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Worksheets

National 5 Chemistry Revision

Total questions: 177

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of elements form Covalent Bonds?

a)

Metals only

b)

Non-metals only

c)

Metals and non-metals

2.

Covalent bonds are formed when

a)

positive and negative ions are attracted to each other

b)

positive metal ions are attracted to delocalised electrons

c)

positive nuclei are attracted to a shared pair of electrons

d)

none of the above

3.

A small group of atoms bonded covalently is called...

a)

a metallic lattice

b)

an ionic lattice

c)

covalent network

d)

covalent molecule

4.

Diamond is an example of a

a)

covalent molecule

b)

covalent network

c)

metallic lattice

d)

ionic lattice

5.

What type of elements form ionic bonds?

a)

metals

b)

non-metals

c)

non-metals and metals

6.

Ionic bonds are the attraction between

a)

positive nuclei and shared electrons

b)

positive metal ions and delocalised electrons

c)

positive and negative ions

7.

Metals form (blank) ions.

a)

positive

b)

Negative

8.

Non-metal form (blank) ions.

a)

positive

b)

negative

9.

Ionic substances have which type of structure?

a)

covalent molecular

b)

covalent network

c)

ionic lattice

d)

metallic lattice

10.

Which structure will have low melting and boiling points?

a)

metallic lattice

b)

ionic lattice

c)

covalent molecular

d)

covalent network

11.

Do covalent compounds conduct electricity?

a)

Yes

b)

No

12.

Why can't covalent substances conduct electricity?

a)

They have delocalised electrons

b)

The ions are trapped in the bond

c)

The electrons are trapped in the bond

d)

They can conduct electricity

13.

Why do covalent molecular substances have low melting and boiling points?

a)

The covalent bonds need to be broken

b)

The weak inter-molecular forces need to be broken

14.

Why do ionic substances conduct when they are molten or in solution?

a)

The ions are trapped in the ionic lattice

b)

They have delocalised electrons

c)

The ions are free to move

15.

Are Ionic substances soluble in water?

a)

Yes

b)

No

16.

Which line in the table shows the properties of a covalent network compound?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

17.

Which line in the table shows the properties of an ionic compound?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.

Which term can be used to describe the shape of chloromethane?

a)

Linear

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Trigonal pyrimidal

d)

V-shaped

19.

Which term can be used to describe the shape of phosphorous hydride?

a)

Trigonal pyrimidal

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Linear

d)

V-Shaped

20.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of sodium chloride?

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of silicon dioxide (sand)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
22.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

23.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

25.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

26.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

27.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

28.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

29.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

30.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

31.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

33.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

37.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

41.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.

What is the test for oxygen?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

43.

What is the test for carbon dioxide?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

44.

What is the test for hydrogen?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

45.

What colour do sodium ions go in a flame test?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Brick-red

d)

Lilac

46.
a)

evaporating dish

b)

watch glass

c)

mortar and pestle

d)

funnel

47.
a)

wire gauze

b)

Bunsen burner

c)

thermometer

d)

utility clamp

48.
a)
beaker
b)
flask
c)
graduated cylinder
d)
test tube
49.
a)
glass triangle
b)
funnel
c)
stirring rod
d)
buret
50.
a)
glass lens
b)
watch glass
c)
evaporating dish
d)
pestle
51.
Beakers are used
a)
to measure volume with high accuracy and precision
b)
to hold small amounts of dry chemicals
c)
to recover dissolved solids
d)
to measure approx. volumes and observe reactions
52.

What is the name of this piece of equipment?

a)

Beaker

b)

Conical flask

c)

Measuring cylinder

d)

Evaporating Basin

53.

Which piece of equipment should you use to measure out liquids?

a)
b)
c)
d)
54.
acid + base ₋>
a)
salt + hydrogen
b)
salt + water
c)
salt + carbon dioxide + water
d)
salt
55.

What allows us to know when the end point in a titration has been reached?

a)

Bubbles

b)

Feels warm

c)

indicator changing color

d)

Turns to a solid

56.

