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A&P Muscle and Nerves

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which characteristics describe both skeletal and cardiac muscle?

a)

Autonomic Control

b)

Autorhythmicity

c)

Cell Shape

d)

Striations

e)

Somatic Control

2.

Which function do all three muscles perform?

a)

Promoting Movement of Body Structures

b)

Moving and Storing Material throughout the body

c)

Stabilizing the Movement of Joints

d)

Generating Heat through Contractions

3.

Which property of Muscle gives it the ability to stretch without damage?

a)

Electrical Excitability

b)

Extensibility

c)

Contractility

d)

Elasticity

4.

The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the.

a)

Perimysium

b)

Tendon

c)

Endomysium

d)

Epimyium

5.

After the fusion of myobljast, the muscle fiber loses it's ability to.

a)

Contract

b)

Grow

c)

Lengthen

d)

Go Through Mitosis

6.

Skeletal Muscle contractions in triggered to begin when calcium is released from.

a)

Terminal Cistern of Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

b)

T-Tublules

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Myofibrils

7.

Which region of a sarcomere contain thin filaments.

a)

A Band

b)

I Band

c)

H Zone

d)

Both I Band and A Band

8.

Which functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissues?

a)

Tropomyosin

b)

Titin

c)

Myosin

d)

Actin

9.

Which of the regions of a sarcomere contain Titin?

a)

The H Zone Only

b)

The A Band Only

c)

From M Line to Z Disc

d)

The I Band Only

10.

Which protein is used to reinforce the sarcolemma and help transmit the tension generated by the sarcomeres to the tendons?

a)

Actin

b)

Dystrophin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

11.

During muscle contractions, thin filaments are pulled towards the.

a)

I Band

b)

M Line

c)

H Zone

d)

Z Disc

12.

What energizes the myosin head?

a)

ADP Synthesis

b)

ATP Hydrolysis Reaction

c)

Calcium Ions

d)

Phosphate Release

13.

Which APT production would be sufficient to run in place for one minute?

a)

Creatine Phosphate

b)

Aerobic Cellular Respiration

c)

Anaerobic Cellular Respiration

d)

ATP

14.

In skeletal muscles, the combined amounts of creatine phosphate and ATP provide enough energy for the muscle to contract maximally for approximately

a)

5 Seconds

b)

15 Seconds

c)

15 Minutes

d)

1.5 Minutes

15.

Which term describes a somatic motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates?

a)

Synapse

b)

Neuromuscular Junction

c)

Motor Unit

d)

Motor End Plate

16.

A brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential moving down the somatic motor neuron is known as

a)

Unfused Tetanus

b)

Twitch Contraction

c)

Fused Tetanus

d)

Refractory Period

17.

Why would cardiac muscles have longer refractory periods than skeletal muscles? Choose the best answer.

a)

Skeletal Muscle is Autorhythmic

b)

ATP

c)

Skeletal Muscles have Prolonged Calcium Influx

d)

To preserve the normal rhythm of the heart and prevent fatigue

18.

Motor unit recruitment occurs when there is _______ in the number of active motor units within a skeletal muscle.

a)

An Increase

b)

No Charge

c)

A Decrease

19.

World class shot-putters will have a higher percentage of ________in their arm muscles.

a)

fast oxidative fibers

b)

slow oxidative fibers

c)

fast glycolytic fibers

20.

Which microscopic structure is found only in the cardiac muscle tissue?

a)

Intercalated Discs

b)

Myosin

c)

Striations

d)

Sarcomeres

21.

Which type of muscle tissue contracts when excited by their own autorhythmic muscle fibers?

a)

slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle

b)

multi-unit smooth muscle

c)

fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle

d)

cardiac muscle

22.

Smooth muscle tone is maintained by the prolonged presence of [________] in the muscle cell’s cytosol?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Calcium Ions

c)

ATP

d)

Sodium Ions

23.

On the diagram, which layer is composed of dense irregular and surrounds a muscle?

a)

C

b)

E

c)

B

d)

D

e)

A

24.

On the diagram, what structure is composed of the three connective tissue layers that extend past the muscle?

a)

E

b)

H

c)

A

d)

G

25.

On the diagram, a tendon is formed by the merging of which structures?

a)

B and H

b)

C and D

c)

C,D, and H

d)

D and E

26.

Which of the following structures are made of dense regular connective tissue?

a)

I

b)

F

c)

Both F and I

d)

A

27.

In the diagram, calcium ions will rush into this area.

a)

C

b)

D

c)

B

d)

A

28.

In the diagram, acetylcholine is released from ________ and diffuses to _____.

a)

C; A

b)

B; E

c)

E; A

d)

D; C

29.

