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AP Psych Cram Packet Review Part 1

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The first female president of the American Psychological Association

a)

Margaret Floy Washburn

b)

Mary Calkins

c)

Dorethea Dix

d)

Shelly Wundt

2.

first female to earn a psychology PhD

a)

Margaret Fly Washburn

b)

Mary Calkins

c)

Dorethea Dix

d)

Shelly Wundt

3.

reformed mental institutions in the U.S

a)

Margaret Floy Washburn

b)

Mary Calkins

c)

Dorethea Dix

d)

Shelly Wundt

4.

1st president on the American Psychological Association

a)

Margaret Floy Washburn

b)

Mary Calkins

c)

Stanley Hall

d)

Wilhelm Wundt

5.

Father of American Psychology (functionalist)

a)

William James

b)

Wilhelm Wundt

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Stanley Hall

6.

father of modern psychology (structuralist)

a)

Wilhelm Wundt

b)

William James

c)

Stanley Hall

d)

Sigmund Freud

7.

used introspection to determine the underlying construction of the mind

a)

functionalism

b)

behaviorism

c)

structuralism

d)

cognitive

8.

analyzes the purpose of behavior

a)

structuralism

b)

behaviorism

c)

functionalism

d)

biological

9.

focuses on research and counseling (requires a masters or doctorate)

a)

Psychologist

b)

Psychiatrist

c)

Clinical psychologist

d)

pharmacist

10.

prescribes medications and diagnoses disorders (requires a masters)

a)

psychologist

b)

psychiatrist

c)

medical psychologist

d)

biological psychologist

11.

assigns participants to either the control group or the experimental group randomly

a)

random sample

b)

random assignment

12.

method for choosing participants for a study (limits bias)

a)

random assignment

b)

random sample

13.

when the study finds that a different variable is responsible for the correlation

a)

positive correlation

b)

negative correlation

c)

3rd variable problem (lurking variable)

d)

illusory correlation

14.

belief of a correlation that doesn't exist

a)

lurking variable

b)

illusory correlation

c)

causation

d)

placebo effect

15.

speeds up the action potential and protects the axon

a)

myelin sheath

b)

soma

c)

vesicles

d)

synapse

16.

releases neurotransmitters in the neuron, sends signals onto the next neuron

a)

synapse

b)

dendrites

c)

vesicles

d)

terminals

17.

sacs inside the neuron terminal that contain neurotransmitters

a)

axon

b)

vesicles

c)

myelin sheath

d)

synapse

18.

which ions move out of the axon?

a)

potassium (K+)

b)

sodium (Na)

19.

which ions move into the axon?

a)

potassium (K+)

b)

sodium (Na)

20.

these neurons receive signals

a)

sensory neurons

b)

afferent neurons

c)

efferent neurons

d)

motor neurons

21.

these neurons accept signals

a)

sensory neurons

b)

afferent neurons

c)

motor neurons

d)

efferent neurons

22.

these neurons send signals

a)

sensory neurons

b)

afferent neurons

c)

motor neurons

d)

efferent neurons

23.

these neurons help the signal exit

a)

sensory neurons

b)

afferent neurons

c)

motor neurons

d)

efferent neurons

24.

these are the cells in the spinal cord that are responsible for the reflex loop

a)

afferent neurons

b)

sensory neurons

c)

interneurons

d)

motor neurons

25.

this is a major inhibitory NT that aims to reduce excitability

a)

Glutamate

b)

GABA

c)

Acetycholine

d)

Epinephrine

26.

this is a major excitatory NT

a)

GABA

b)

endorphins

c)

Glutamate

d)

Acetycholine

27.

