeface?

a)

Serif

b)

Serial

c)

Sans serif

d)

Symbols

70.

Which of the following is true about script typefaces?

a)

They feature letters which are easy to distinguish from one another

b)

They are legible at smaller sizes and resolutions

c)

They are not used to communicate significant text

d)

They can make design feel customized or handcrafted

71.

What type of typeface are Wingdings?

a)

Serif

b)

Sans serif

c)

Script

d)

Symbols

72.

Which of the following is the true statement?

a)

Digital media, like websites and mobile apps, have the capabilities to display limited typefaces

b)

Digital media, like websites and mobile apps, have the capabilities to display more typefaces than printing

73.

Select all of the following statements which describe display typography.

a)

Short amounts of text such as headlines or subtitles

b)

Communicates text intended to be read at length

c)

Should draw attention to important information

d)

Should be able to be read easily and quickly

e)

Is bolder, bigger or more decorative than text typography

74.

The line upon which letters sit.

a)

baseline

b)

x-height

c)

cap-height

75.

The height of a capital letter above the baseline for a particular typeface.

a)

baseline

b)

x-height

c)

cap-height

76.

The distance between the baseline and the upper part of lowercase letters that don’t have ascenders.

a)

baseline

b)

x-height

c)

cap-height

77.

Which of the following best represents the horizontal stroke connecting two vertical strokes?

a)

Ascenders

b)

Stem

c)

Crossbar

d)

Cross stroke

78.

The dot above a lowercase “j” or “i” is called which of the following?

a)

Swash

b)

Tittle

c)

Eye

d)

Spur

79.

What does the image show?

a)

Shoulder

b)

Spine

c)

Arm

d)

Tail

80.

What does the image show?

a)

Shoulder

b)

Spine

c)

Arm

d)

Tail

81.

What does the image show?

a)

Shoulder

b)

Spine

c)

Arm

d)

Tail

82.

What does the image show?

a)

Shoulder

b)

Spine

c)

Arm

d)

Tail

83.

"Bold" is an example of....

a)

Typeface

b)

Font

c)

Font family

d)

Font style

84.

Arial narrow is an example of.....

a)

Typeface

b)

Font

c)

Font family

d)

Font style

85.

This font is

a)

Whimsical

b)

Objective

c)

Non-objective

86.

What type of font is this?

a)

Non-Objective

b)

Objective

c)

Whimsical

87.

What type of font is this?

a)

Non-Objective

b)

Objective

c)

Whimsical

88.

A font that has a clear, identifiable theme is

a)

Objective

b)

Non Objective

c)

Whimsical

89.

A font that clearly has a style, but no identifiable theme is

a)

objective

b)

non objective

c)

whimsical

90.

A font where each letter is different in style is

a)

objective

b)

non objective

c)

whimsical

91.

What type of font is this?

a)

Serif

b)

Sans Serif

c)

Decorative

d)

Script

92.

What type of decorative font is this?

a)

Objective

b)

Nonobjective

c)

Whimsical

93.

What type of decorative font is this?

a)

Objective

b)

Nonobjective

c)

Whimsical

94.

What is the vertical spacing between lines of text (from baseline to baseline) called?

a)

Kerning

b)

Leading

95.

What is a 'stroke'?

a)

The closed, round or oval curve of a letter.

b)

A single linear element that forms part of a character; straight or curved.

96.

What is another term for 'Alternate Character'?

a)

Glyph

b)

Italic

97.

The part of the stem that rests on the baseline is called...

a)

Foot

b)

Shoulder

98.

Processors have a speed measured in (1-4)

a)

Bits

b)

Seconds

c)

Bytes

d)

Hertz

99.
Data and Instructions in use are stored in the: (1-4)
a)
Hard Disk Drive
b)
Processor
c)
Main Memory
d)
Embedded System
100.
What doesn’t affect the performance of the computer (1-4)
a)
Number of Cores
b)
Clock Speed
c)
Cache Size
d)
The number of instructions in the program
101.
If the number of cores goes up from 2 to 4 – what is the exact effect on performance? (1-4)
a)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second is halved
b)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second doubles
c)
Performance decreases
d)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second quadruples
102.
If the processing speed goes up from 1GHZ to 4GHZ – what is the exact effect on the performance of the computer? (1-4)
a)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second quadruples
b)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second is halved
c)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second doubles
d)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second is quartered
103.
If the processing speed goes up from 2GHZ to 4GHZ and the number of cores goes from 2 to 4 – what is the exact effect on the performance of the computer? (5-6)
a)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second doubles
b)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second quadruples
c)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second is quartered
d)
The maximum number of instructions executed per second is halved
104.
Firmware in which software and hardware are integrated on a circuit board is often used in what type of system? (5-6)
a)
Point of Sales System
b)
Desktop System
c)
Operating System
d)
Embedded System
105.
Which is an example of an Embedded System: (1-4)
a)
Laptops
b)
Washing Machine
c)
PCs
d)
Tablets
106.
Processors don’t do the following (1-4)
a)
Operate in Hz
b)
Process Data
c)
Execute Instructions
d)
Execute Data
107.
The part of a processor in which instructions are executed is known as? (1-4)
a)
Instruction Centre
b)
Execution
c)
Core
d)
Centre
108.
What acts as an intermediary between the processor and the Main Memory? (6-9)
a)
Clock
b)
Bus
c)
User
d)
Cache
109.
What is held in cache? (5-6)
a)
Instructions that have been processed
b)
Data that hasn’t been used for a long time
c)
Commonly used instructions and data
d)
All of the programming instructions
110.
What is the main function of the CPU?
a)
To carry out processing of the data.
b)
To help with playing games.
c)
To fetch instructions from memory, decode them and execute the instructions.
d)
To heat up the computer.
111.
What is the job of the control unit?
a)
It carries out calculations
b)
It stores information.
c)
It does nothing.
d)
It controls the input and output of data to make sure that it gets to the right place.
112.
What does CPU stand for?
a)
Control Processing Unit
b)
Central Processing Unit
c)
Central Power Unit
d)
Center Power Unit
113.
Which of the following is an example of 'main memory'.
a)
Hard Drive
b)
USB Drive
c)
RAM
d)
ROM
114.
What is a bus?
a)
A circuit that connect one part of CPU to other components.
b)
A type of long term memory
c)
A type of permanent memory
d)
A method of transport
115.
How can a bigger cache improve CPU performance?
a)
By being able to carry out more calculations
b)
By being able to store more recently used instruction inside the CPU for quicker access times
c)
By being able to 
116.

Performs calculations (i.e. addition, division, multiplication, subtraction)

a)

MAR (Memory Address Register)

b)

MDR (Memory Data Register)

c)

CIR (Current Instruction Register)

d)

PC (Program Counter)

e)

ALU (Arithmetic and Logic Unit)

117.

Which of these ARE NOT parts of the CPU? (select as many as appropriate)

a)

Accumulator

b)

General Purpose Register

c)

Input Device

d)

PC (Program Counter)

e)

Output Device

118.
Without a CPU the computer would not work.
a)
true
b)
FALSE
119.
The CPU would not work without the following component
a)
Hard drive
b)
USB memory stick
c)
Graphics card
d)
RAM
120.
As soon as the computer is switches on the CPU begins processing data
a)
true
b)
FALSE
121.
Which two main components make up a CPU
a)
Control unit and Processing unit
b)
Control unit and RAM
c)
Control unit and Arithmetic Logic unit 
d)
Flash storage and Arithmetic Logic unit 
122.
ALU stands for
a)
Arithmetic Logic unit 
b)
Arithmetic Legal unit 
c)
Anti Logic unit 
d)
Arithmetic Logic undo
123.
The CPU needs access to the main memory and Cache memory
a)
true
b)
FALSE
124.
RAM is within the CPU
a)
true
b)
FALSE
125.
Where is ROM usually found inside a computer?
a)
Inside the CPU
b)
As part of the hard drive
c)
On the motherboard
d)
With the CD drive
126.
In terms of computer memory, what is meant by the term 'volatile'?
a)
It retains its content when power is cut
b)
It loses its contents when power is cut
c)
It is not stable and should not be used
d)
Memory chips can overheat
127.
Which statement best describes RAM?
a)
Fast, permanent storage
b)
Slow, volatile stoage
c)
Fast, volatile storage
d)
Slow, permanent storage
128.
Which statement best describes ROM?
a)
A flash memory chip that contains a small amount of non-volatile memory
b)
A memory store containing a large amount of volatile memory
c)
A register within the CPU responsible for storing memory addresses
d)
A memory store containing a small amount of volatile memory
129.
What is usually held in the contents of RAM?
a)
BIOS and Boot sequence needed to start the computer
b)
Operating System and currently running programs
c)
Software programs stored within the computer
d)
Recently executed instructions in case they are needed again
130.
The characteristics of RAM are it is .....
a)
Permanent, non-volatile, not expandable and you can't write to it
b)
Temporary, volatile, expandable and you can write to it.
131.

RAM - What happens when the electricity Is turned off?

a)

The data from the memory is saved onto flash memory

b)

The data from the memory is saved onto the hard disk

c)

The data from the memory is not saved

d)

The data from the memory is saved onto ROM

132.

Which one is secondary storage?

a)

RAM

b)

Hard Disk

c)

ROM

d)

BIOS

133.

which of these statements are correct for DRAM?

a)

DRAM is a memory chip that depends upon an applied voltage to keep the stored data

b)

DRAM stands for Dynamic RAM

c)

DRAM is as fast as a CPU

d)

DRAM is the most expensive form of RAM

134.
Cache memory temporarily stores data.
a)
true
b)
FALSE
135.
What is cache memory?
a)
It is used to permanently store data and programs
b)
It is used to store numbers
c)
It is used between the RAM and CPU to improve performance by holding data that has just been or is about to be processed.
d)
It is used to store letters  
136.
In order of fastest to slowest with the fastest on the left and slowest on the right, name each type of memory in order.
a)
Cache > RAM > Hard Drive
b)
Hard Drive > RAM > Cache
c)
RAM > Cache > Hard Drive
d)
RAM > Hard Drive > Cache
137.
What is most likely wrong with the monitor if you have done all of the troubleshooting steps?
a)
the monitor cord is broken
b)
the computer is broken
c)
the monitor needs to be replaced
138.

Computer viruses are

a)

Programs that hackers use to harm your computers or steal info.

b)

A sickness that humans catch from computers

c)

can only be acquired through the internet

d)

can only be acquired through email

139.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four troubleshooting steps?

a)

Look at the problem

b)

Describe the problem

c)

Select the best solution

d)

Decide the cause of the problem

140.

What mode can you boot your computer in to troubleshoot?

a)

Secure Mode

b)

Troubleshoot Mode

c)

Safe Mode

d)

Basic Mode

141.
What is one thing you can do if your mouse does not work?
a)
buy a wireless mouse
b)
check the connections
c)
cut the cord
142.

Why is it important to know how to troubleshoot your computer?

a)

You can help others

b)

All these answers are correct

c)

To save money

d)

There may not always be someone to help you.

143.

Which of the following are hardware problems?

a)

The computer does not start

b)

USB Mouse not connecting

c)

Insufficient Memory

d)

Device Driver is missing

144.

Many problems can be diagnosed

a)

with expensive diagnostic tools

b)

without expensive diagnostic tools

c)

with a certified technician

d)

without a certified technician

145.

Major fault areas to consider

a)

Hardware failure

b)

Software failure

c)

User-generated problems

d)

All

146.

The most common problem

a)

Hardware failure

b)

Software failture

c)

User-generated problems

d)

All

147.

It is necessary to determine the last action of the computer.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

It is not necessary to write things down during PC troubleshooting.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Restore points are backups of system settings and

a)

files

b)

hardware malfunctions

c)

software programs

d)

configurations

150.

Windows recovery environment will launch if boot failure is

a)

undetected

b)

detected

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