In the diagram, where would you find stored Ca2+?

a)

D

b)

B

c)

K

d)

F

30.

In the diagram, how do action potentials penetrate the outside of the muscle fiber?

a)

D

b)

K

c)

A

d)

E

31.

In the diagram, what area contains both thick and thin filaments?

a)

Both B and C

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

32.

In the diagram, which structure helps return a stretched sarcomere to its resting length?

a)

E

b)

C

c)

B

d)

All

e)

Both B and C

33.

In the diagram, where are troponin, tropomyosin and nebulin located?

a)

D

b)

A

c)

E

d)

B

34.

In the diagram, which structure(s) moves towards the center of the sarcomere (closer together) when the fiber contracts?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

Both A and C

d)

J

35.

In the diagram, what area is composed of only thick filaments?

a)

D

b)

E

c)

A

d)

B

36.

Which disorder occurs when little to no proteins are produced to support the sarcolemma?

a)

fibromyalgia

b)

muscular hypertrophy

c)

muscular dystrophy

d)

myasthenia gravis

37.

Which portion of this myogram shows a single twitch of the muscle?

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

38.

All of the muscle fibers within the muscle are fully contracted in

a)

B

b)

C

c)

A

d)

D

39.

Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker, reducing free intracellular calcium. What stage of the myogram would be affected immediately?

a)

Latent period

b)

Contraction period

c)

All myogram stages are affected

d)

Relaxation period

40.

Thapsigargin is a potent calcium ATPase pump inhibitors. What state of the myogram would be affected immediately?

a)

Relaxation period

b)

All myogram stages are affected

c)

Contraction period

d)

Latent period

41.

When an athlete performs a pull up (raising their chin to a bar while their body hangs), the process of pulling the body up so the chin can touch the bar is

a)

Isometric

b)

Concentric

c)

Eccentric

42.

When an athlete performs a pull up (raising their chin to a bar while their body hangs), the process of lowering the body down is

a)

Isometric

b)

Concentric

c)

Eccentric

43.

When an athlete is preparing to perform a pull up, they hang from the bar. At this point, they are performing what type of contractions?

a)

Isometric

b)

Concentric

c)

Eccentric

d)

ATP

44.

Strength training would result in

a)

hyperplasia of fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers

b)

atrophy of fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers

c)

conversion of slow oxidative fibers to fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers

d)

hypertrophy of fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers

45.

The relaxation phase of a muscle contraction is often prolonged in a fatigued muscle, raising the likelihood of fused summation of action potentials causing painful disturbances to a skeletal muscle. What disturbance is being described?

a)

Cramp

b)

Fasciculation

c)

Tremor

d)

Fibrillation

46.

Which age group would be most susceptible to an increase in slow oxidative muscle fibers?

a)

pre-teens (9-12 years old)

b)

20-29 years old

c)

teenagers (13-19 years old)

d)

30+ years

47.

Mitochondrial activity in skeletal muscle cells are usually efficient, but can have limited ATP production if

a)

CO2 is produced as a waste product.

b)

there is limited O2 availability

c)

there is pyruvic acid accumulation.

48.

After prolonged strenuous exercise has stopped, heavy breathing will often continue for several minutes in order to provide the oxygen needed to

a)

convert the lactic acid produced during exercise back into glycogen.

b)

resynthesize creatine phosphate.

c)

replace oxygen displaced from muscle myoglobin.

d)

all of these choices are correct

49.

Which type of muscle tissue is capable of undergoing the stress-relaxation response when stretched?

a)

fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers

b)

single-unit smooth muscle fibers

c)

fast glycolytic fibers

d)

multiunit smooth muscle fibers

50.

Cross bridges are formed during muscle contraction when ________ binds to _____.

a)

myosin; troponin

b)

actin; myosin

c)

myosin; actin

d)

actin; tropomyosin

51.

In a neuromuscular junction, the effect of acetylcholine (ACh) binding to receptors on the motor end plate lasts only briefly due to

a)

rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by monoamine oxidase.

b)

diffusion of the ACh out of the synaptic cleft.

c)

rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by acetylcholinesterase.

d)

rapid uptake of the ACh into the myofiber.

52.

The zone of overlap increases during the

a)

relaxation period

b)

absolute refractory period

c)

relative refractory period

d)

contraction period

53.

Muscle damage can be indicated by

a)

myoglobin found in blood.

b)

low concentration of creatine kinase in the sarcoplasm.

c)

high amount of glycogen in the sarcoplasm.

d)

few mitochondria located in muscle fibers.

54.