___ is reward and movement, whereas ___ is mood and emotion

a)

glutamate, dopamine

b)

dopamine, GABA

c)

dopamine, serotonin

d)

endorphins, epinephrine

28.

this NS deals with the sympathetic NS arousal

a)

glutamate

b)

oxytocin

c)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

dopamine

29.

a drug that mimics a NT and increases it's affects

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

30.

a drug that blocks a NS and decreases its effects

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

31.

unused NTs are taken back up into the sending neuron (SSRIs block this)

a)

action potential

b)

all-or-nothing reponse

c)

refractory period

d)

reuptake

32.

which is the oldest part of the brain

a)

medulla

b)

hindbrain

c)

pons

d)

forebrain

33.

which structures are apart of the hindbrain

a)

cerebellum

b)

medulla

c)

reticular formation

d)

pons

34.

this structure controls the vital organs, heart rate, blood pressure, etc.

a)

medulla

b)

pons

c)

cerebellum

d)

amygdala

35.

serves as the bridge between regions, is a part of the brainstem, relays basic functions

a)

cerebellum

b)

medulla

c)

hypothalamus

d)

pons

36.

Which is part of the midbrain?

a)

medulla

b)

pons

c)

reticular formation

d)

limbic system

37.

responsible for alertness

a)

hypothalamus

b)

thalamus

c)

amygdala

d)

reticular formation

38.

The limbic system is a part of the forebrain. Which areas are a part of the limbic system?

a)

amygdala

b)

hippocampus

c)

hypothalamus

d)

thalamus

39.

responsible for reward/pleasure, eating behaviors, and has a link to the endocrine system

a)

thalamus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

forebrain

d)

cerebral cortex

40.

relay center for all senses except for smell

a)

thalamus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

parietal lobe

41.

outer portion of the brain that is responsible for higher order thought process

a)

thalamus

b)

corpus collosum

c)

forebrain

d)

cerebral cortex

42.

controls sensations

a)

occipital lobe

b)

frontal lobe

c)

parietal lobe

d)

temporal lobe

43.

controls hearing and facial recognition

a)

parietal lobe

b)

temporal lobe

c)

occipital lobe

d)

frontal lobe

44.

experiments done by Sperry and Gazzaniga, an image was shown to the right eye and processed in the left hemisphere

a)

corpus callosum experiment

b)

brain plasticity

c)

split-brain experiments

d)

nature vs nurture experiments

45.

monozygotic twins

a)

fraternal twins

b)

identical twins

46.

dizygotic twins

a)

identical twins

b)

fraternal twins

47.

controlled by the hypothalamus, releases growth hormones

a)

adrenal glands

b)

pituitary glands

c)

glutamate glands

d)

temporal glands

48.

measures brain activity, but is not specific

a)

EEG

b)

XRAY

c)

PET

d)

CAT

49.

shows structures of the brain (including tumors)

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

EEG

d)

fMRI

50.

uses glucose to show brain activity

a)

EEG

b)

CT

c)

PET

d)

MRI

51.

oxygen is used to show brain activity (shows real time lesions)

a)

MRI

b)

fMRI

c)

CT

d)

EEG

52.

controlled processing, totally aware

a)

higher-level

b)

lower-level

c)

subconscious

d)

unconscious

53.

automatic processing (ex. daydreaming)

a)

higher-level

b)

lower-level

c)

altered states

d)

subconscious

54.

Beta Waves

a)

awake

b)

drowsy

c)

deep sleep

55.

Alpha waves

a)

drowsy (non REM stages)

b)

awake

c)

deep sleep

56.

the circadian rhythm is controlled by

a)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

suprachiasmatic nucleus

c)

thalamus

d)

the corpus collosum

57.

hidden meaning of a dream

a)

latent content

b)

manifest content

58.

obvious storyline of a dream

a)

latent content

b)

manifest content

59.

the brain produces random bursts of energy, stimulating lodged memories in the limbic system, dreams start random and then develop meaning

a)

wish fulfillment

b)

activation synthesis

c)

stroboscopic movement

d)

absolute threshold

60.

failure to notice a change in the scene is to ___whereas failure to notice something added because you are so focused on another task is to ___

a)

change blindness; inattentional blindness

b)

cocktail party effect; inattentional blindness

c)

inattentional blindness; change blindness

d)

change blindness; cocktail party effect

61.

