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FSSA Practice Quiz - GRIT

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the transformation of the energy in food into the energy required to run, as pictured in the image ?

a)

chemical to mechanical

b)

chemical to potential

c)

mechanical to chemical

d)

thermal to mechanical

2.

Matthew is conducting a scientific investigation on potential and kinetic energy by skateboarding downhill. He calculates his potential energy at the top of the hill to be 15 Joules of energy. When he reaches the bottom, his calculated kinetic energy is only 12 Joules.

Based on the Law of Conservation of Energy, which of the following is the most likely source of the “missing” 3 Joules of energy due to friction?

a)

gravitational energy

b)

mechanical energy

c)

thermal energy

d)

wind energy

3.

Janet plugs in her cellphone before she goes to bed. Which of the following best describes the energy transformation that is happening as the phone charges?

a)

Chemical Energy to Electrical Energy

b)

Chemical Energy to Thermal Energy

c)

Electrical Energy to Chemical Energy

d)

Electrical Energy to Thermal Energy

4.

The bicycle rider ate breakfast before the ride. Which of the following energy transformations occurred during the bike ride?

a)

Kinetic energy to chemical energy

b)

Chemical energy to kinetic energy

c)

Kinetic energy to nuclear energy

d)

Nuclear energy to kinetic energy

5.

John left his home and walked 3 blocks to his school, as shown in the accompanying graph. What is one possible interpretation of the section of the graph from point B to point C?

a)

John waited before crossing a busy street.

b)

John arrived at school and stayed throughout the day.

c)

John returned home to get his mathematics homework.

d)

John reached the top of a hill and began walking on level ground.

6.

The teacher instructs her students to return the books closest to them back to the shelf. Neither Jennifer nor Brianna wants to take the book back to the shelf. They begin to push the book back and forth to force it on the other’s side. Who will lose the book battle and what will be the resultant net force moving the book toward their direction?

a)

Brianna and 2 N

b)

Brianna and 38 N

c)

Jennifer and 2 N

d)

Jennifer and 38 N

7.

A television satellite is orbiting at a constant distance around Earth. Which of the following statements BEST describes the impact of gravity on the Earth and the satellite?

a)

The Earth and the satellite do not have any gravitational pull because no objects in space have gravity.

b)

The gravitational pull of Earth and the satellite are the same because all objects in space have the same gravity.

c)

The gravitational pull of Earth is stronger than the gravitational pull of the satellite because larger objects in space have greater gravity.

d)

The gravitational pull of the satellite is stronger than the gravitational pull of the Earth because smaller objects in space have greater gravity.

8.

On Earth, a brick has a mass of 10 kg and a weight of 5 lbs. What predictions could we make about the mass and weight of the brick on the Moon, where there is less gravity?

a)

The mass of the brick would be less than 10 kg on the Moon.

b)

The weight of the brick could be less than 5lbs on the Moon.

c)

The mass of the brick would be greater than 10 kg on the Moon.

d)

The weight of the brick could be greater than 5lbs on the Moon.

9.

Adrian plays basketball with Kevin on a basketball court that is completely level. After Adrian makes a basket, their ball rolls to a complete stop. What forces acted on the ball to cause it to stop rolling?

a)

Acceleration and gravity

b)

Friction and acceleration

c)

Gravity and friction

d)

Magnetic forces and friction

10.

According to the diagram, three island bird species are labeled as insect eating, woodpecker type insect eating and seed eating. Which explanation below best describes the evolutionary changes resulting in a variety of genetic traits expressed among these island birds?

a)

The insect eating bird exists where seeds were plentiful and the insect population was limited.

b)

The seed eating bird exists where seeds were limited and insect populations were plentiful.

c)

The seed eating bird exists where the number of insect population equals the number of seed production.

d)

The insect eating birds exist where the number of insect populations was plentiful and plant seed production was limited.

11.

Referring to the diagram above, what is the correct relationship between DNA, chromosomes, inherited traits and genes?

a)

Chromosomes are found in the cell nucleus, they are composed of genetic material called DNA. DNA is made up of genes which codes for inherited traits.

b)

Chromosomes are found in the cell nucleus, they are composed of genetic material called genes. Genes are made up of DNA which codes for inherited traits.

c)

DNA is found in the cell nucleus, they are composed of genetic material called genes. Genes are made up of chromosomes which codes for inherited traits.

d)

Genes are found in the cell nucleus, they are composed of genetic material called chromosomes. Chromosomes are made up of DNA which codes for inherited traits.

12.

In pea plants, tall (T) is the dominant trait. What is the probability of producing a tall pea plant from a genetic cross between two heterozygous pea plants?

a)

1:4 (25%)

b)

2:4 (50%)

c)

3:4 (75%)

d)

4:4 (100%)

13.