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that targets the ACh receptors at the NMJ and ultimately reduces the number of available receptors. Predict what happens if you treat the patient with a drug that inhibits the activity of acetylcholinesterase?

a)

The drug will cause a weak contraction.

b)

The drug will cause spasm.

c)

The drug will prevent contraction.

d)

The drug will increase contraction.

55.

Leg muscles are predominantly composed of which type of muscle fiber?

a)

slow oxidative

b)

fast oxidative-glycolytic

c)

fast glycolytic

d)

slow glycolytic

56.

Writer’s cramp can occur in Anatomy and Physiology lecture class. What factor would most likely contribute to the muscles not being able to relax?

a)

calcium being pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

oxygen being delivered by myoglobin and hemoglobin

c)

a deficit of ATP keeping myosin from detaching

d)

ACh being degraded by AChE

57.

Which statement explains the sarcomere appearance change during a muscle contraction?

a)

The I bands will only consist of thin filament.

b)

The light A bands remain at a constant length.

c)

The I bands lengthen.

d)

The h zone shortens as actin filaments slide towards the m-line.

58.

What is the result of acetylcholine attaching to the ligand gates of the motor end plate?

a)

calcium ions will be actively transported into the SR

b)

the positive charge of the sarcolemma decreases

c)

the sarcolemma increases permeability to sodium

d)

calcium voltage gates on the neurolemma are inactive

59.

Why will and individual who lifts weights build larger muscles?

a)

skeletal muscle myofibrils and cells increase in number

b)

eletal muscles are hyperplasic and respond to stress

c)

skeletal muscles signal satellite cells to increase number of cells

d)

skeletal muscles increase number of myofibrils but not number of cells

60.

Which division of the peripheral nervous system only innervates the gastrointestinal tract’s wall?

a)

Enteric nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

Somatic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

61.

The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into

a)

somatic and sympathetic divisions.

b)

enteric and somatic division

c)

voluntary and involuntary divisions.

d)

sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

62.

Which organelle is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Nissl body

d)

Golgi apparatus

63.

This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.

a)

Multipolar neuron

b)

Bipolar neuron

c)

Unipolar neuron

d)

Purkinje cell

64.

After birth Schwann cells

a)

form myelin sheaths around axons in the central nervous system.

b)

stop myelinating neurons in the peripheral nervous system.

c)

lose their ability to regenerate neurons.

d)

increase their presence and amount of myelination in the peripheral nervous system.

65.

Which type of central nervous system tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglial cells?

a)

Gray matter

b)

White matter

c)

Nissl bodies

d)

Ganglia

66.

All of the following statements are true for which type of cell?

• has a charge imbalance across its membrane.

• includes most cells of the body.

• exhibits a membrane potential.inside is more negative relative to outside.

a)

Nonpolarized cell

b)

Polarized cell

c)

Neutral cell

d)

Electrogenic cell

67.

Na+/K+–ATPase is considered to be an electrogenic pump because

a)

it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential.

b)

the sodium ions are negatively charged.

c)

it exhibits low permeability.

d)

it hydrolyzes ADP into ATP.

68.

A depolarizing graded potential

a)

makes the membrane more polarized.

b)

makes the membrane less polarized.

c)

occurs when chloride enters the cytosol.

d)

occurs when acetylcholine enters the cytosol.

69.

During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel,

1. the inactivation gate is open.

2. the activation gate is closed.

3. the channel is permeable to Na+.

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

both 1 and 2 are true.

d)

all of these choices are true.

70.

These statements describe what part of an action potential?

• Sodium activation gates are closed

• Sodium inactivation gates are open

• Potassium gates are open

• Repolarization is occurring

a)

Latent period

b)

Absolute refractory period

c)

Relative refractory period

d)

Depolarizing phase

71.

Saltatory conduction is described by which statements?

1) current passes through the entire unmyelinated axon membrane

2) current passes through a myelinated axon only at the nodes of Ranvier

3) current occurs at faster rates

4) voltage-gated channels are concentrated in unmyelinated regions

5) More energy is used to increase speed of conduction

a)

1, 3, 4

b)

2, 4, 5

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

72.

The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch because

a)

weak stimuli generate action potentials more often than strong stimuli.

b)

all action potentials are alike regardless of stimulus intensity.

c)

the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers is changing.

d)

the threshold is lower for different sensations.

73.

Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of

a)

chemical synapses

b)

electrical synapses

c)

graded potentials

d)

Na+/K+-ATPases

74.

An excitatory neurotransmitter ________ the postsynaptic membrane.

a)

depolarizes

b)

repolarizes

c)

hyperpolarizes

d)

does not affect the polarity of

75.

Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to

a)

remove a neurotransmitter

b)

stop a spatial summation

c)

continue a temporal summation

d)

inhibit a presynaptic potential

76.