What is this piece of apparatus called

a)

Pipette

b)

Burette

c)

Janette

d)

Cuvette

57.

Why do we perform a titration?

a)

To determine the concentration of an unknown solution

b)

To see if a reaction will occur between an acid and base

c)

To find the mass of an unknown acid

d)

To find the molar mass of an unknown solution

e)

To calculate the viscosity of the solution

58.

Which of these does not belong to the same homologous series?

a)

pentane

b)

cyclopropane

c)

propane

d)

hexane

59.

Which of these is a use for alkanes?

a)

to make plastics

b)

fuels

c)

solvent

d)

to make alcohols

60.

What is the general formula of an alkane?

a)

CnH2n+1

b)

CnH2n-1

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n+2

61.

What is the general formula of an alkene?

a)

CnH2n+1

b)

CnH2n-1

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n+2

62.

What is the general formula of cycloalkane?

a)

CnH2n+1

b)

CnH2n-1

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n+2

63.

What does this describe 'substances with the same molecular formula but different structural formula'

a)

homologous series

b)

hydrocarbon

c)

isomer

d)

none of these

64.

What does this describe 'a family of compounds with the same general formula and similar chemical properties' ?

a)

homologous series

b)

hydrocarbon

c)

isomer

d)

none of these

65.

What does this describe 'a substance that contains only hydrogen and carbon' ?

a)

homologous series

b)

hydrocarbon

c)

isomer

d)

none of these

66.

What do you call an alkene with 2 carbons?

a)

ethane

b)

ethene

c)

propane

d)

propene

67.

What would an alkane with 8 carbons be called?

a)

octene

b)

heptene

c)

heptane

d)

octane

68.

Which alkane has 8 hydrogens?

a)

octane

b)

propane

c)

pentane

d)

hexane

69.

If an alkene has 20 carbons, how many hydrogens would it have?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

41

d)

42

70.

If an alkene had 20 hydrogens, how many carbons would it have?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

40

d)

42

71.

If an alkane had 20 carbons, how many hydrogens would it have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

40

d)

42

72.

When bromine is added to an alkene it makes ....

a)

a dihaloalkane

b)

an alcohol

c)

an alkane

d)

a cycloalkane

73.

What type of reaction occurs when hydrogen is added to an alkene?

a)

hydration

b)

halogenation

c)

hydrogenation

d)

none of these

74.

Which of these reactions would make an alcohol?

a)

hydration

b)

hydrogenation

c)

halogenation

d)

none of these

75.

What is the name of this alkane?

a)

2,3-dimethylpropane

b)

3,4-dimethylpropane

c)

2,3-dimethylpentane

d)

3,4-dimethylpentane.

76.

The shortened structural formula for an organic compound is CH3CH(CH3)CH(OH)C(CH3)3

Which of the following is another way of representing this structure?

a)
b)
c)
d)
77.

Which of the following compounds belongs to the same homologous series as the compound with the molecular formula C3H8?

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

The systematic name for the structure shown is

a)

1,2-dimethylpent-1-ene

b)

2,3-dimethylpent-1-ene

c)

3,4-dimethylpent-4-ene

d)

3,4-dimethylpent-1-ene

79.

Two isomers of butene are shown.

Which of the following structures represents a third isomer of butene?

a)
b)
c)
d)
80.

Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkane?

a)

C7H16

b)

C7H14

c)

C7H12

d)

C7H10

81.

A student added bromine solution to compound X and compound Y. These are shown in the picture. Which substance(s) would decolourise bromine solution?

a)

Compound X only

b)

Compound Y only

c)

Compound X and Y

d)

Neither compound X nor Y

82.

What are the three essential elements that plants require?

a)

nitrogen phosphate potassium

b)

nitrogen sulphur potassium

c)

nitrogen potassium phosphorous

d)

nitrogen potassium polonium

83.

what is the catalyst used in the Haber process?

a)

iron

b)

platinum

c)

silver

d)

gold

84.

What is produced in the Ostwald process?

a)

ammonia

b)

nitrogen

c)

nitrate

d)

nitric acid

85.

Which of the following would be a suitable fertiliser?

a)

nitrogen dioxide

b)

potassium nitrate

c)

copper phosphate

d)

nitrogen oxide

86.

What type of bonding is in ammonia?

a)

metallic

b)

covalent molecular

c)

covalent network

d)

ionic

87.
The Haber process is the name we give to the industrial production of
a)
Ammonia
b)
Salt
c)
Sodium Hydroxide
d)
Soap
88.
Which equation represents the formation of ammonia
a)
N2 + H2 ₋> NH3
b)
N + 3H ₋> NH3
c)
N2 + 3H2 ₋> NH3
d)
N2 + 3H2 ₋> 2NH3
89.
If an atom loses electrons during a chemical reaction, the atom was:
a)
Oxidized
b)
Reduced
c)
Neutralized
d)
Precipitated
90.

During which process does an atom gain one or more electrons?

a)

transmutation

b)

reduction

c)

oxidation

d)

neutralization

91.

When a lithium atom forms an Li+ ion, the lithium atom

a)

gains a proton

b)

gains an electron

c)

loses a proton

d)

loses an electron

92.
What is an ore?
a)
a solid metal
b)

a rock containing a metal combined with other elements

c)
an element
d)
an object used to row a boat
93.
Which element cannot be extracted from its ore by reduction with carbon?
a)
iron
b)
aluminium
c)
copper
d)
lead
94.
What is the name of the process that uses electricity to separate the elements in a compound?
a)
reduction
b)
electrolysis
c)
extraction
d)
mining
95.
How would you best extract iron from haematite (iron ore)?
a)
reduction by carbon
b)
electrolysis
c)
decomposition
d)
oxidation
96.
Which statement is true:
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–
a)
Mg gains 2 electrons
b)
Mg2+ loses 2 electrons
c)
Mg loses 1 electron
d)
Mg loses 2 electrons
97.

The closer the elements in the Electrochemical Series, the greater the voltage produced.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Electrons will flow from the element higher in the Electrochemical Series to the one lower in the Electrochemical Series.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

A temperature increase causes the particles to ......

a)

to slow down

b)

move faster

c)

collide higher

d)

in the right order

100.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it increases the frequency of particle collisions

101.

What can be said about the green line?

a)

it is a faster rate of reaction

b)

It produces same volume of product as red line

c)

Half the volume of reactants has been used

102.

Which would not speed up a chemical reaction?

a)

Using a large beaker

b)

Increasing the concentration

c)

Decreasing particle size

d)

adding a catalyst

103.

Which would have the slowest rate of reaction

a)

Magnesium ribbon 1M HCl at 20 degrees

b)

Magnesium powder 1M HCl at 20degrees

c)

Magnesium ribbon 0.5M HCl at 10degrees

d)

Magnesium powder 0.5M HCl at 10degrees

104.

Increasing the temperature gives particles more __________.

a)

Time

b)

Energy

c)

Space

d)

Frequency

105.

Which graph shows the effect of increasing temperature on the rate of reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
106.
In an experiment, a 2 g lump of zinc and 2 g of powdered zinc are added separately to equal volumes of dilute sulphuric acid. The solid line on the graph shows the volume of gas given off when the 2 g lump is used. Which dotted line is obtained when the zinc is powdered? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
107.

When surface area is decreased the rate of reaction...

a)

Decreases, because there are LESS possible sites for correct collisions

b)

Increases, because there are LESS possible sites for correct collisions

c)

Decreases, because there are MORE possible sites for correct collisions

d)

Increases, because there are MORE possible sites for correct collisions

108.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

109.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

110.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

111.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

112.
Which ion determines a base?
a)
H+
b)
OH-
c)
OH+
d)
CO32-
113.
What is the pH of an extremely strong acid?
a)
pH 0
b)
pH 7
c)
pH 13
d)
pH 2
114.

Solutions that have more OH– ions than H+ ions are

a)

acids

b)

bases

c)

enzymes

d)

neutral

115.

Solutions that have more H+ ions than OH- ions are

a)

acids

b)

bases

c)

enzymes

d)

neutral

116.
Which has a pH below 7?
a)
Acid
b)
Base
117.
Acids react with
a)
water to produce bases and salts
b)
salts to produce bases and water
c)
neither bases, salts nor water
d)
bases to produce salts and water
118.

What other laboratory substance can you use to test if colourless substance is an acid or an alkali?

a)

Catalyst

b)

Salt

c)

Universal Indicator

d)

Water

119.

What happens to the pH of an acid during neutralisation?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It moves toward pH 1

c)

It moves towards pH 7

d)

It moves towards pH 14

120.
What salt is produced if you react sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid?
a)
sodium hydroxide
b)
sodium sulfate
c)
sodium nitrate
d)
sodium chloride
121.
A salt is formed when nitric acid combines with sodium hydroxide. What is the name of the salt?
a)
Sodium chloride
b)
Sodium nitrate
c)
Hydrogen Nitrate
d)
Nirate
122.
The products of a neutralisation reaction are lithium sulfate and water. What is the name of the acid used to neutralise the alkali lithium hydroxide?
a)
hydrochloric acid
b)
sulfuric acid
c)
nitric acid
d)
phosphoric acid
123.
Which reactants are used to produce sodium chloride (salt and water)
a)
sodium hydroxide and nitric acid
b)
sodium hydroxide and sulfuric acid
c)
sodium hydroxide and phosphoric acid 
d)
sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid
124.
hydrochloric acid
a)
HCl
b)
HClO
c)
H3ClO3
d)
HClO3
125.
nitric acid
a)
HNO2
b)
HNO3
c)
HNO4
d)
H2NO3
126.
sulfuric acid
a)
HSO3
b)
H2SO3
c)
H2SO4
d)
H3SO4
127.
Which two subatomic particles are found in the NUCLEUS of at atom?
a)
protons & nuetrons
b)
protons & electrons
c)
neutrons & electrons
d)
electrons & protons
128.
The subatomic particle with a neutral charge is:
a)
protons
b)
electrons
c)
neutrons
d)
cloud
129.
If an element has 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons, what type of charge does the element have?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
imaginary
130.
What gives an atom mass?
a)
Protons & electrons in the nucleus
b)
electrons in the cloud
c)
protons & neutrons in the nucleus
d)
Protons & electrons in the cloud
131.
If an atom has 24 protons and 24 electrons, what is the atomic number of this element?
a)
24
b)
48
c)
0
d)
42
132.
The number of protons is equal to 
a)
the atomic number
b)
the number of neutrons
c)
the energy levels
d)
the periodic table groups
133.
Elements in the same ________ are more chemically similar.
a)
group
b)
period
c)
club
d)
table
134.
Rows on the periodic table are called _____ while columns are called _____.
a)
groups, families
b)
groups, periods
c)
periods, groups
d)
families, groups
135.
What does the H stand for?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
atomic number
c)
atomic mass
d)
atomic explosion
136.

Most elements on the periodic table are classified as ____________.

a)

Gases

b)

Metalloids

c)

Metals

d)

Nonmetals

137.

Which group on the periodic table is the most reactive?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

Group 13

d)

Group 18

138.

What is the chemical symbol for Sodium?

a)

S

b)

So

c)

Na

d)

Ca

139.
The atomic number tells you what?
a)
number of electrons
b)
number of protons
c)
number of neutrons
d)
both electrons and protons in an atom.
140.
A neutron has a charge of
a)
+2
b)
No charge
c)
-1
d)
+1
141.
What is the chemical symbol for Lithium?
a)
H
b)
He
c)
Li
d)
N
142.
The second energy level can hold up to how many electrons?
a)
2
b)
8
c)
10
d)
12
143.
How are elements ordered on the Periodic Table?
a)
Alphabetical Order
b)
By their color.
c)
By their atomic mass.
d)
By their atomic number.
144.

Isotopes of an element have a different number of...

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mass

145.
How many neutrons does a Sodium 24 isotope have?
a)
12
b)
13
c)
14
d)
15
146.
Four isotopes of lead include lead-204, lead-206, lead-207, and lead-208.  The average atomic mass of lead is 207.2.  Which isotope of lead is likely to be the most abundant.
a)
204
b)
206
c)
207
d)
208
147.
Each column in the periodic table is called a _________ .
a)
period
b)
group
c)
cluster
d)
unit
148.

What element will have the most similar chemical properties to the element Sulfur (S)?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Phosphorous (P)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Neon (Ne

149.

What element will have the most similar chemical properties to the element Lithium (Li)?

a)

Sodium (Na)

b)

Magnesium (Mg)

c)

Beryllium (Be)

d)

Calcium (Ca)

150.
Periods on the periodic table are __________.
a)
Horizontal Rows
b)
Vertical Columns
151.
The Modern Periodic Table of Elements is arranged by
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
152.
What does the 6 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
153.

Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?

a)

nobles gases

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

neutrons

154.

Which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus?

a)

protons and electrons

b)

only neutrons

c)

protons and neutrons

d)

electrons and neutrons

155.

The mass number of an atom is equal to what?

a)

protons + neutrons

b)

protons + electrons

c)

protons

d)

neutrons

156.

The atomic number of an atom is equal to what?

a)

Number of protons

b)

Number of neutrons

c)

Protons + neutrons

d)

Mass number - protons

157.

What is the definition of an element?

a)

A substance made up of only one type of atom

b)

A substance made up of atoms

c)

A compound made up of atoms

d)

A mixture of atoms

158.

Metals are found in the Periodic Table...

a)

on the left-hand side of the staircase

b)

on the right-hand side of the staircase

c)

throughout - they are not organised

d)

at the top

159.

Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have what?

a)

Similar chemical properties

b)

Different chemical properties

c)

The same atomic number

d)

The same mass

160.

Argon and Neon have similar chemical properties. Why?

a)

They are in the same period

b)

They have the same number of outer electrons

c)

They sound similar

d)

They have the same number of electrons

161.

Atoms are overall neutral as...

a)

neutrons = protons

b)

neutrons = electrons

c)

protons = electrons

d)

electrons = nucleus

162.

Which line is true for protons?

a)

mass number = 0, charge = +1

b)

mass number = 1, charge = 0

c)

mass number = 0, charge = -1

d)

mass number = 1, charge = +1

163.

What is an isotope?

a)

particles with the same atomic number but different mass number

b)

particles with different atomic numbers and different mass numbers

c)

particles with the same atomic number and same mass numbers

d)

particles with different atomic numbers and the same mass number

164.

How many protons are present in this atom?

a)

92

b)

235

c)

143

165.

RAM (in chemistry) stands for what?

a)

Random Access Memory

b)

Relative Atomic Mass

c)

Relative Average Mass

d)

Random Atomic Mass

166.

The RAM of an atom depends on what?

a)

The mass and abundancy of each isotope

b)

Only the mass of each isotope

c)

Only the abundancy of each isotope

d)

The number of protons

167.

A lithium nucleus contains 3 protons and 4 neutrons.

What is its nuclide notation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
168.

Which diagram could represent the structure of a neutral atom?

a)
b)
c)
d)
169.
How many neutrons does the isotope of lithium have?
a)
8
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
170.
How many protons does this isotope of titanium have?
a)
48
b)
22
c)
26
d)
70
171.

What varies between isotopes of an element?

a)

protons, electrons, and atomic mass

b)

protons, electrons, and atomic number

c)

neutrons and electrons

d)

neutrons and atomic mass

172.

Isotopes of an element have a different number of...

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mass

173.

How many outer electrons does carbon have?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

174.
Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive)  gases?
a)
alkali metals
b)
alkaline earth metals
c)
halogens
d)
noble gases
175.

The alkali metals are which group in the Periodic Table?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

Group 7

d)

Group 8/0

176.

The reactivity of the alkali metals...

a)

decreases as you go down the group

b)

doesn't change as you go down the group

c)

increases as you go down the group

177.

The reactivity of the halogens...

a)

decreases as you go down the group

b)

doesn't change as you go down the group

c)

increases as you go down the group

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