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Quarter Final 3 REVIEW

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The lac operon in E. coli

a)

prevents lactose-utilizing enzymes from being expressed when lactose is present in the environment

b)

prevents lactose-utilizing enzymes from being expressed when lactose is absent from the environment

c)

prevents lactose intolerance

d)

promotes the expression of lactose-utilizing enzymes when lactose is absent from the environment

2.

The lac operon of E coli is _____________ when the repressor is bound to _____________.

a)

active; lactose

b)

inactive; lactose

3.

Recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because

a)

the male chromosome is more susceptible to mutations.

b)

the male's phenotype resuts entirely from his his single X-linked gene.

c)

the male chromosome is more fragile than the female chromosome

4.

The presence of AB blood type illustrates the principle of

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

pleiotropy

5.

A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ___________ to transmit it to offspring.

a)

homozygous for the trait and able

b)

homozygous for the trait and unable

c)

heterozygous for the trait and able

d)

heterozygous for the trait and unable

6.

How many sex chromosomes are in a human GAMETE?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

7.

Facilitated diffusion across a cell membrane requires ________________ and moves a substance __________ its concentration gradient.

a)

energy and transport proteins; against

b)

transport proteins; down

c)

energy and transport proteins; down

d)

transport proteins; against

8.

ATP

a)

contains five phosphate groups.

b)

is essential for a cell to perform all the tasks necessary for life

c)

is found only in bacteria.

d)

All of the above

9.

The process whereby plants capture energy and make complex molecules is known as

a)

homeostasis

b)

evolution

c)

photosynthesis

d)

development

10.

When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction

a)

it raises the activation energy of the reaction

b)

it lowers the activation energy of the reaction

c)

it is used once and discarded

d)

it acts as a reactant

11.

The four most common elements in living organisms are

a)

C, H, O, Fe

b)

C, H, O, Na.

c)

C, H, O, N.

12.

An uncharged atom of boron has an atomic number of 5 and an atomic mass of 11. How many electrons does boron have?

a)

11

b)

15

c)

5

d)

2

13.

The cell spends MOST of its time in

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

mitosis

d)

idontknowsis

14.

What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

100%

15.

The monomers of DNA and RNA are

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

monosaccharides

d)

nucleotides

16.

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

reverse transcriptase

17.

Which of the following options BEST depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?

a)

DNA-tRNA-mRNA-protein

b)

RNA-DNA-RNA-protein

c)

DNA-RNA-protein

18.

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called

a)

mutation

b)

base substitution

c)

frameshift

19.

The phenotype of an organism

a)

represents its genetic composition.

b)

reflects all the traits that are actually expressed.

c)

occurs only in dominant pure organisms.

20.

What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant x heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a)

1:0

b)

1:1

c)

1:2:1

21.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis?

a)

A) It travels intact to one pole of the dividing cell.

b)

B) It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.

c)

C) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in random pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell.

d)

D) It splits into two pairs of homologous, nonsister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.

22.

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?

a)

A) All the events unique to meiosis occur during meiosis I.

b)

B) Mitosis provides for growth and tissue repair.

c)

C) Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction.

23.

An example of this would be sweating to maintain a stable body temperature

a)

homeostasis

b)

experiment

c)

theory

24.

Research has shown that certain body cells, known as stem cells, can develop into a variety of specialized cells. Various factors can cause stem cells to develop into different types of mature cells. These different types of mature cells result from

a)

different antibodies and mitotic cell division

b)

identical genetic codes and meiotic cell division

c)

different environments of the cells and the functioning of different parts of the genetics code

25.

A monomer of nucleic acids made up of a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base

a)

Nucleotide

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

Exons

26.

Single-stranded nucleic acid that contains the sugar ribose

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

27.

Building blocks of protein

a)

Translation

b)

RNA

c)

Amino acid

28.

Expressed sequence of DNA; codes for a protein

a)

RNA

b)

Codon

c)

Introns

d)

Exons

29.

Cytoplasmic organelles at which proteins are synthesized.

a)

Ribosome

b)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

c)

Mutation

30.

Situation in which one allele is not completely dominant over another allele

a)

Testcross

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Codominance

31.

What would a bacterial cell and a human body cell have in common?

a)

cell wall, cytosol, and ribosomes

b)

Cell membrane, cytosol , genetic material, and ribosomes

c)

They have nothing in common