A postsynaptic neuron responds to acetylcholine neurotransmitter by creating

a)

EPSP

b)

IPSP

c)

either EPSP or IPSP

d)

neither EPSP or IPSP

77.

This type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsing with several postsynaptic neurons.

a)

Diverging circuit

b)

Converging circuit

c)

Reverberating circuit

d)

Parallel after-discharge circuit

78.

Plasticity means the ability to

a)

regenerate after being damaged.

b)

communicate by hormones.

c)

convert stimulus into an action potential.

d)

change based on experience.

79.

Which part of the neuron in this diagram produces proteins that can regenerate damaged axons in the PNS?

a)

B

b)

E

c)

A

d)

C

80.

Which part of the neuron in this diagram will contain voltage-gated ion channels?

a)

G

b)

E

c)

A

d)

F

81.

In this diagram, which structure electrically insulates the axon of a neuron to increase the speed of nerve impulse conduction?

a)

A

b)

E

c)

C

d)

B

82.

In this diagram, where is a node of Ranvier?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

D

d)

E

83.

In this diagram, which structure would be produced by oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

E

d)

A

84.

In this diagram, which of these types of channels represents a gate that opens to a depolarizing event?

a)

D

b)

C

c)

A

d)

B

85.

In this diagram, which of these types of channels contributes to more potassium diffusing down their concentration gradient compared to sodium?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

B

d)

C

86.

In this diagram, which of the channels is predominantly located on sensory neurons somas and dendrites and responds to vibration, touch, and stretch?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

D

87.

Which diagram represents a circuit that helps coordinated muscular activities, breathing, and short-term memory?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

88.

Which diagram represents the type of circuit commonly used to send sensory signals to multiple areas of the brain?

a)

C

b)

D

c)

B

d)

A

89.

Which diagram represents the type of circuit used to solve algorithms and geometry?

a)

D

b)

C

c)

A

d)

B

90.

Which diagram represents the type of circuit involved in controlling the movement of the biceps brachii and triceps brachii skeletal muscles?

a)

D

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A

91.

The cell body of what neuron(s) in this diagram is/are found in gray matter of the spinal cord?

a)

A & B

b)

B

c)

A

d)

A & C

92.

The neuron labeled B in this diagram would be classified as what type of functional neuron?

a)

somatic sensory neuron

b)

special sensory neuron

c)

somatic motor neuron

d)

association neuron

93.

Which of the following structures is labeled A in the diagram?

a)

axon terminal

b)

trigger zone

c)

cell body

d)

dendrites

94.

Which of the structures in this diagram would be included in a ganglion?

a)

D

b)

C

c)

E

d)

A

95.

Hearing your cell phone ring in a quiet lecture hall is an example of which nervous system functions?

a)

Sensory Function

b)

Integrative Function

c)

Motor Function

d)

All of the Above

96.

Which electrical signal can allow for rapid long-distance communication within the nervous system?

a)

Resting Potential

b)

Nerve Action Potential

c)

Muscle Action Potential

d)

Graded Potential

97.

In an action potential, the electric current that flows is generated by the movement of _______ across the membrane.

a)

Ions

b)

Electrons

c)

Neutrons

d)

Chemicals

98.

In temporal summation, a single presynaptic neuron stimulates the creation of action potentials in a postsynaptic neuron when it.

a)

Stops firing long enough to allow the postsynaptic neuron to recover

b)

Fires at a fast enough rate the sum of EPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron moves above threshold

c)

Fires at a steady rate that allows the postsynaptic neuron to return to resting potential

d)

Recruits other presynaptic neurons to begin to fire

99.

Manic-depressive illness is associated with

a)

Major Depression

b)

Dysthymia

c)

Bipolar Disorder

d)

Seasonal Affective Disorder

e)

All of the these disorders

100.

During an action potential's ________, a second stimulus will not produce a second action potential (no matter how strong the stimulus is). This even corresponds to the period when the _______ remain open and the sodium inactivation gates have not reopened.

a)

absolute refractory period; voltage-gated sodium channels

b)

absolute refractory period; voltage-gated potassium channels

c)

relative refractory period; voltage-gated sodium channels

d)

relative refractory period; voltage-gated potassium channels

101.

During an action potential's _______, a second stimulus can be produced only if the stimulus is greater that the threshold stimulus. This even corresponds to the period when the ______ remain open and sodium inactivation gates have reopened.

a)

absolute refractory period; sodium voltage-gated channels

b)

absolute refractory period; potassium voltage-gated channels

c)

relative refractory period; sodium voltage-gated channels

d)

relative refractory period; potassium voltage-gated channels