Water has the chemical formula of H2O. Which of the following best describes the properties of Hydrogen (H) and Oxygen (O) when they come together to form water?

a)

They combine and form a compound with new properties.

b)

They combine and form a compound with their original properties.

c)

They combine and form a compound that keeps only the properties of Oxygen.

d)

They combine and form a compound that keeps only the properties of Hydrogen.

14.

In the picture above, the different shapes (circle, triangle, and square) represent different elements. Which of the figures above best represents a pure substance?

a)

Figure W & X

b)

Figure W & Y

c)

Figure Z & X

d)

Figure Z & W

15.

A timeline of some models of atoms throughout history is shown in the picture. These models have contributed to the formation of the atomic theory. Which statement best summarizes the development of the atomic theory over time?

a)

The discovery of new evidence resulted in changes to the atomic theory.

b)

Advancements in atomic models proved the atomic theory accurate.

c)

The atomic theory was modified with the discovery of every new element.

d)

Changes in atomic models showed that the atomic theory was based on opinion.

16.

In the modern periodic table, which of the following describes the elements with similar properties?

a)

They have similar atomic masses.

b)

They are located in the same group.

c)

They are located in the same period.

d)

They have the same number of protons.

17.

Use the picture of an atom below to answer the question. Which statement best describes the part of the atom that is shown by the arrow?

a)

It is an electron, and it has a negative charge.

b)

It is an electron, and it has a positive charge.

c)

It is a proton, and it has a negative charge.

d)

It is a proton, and it has a positive charge.

18.

In the picture attached, a slow-moving mass of ice (hielo) has gradually weathered and eroded rock away in a mountain valley. The landscape of rock has greatly changed. Which sphere was affected in the transformation?

a)

Geosphere: because the cryosphere scraped rock away as it slowly moved

b)

Geosphere: because the hydrosphere scraped rock away as it slowly moved

c)

Biosphere: because the hydrosphere flooded the valley eliminating trees and plants

d)

Biosphere: because the cryosphere flooded the valley eliminating trees and plants

19.

How would interactions between the hydrosphere and atmosphere impact locations where the humidity tends to be lower?

a)

The amount of cloud cover in the hydrosphere would be higher because it has not condensed from the atmosphere.

b)

The amount of cloud cover in the hydrosphere would be lower because it has been condensed from the atmosphere.

c)

The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere would be higher because it has been precipitated from the hydrosphere.

d)

The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere would be lower because it has not evaporated from the hydrosphere.

20.

The Gulf Stream is an ocean current that runs from the southern tip of Florida up the eastern coast of the U.S. and ends in the North Atlantic Ocean. The Gulf Stream and many other ocean currents are labeled in the diagram below. How would this Northern flowing stream affect the north eastern coast?

a)

The Gulf Stream would impact the northern beaches by bringing warmer water and more humidity.

b)

The Gulf Stream would impact the northern beaches by bringing cooler water and more humidity.

c)

The Gulf Stream would impact the northern beaches by bringing cooler water and more wave erosion.

d)

The Gulf Stream would impact the northern beaches by bringing warmer water and more wave erosion

21.

According to the graphs below, which statement best depicts and explains which graph represents weather?

a)

Graph A is weather because it’s showing daily conditions over 30 years.

b)

Graph B is weather because it’s showing annual conditions over 30 years

c)

Graph A is weather because it’s showing daily conditions over a week.

d)

Graph B is weather because it’s showing annual precipitation over a week.

22.

The stratosphere contains the Earth’s ozone layer. The ozone blocks some solar radiation. What would happen if the ozone layer was removed from the atmosphere?

a)

The removal of the ozone layer would cause higher temperatures.

b)

The removal of the ozone layer would cause an extinction of all life.

c)

The removal of the ozone layer would cause a higher rate of skin cancer.

d)

The removal of the ozone layer would cause the depletion of natural resources.

23.

Anthony is vacationing with his family in an area near a subduction zone (where a continental plate and an oceanic plate collide). What types of rocks is Anthony most likely to find in this subduction zone?

a)

igneous and metamorphic

b)

igneous and sedimentary

c)

sedimentary and igneous

d)

sedimentary and metamorphic

24.

Which of the following would be the best real world example of erosion and deposition?

a)

Wind and water moving the material to create a sand dune.

b)

Sediment squeezing together forcing water out to form sedimentary rock.

c)

Volcanoes moving lava to the surface in an eruption forming igneous rock.

d)

Plant roots growing into a rock, breaking the rock in pieces to create sediment.

25.

Urbanization occurs when large areas of land are developed. Which of the following impacts on the environment would NOT result from urbanization?

a)

increased soil erosion

b)

increased runoff of surface water

c)

improved air quality

d)

warmer local temperatures

26.

Amounts of air pollution are increasing all over the world. Continuing studies show that the increased carbon dioxide from a variety of factors can affect regional weather. What is one possible effect of air pollution?

a)

increased winds

b)

increased temperature

c)

decreased rain

d)

decreased hurricanes

27.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
28.

Which of the following is a phenotype?

a)

Aa

b)

red hair

c)

heterozygous

d)

DNA

29.
Identify the homozygous dominant genotype:
a)
FF
b)
Ff
c)
ff
30.
What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
100%
31.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
32.

Which physical property could best be used to separate a mixture of baking powder and iron filings?

a)

density

b)

electrical conductivity

c)

magnetism

d)

melting point

33.

Which of the following best describes how chemical changes differ from physical changes?

a)

Physical changes do not produce new substances and chemical changes do.

b)

Physical changes always involve the formation of a gas while chemical changes may not.

c)

Physical changes can occur inside or outside the substance; chemical changes always occur outside.

d)

Physical changes involve a change of state; chemical changes involve a change of shape.

34.

Which of the following would cause only a chemical change with a sugar cube?

a)

Crushing the sugar cube

b)

Digesting the sugar cube

c)

Freezing the sugar cube

d)

Dissolving the sugar cube in water

35.

Marco accidently broke a crayon while coloring. Which of the following best compares the broken crayon to the original crayon?

a)

The total mass of the broken crayon pieces are the same as the original crayon.

b)

The crayon went through a chemical change since there are more pieces of crayon.

c)

The crayon went through a chemical change because the shape of the crayon changed.

d)

The density of the pieces of crayon has decreased since the crayon is now in smaller pieces.

36.

What are the reactants of photosynthesis?

a)

Glucose and oxygen

b)

Sunlight, oxygen and water

c)

Sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water

d)

Glucose and carbon dioxide

37.

Sarah believes that only animals undergo cellular respiration.

Drew believes that both plants and animals undergo cellular respiration.

Only one student is correct. Which answer choice best explains why?

a)

Drew is correct because both plants and animal cells need chemical energy to carry out cellular processes.

b)

Sarah is correct because plant cells do not need chemical energy for cellular processes and animal cells do.

c)

Drew is correct because plants need to store more chemical energy for consumers and animals need chemical energy for cellular processes.

d)

Sarah is correct because plant cells already have chemical energy stored in them and animal cells need chemical energy for cellular processes.

38.

Which correctly identifies structures that both plant and animal cells have in common?

a)

cell membrane, mitochondria, and cytoplasm

b)

cell membrane, nucleus, and chloroplast

c)

cell wall, cell membrane, and chloroplast

d)

cell wall, cytoplasm, and nucleus

39.

Which list below places tissue in the correct place in the levels of organization of organisms from SMALLEST to BIGGEST?

a)

cell, organ, tissue, organ system, organism

b)

cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

c)

organism, organ, organ system, tissue, cell

d)

tissue, cell, organ, organ system, organism

40.

Pedro begins his training routine. In his plan, he has a nutritious breakfast in the morning to get energy before his two-mile run. In this scenario, what are the two main organ systems interacting in order to maintain homeostasis?

a)

The skeletal system produces more blood cells, and the circulatory system moves the cells throughout the body.

b)

The circulatory system absorbs the nutrients from the food, and the excretory system eliminates the food wastes.

c)

The nervous system sends a signal to the muscles, and the muscular system allows the athlete to move during exercise.

d)

The digestive system breaks down the food into nutrients, and the circulatory system delivers the nutrients to the cells.

41.

A certain reptile species is a carnivore and lives only on an isolated island. Which of the following would most likely result in the extinction of the reptile species over a period of twenty thousand years?

a)

The reptile species produces many offspring with many unique traits, and the other animals on the island remains constant.

b)

The reptile species produces few offspring with NO unique traits, and the other animals on the island decrease quickly.

c)

The reptile species produces few offspring with some unique traits, and the other animals on the island increase quickly.

d)

The reptile species produces many offspring with some unique traits, and the other animals on the island increases slowly.

42.

In a cross between two guinea pigs, the first parent is homozygous dominant with black fur color. The second parent is homozygous recessive with white fur color. What is the percentage of offspring that could be produced with white fur?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

43.

Asexual and sexual reproduction both result in the production of new organisms. What is a benefit of one of these forms of reproduction that would not apply to the other?

a)

Genetic variation is increased in asexual reproduction because of one parent cell.

b)

Sexual reproduction usually happens faster, therefore resulting in more offspring more frequently.

c)

Sexual reproduction requires two parents and results in offspring that have more genetic variation.

d)

Since asexual reproduction only requires one parent, there is less chance of dangerous mutations being passed on to offspring.

44.

Differences in the moon's and sun's gravitational pull on the Earth, but mostly the pull of the ___________, causes _________.

a)

moon; gravity

b)

sun; lunar phases

c)

moon; tides

d)

sun; tides

45.
Which pair of objects has the greatest force of gravity between them? 
a)
The top pair because they are farther apart.
b)
The bottom pair because they are closer together.
c)
The top pair because they are moving fast.
d)
The bottom pair because they are moving slow.