three cones receiving color (blue, red, green), explains color blindness

a)

opponent process theory

b)

change blindness theory

c)

trichromatic theory

d)

visual capture theory

62.

when the visual system overwhelms the other systems

a)

stroboscopic movement

b)

phi phenomenon

c)

constancies

d)

visual capture

63.

motion produced by rapid succession of slightly varying images (animations)

a)

phi phenomenon

b)

light constancies

c)

stroboscopic movement

d)

interposition

64.

monocular cue that states that overlapping images seem to appear closer

a)

relative clarity

b)

relative size

c)

interposition

d)

retinal disparity

65.

coarser objects appear closer

a)

texture gradient

b)

relative clarity

c)

relative height

d)

motion parallax

66.

closer objects appear to move faster than objects that are further away

a)

convergence

b)

retinal disparity

c)

linear perspective

d)

motion parallax

67.

(binocular cue) image is cast slightly different on each retina, location of image helps us determine depth

a)

convergence

b)

retinal disparity

c)

texture gradient

d)

linear perspective

68.

(binocular cue) eyes strain inwards as objects draw nearer

a)

convergence

b)

retinal disparity

c)

linear parallax

d)

change blindness

69.

processing that goes from the whole part to the smaller parts (seeing a painting, and then noticing the faces)

a)

top-down processing

b)

bottom-up processing

70.

processing that goes from smaller parts to a whole (ex. seeing a bunch of dots and then noticing that it makes a dog)

a)

top-down processing

b)

bottom-up processing

71.

theory that the location where the hair cells bend determines the sound (explains higher pitches)

a)

place theory

b)

frequency theory

c)

trichromatic theory

d)

opponent processing theory

72.

theory that the rate at which action potentials are sent determines the sound (explains low pitches)

a)

place theory

b)

frequency theory

c)

trichromatic theory

d)

opponent processing theory

73.

sense of balance (semicircular canals in the inner ear effect this)

a)

kinesthetic sense

b)

vestibular sense

c)

mechanoreceptor sense

d)

olfacation

74.

who is concerned with classical conditioning?

a)

skinner

b)

bandura

c)

thorndike

d)

pavlov

75.

describes the timing of the pairing of a neutral stimulus into the controlled stimulus, the NS/CS must be presented 0.5-1 second before the unconditioned stimulus

a)

acquisition

b)

contiguity

c)

generalization

d)

discrimination

76.

process of learning the response pairing between the CS and the CR

a)

contiguity

b)

acquisition

c)

extinction

d)

generalization

77.

describes having the same CR to a similar stimulus

a)

contiguity

b)

acquisition

c)

generalization

d)

discrimination

78.

study by Rescorla and Wagner, determined that classical conditioning involves cognitive processing

a)

Contingency Model

b)

Conditioned taste aversion

c)

One-Trial Learning

d)

Little Albert

79.

most connected to operant conditioning

a)

pavlov

b)

skinner

c)

bandura

d)

watson

80.

study by John Garcia, determined that innate predispositions can allow classical conditioning to occur in one trial (food poisoning)

a)

contingency model

b)

conditioned taste aversion

c)

little albert

d)

law of effect

81.

study by John Watson, conditioned a fear in a baby, eventually led to behavioral treatments for fear (counterconditioing)

a)

contingency model

b)

conditioned taste aversions

c)

one trial learning

d)

little albert

82.

developed by Thorndike, determined that behaviors followed by positive outcomes are strengthened and negative outcomes weaken a behavior

a)

Law of effect

b)

operant conditioning

c)

over-justification effect

d)

continuous reinforcement effect

83.

___ adds something to increase a behavior, whereas ___ takes away something to increase a behavior

a)

positive punishment, negative punishment

b)

negative punishment, positive punishment

c)

positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement

d)

negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement