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CAPM 3 (2022)

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 5hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The project team has completed the development of the Project Management Plan. After the approval of it, what comes next?

a)

Start the execution processes

b)

Update the issue log

c)

Hold kick-off meeting

d)

Close the phase or project

2.

According to the schedule, tomorrow, the plumbers and the plasterers will have 2 hours of work in the kitchen of a small house construction. You are the construction manager of the project and you know that the kitchen is a very small place for both of these teams work together. What should you do?

a)

Use the Work Authorization System

b)

Ask the Schedule Manager to make a revision on the schedule

c)

Let the plumbers and the plasterers solve the problem by themselves

d)

Create a Change Request to make a change in the schedule

3.

The project team are collecting work performance data. Following activity is not done in the same process:

a)

Creating the Issue Log

b)

Creating the Change Requests

c)

Creating the Assumption Log

d)

Using the PMIS

4.

What is the correct order of the followings?

I) Work Performance Information

II) Work Performance Report

III) Work Performance Data

a)

I-II-III

b)

III-II-I

c)

III-I-II

d)

I-III-II

5.

Marsha is the Project Manager of a software project. All of the programming work is completed and now it is time to test the outputs of the software. Marsha noticed that some features of the software result in wrong outputs. When the team investigates the problem, they find out a coding mistake. What action should take place afterward?

a)

Corrective Action

b)

Defect Repair

c)

Preventive Action

d)

Validate Scope

6.

You are the project manager of an electrical works project. One of the team members informed you about a problem they just have. Which of the following options is the best action to do right now?

a)

Request corrective action

b)

Perform integrated change control

c)

Investigate the impact of the change

d)

Point out the works that may need a change request

7.

Your team came up with the root cause of a problem. You determined how to solve it with your team, and you took the related actions to solve the root cause. This problem will cause 6 days delay against the deadline of the project. What should you do?

a)

Evaluate the impact of the change in other areas

b)

Request a change

c)

Execute corrective action

d)

Update the Project Management Plan and other related documents

8.

You are a Change Control Board member. You are evaluating a change request about adding extra resources to speed up the project. If SPI is 0.85 and CPI is 1.1, what should you do?

a)

Approve the change request

b)

Reject the change request

c)

Evaluate the impact of the change

d)

Update the Project Management Plan

9.

Which of the following options is not done after approving a change?

a)

Create Change Management Plan

b)

Change Log Update

c)

Project Management Plan Update

d)

Configuration Management

10.

To decrease the number of changes on a project, you need to do

a)

Risk Management

b)

Change Management

c)

Configuration Management

d)

Integrated Change Control

11.

Due to some legal problems, the customer requests you to stop the project work. As the Project Manager of the project, what should you do?

a)

Reject the request since you have a contract and contracts are legally binding

b)

Stop the project work immediately

c)

Ask the project sponsor what to do

d)

Close the Project

12.

By completing the last activity on the project schedule, and transferring the last deliverable to the customer, you are done with all project activities successfully. Now, you will not:

a)

Make final payments

b)

Create the Final Performance Report

c)

Evaluate customer satisfaction

d)

Validate scope

13.

Which of the following options is wrong about an Agile Environment?

a)

Team members are the Local domain Experts

b)

Project Manager decides the integration of the plans

c)

Project Manager is responsible for ensuring a collaborative environment

d)

Team members have the control of the detailed planning

14.

You got the final customer acceptance for your project. You have finalized the cost reports but you haven’t created the Final Performance Report, yet. The sponsor asks you about the situation of the project. The project is:

a)

Completed, since you got the final customer acceptance

b)

Not completed, you need to update the change log

c)

Completed, since the cost reports are finalized

d)

Not completed, you need to complete the closing process

15.

You are responsible for managing the lessons learned from the project. You are doing:

a)

Information Management

b)

Knowledge Management

c)

Configuration Management

d)

Change Management

16.

As the Project Manager of the project, you are in a meeting about determining the requirements. Two high-level executives of you are discussing the quality of a deliverable. One of the executives says they need to have higher quality for this deliverable since this deliverable is the showcase of the project. The customer also wants this deliverable to have a higher quality. To increase the quality of this deliverable, they need to decrease the quality of another deliverable of the project and this is why the other executive is opposing him. How can you solve this problem?

a)

Ask the support of the CEO who is also the executive of these high-level executives

b)

Since the customer requirements will have higher priority, that deliverable needs to have higher quality

c)

Wait and let the executives solve the problem

d)

Create a change request and follow the Integrated Change Control procedures

17.

The first thing to do when balancing the stakeholder requirements is:

a)

Ranking the requirements

b)

Resolving the conflicts

c)

Using the facilitation techniques

d)

Asking the support of the higher management

18.

The Project Management Plan of an electrical project has just been released. To see the boundaries of the project, you need to search for the:

a)

WBS Dictionary

b)

Scope Baseline

c)

Scope Management Plan

d)

Requirements Traceability Matrix

19.

If you group the existing requirements by their similarities, you may gather new requirements. This technique is called:

a)

Monte Carlo Simulation

b)

Affinity Diagram

c)

Benchmarking

d)

Context Diagram

20.

When preparing the Project Management Plan, the requirements are gathered first. Then the scope is identified according to these requirements. After identifying the scope, the budget and the schedule of the project are determined. As the Project Manager of the project, what should you do if the calculated budget exceeds the desired amount?

a)

Create a Change Request

b)

Perform Integrated Change Control

c)

Balance the requirements

d)

Change the scope

21.

The Project Scope Statement is created after the requirements are identified. Which of the following options will not be helpful when creating the Project Scope Statement?

a)

Alternatives Analysis

b)

Facilitation

c)

Product Analysis

d)

Earned Value Analysis

22.

As a result of the Create WBS process, the Work Breakdown Structure is created. Which of the following options is not true about the WBS?

a)

It can be used as a communicating tool

b)

A numbering system can be used for finding the location of the work package

c)

The project is decomposed until we get the easily manageable activities

d)

Control accounts may be used for high-level control of the schedule

23.

The scope of the project is identified in detail and the Work Breakdown Structure is created. After the approval of the Project Management Plan, the project work had been started. Now, the project progress is around 10% and the SPI of the project is 1.1. One of the team members asks you a question about a work package since he didn’t understand the short definition of the work package written in the WBS. Which of the following is an expected problem in such a situation?

a)

Gold Plating

b)

Requirement Conflicts

c)

Project Termination

d)

Scope Creep

24.

You have created the Work Breakdown Structure. Since this is a big project, there are more than 100 work packages. The project executives request a weekly progress report for the project. Since there are too many work packages, weekly based control of all of these work packages one by one is too hard and time confusing. Which of the following options may help you better in this situation?

a)

Control Accounts

b)

Work Breakdown Dictionary

c)

Project Management Plan

d)

Change Request

25.

You are the project manager of a web site development project. The customer wants an immediate change in the scope. They say this is an urgent situation and they are asking you to make the change right now. What should you do?

a)

Explain the situation to the Project Sponsor and ask him what to do

b)

Since this is an urgent case, change the scope immediately and create a change request later

c)

Create a change request and follow the Integrated Change Control procedure

d)

The Project Scope is approved and cannot be changed; therefore, reject the request of the customer

26.

While creating the Work Breakdown Structure, we do:

a)

Demobilization

b)

Deconstruction

c)

Defect Repair

d)

Data analysis

27.

Marina is a team member of a mid-sized mechanical project. She is assisting the Project Manager while he creates the Work Breakdown Structure. She realizes that some of the project deliverables are not written in the WBS. She needs to:

a)

Create a Change Request

b)

Create the WBS Dictionary

c)

Modify the Requirements Documentation

d)

Control the Scope

28.

You have completed one of the deliverables of the project. What is next?

a)

Control Scope

b)

Validate Scope

c)

Create Work Breakdown Structure

d)

Quality Control

29.

Which of the following options best describes the difference between Quality Control and Validate Scope?

a)

Quality Control involves interim verification, but Validate Scope is the final validation of the Product

b)

Quality Control is an Internal verification, but Validate Scope is an External validation

c)

Quality Control is done by the Customer but Validate Scope is done by the Project Team

d)

Quality Control is the final verification of the Product but Validate Scope is the interim verification

30.

You are a team member of an IT project having an Agile development project life cycle. Which of the following options is wrong?

a)

Not all of the requirements are defined at the beginning

b)

The scope of the project is partially defined at the beginning

c)

The scope of the project is fixed, but the time and the budget are flexible

d)

The scope is developed by changes during the iterations

31.

Which of the following options is not a planning process of the Schedule Management knowledge area?

a)

Plan Schedule Management

b)

Define Activities

c)

Develop Schedule

d)

Control Schedule

32.

Which of the following options is not done in the Plan Schedule Management process?

a)

The activities are determined

b)

The scheduling metrics are determined

c)

The scheduling software is determined

d)

The accuracy level of the schedule is determined

33.

Which of the following is the output of the Plan Schedule Management process?

a)

Schedule Network Diagrams

b)

Activity List

c)

Schedule Management Plan

d)

Schedule Baseline

34.

Which of the following is not needed while developing the Schedule Management Plan?

a)

Historical Information

b)

Schedule Baseline

c)

Development Approach

d)

Project Charter

35.

Fill in the blank: ……………. are defined by decomposing the work packages.

a)

Tasks

b)

Work Packages

c)

Activities

d)

WBS

36.

Which of the following is not an output of the Define Activities process?

a)

Activity List

b)

Activity Attributes

c)

Change Requests

d)

Basis of Estimates

37.

Which of the following is not needed while defining the activities?

a)

Schedule Management Plan

b)

Scope Statement

c)

Statement of Work

d)

Organizational Process Assets

38.

Fill in the blank: Rolling Wave Planning is a tool used for determining the activities. Rolling Wave Planning is a ………………….. method.

a)

Progressive Elaboration

b)

Decomposition

c)

Expert

d)

Predictive

39.

Which of the following options is not a Network Diagram Drawing method?

a)

The Precedence Diagramming Method

b)

The Arrow Diagramming Method

c)

The Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique

d)

The Earned Value Method

40.

Which of the following dependencies is used rarely while sequencing the activities?

a)

Finish-to-Start

b)

Start-to-Finish

c)

Start-to-Start

d)

Finish-to-Finish

41.

Leads and Lags may be used while sequencing the activities. Lead is the:

a)

Delay in the predecessor activity

b)

Acceleration of the successor activity

c)

Delay in the successor activity

d)

Acceleration of the predecessor activity

42.

Which of the following dependency types represents the dependencies that you don’t have any other option by nature?

a)

Hard Logic

b)

Soft Logic

c)

External Dependency

d)

Internal Dependency

43.

Which of the following options is a major output of the Sequence Activities process?

a)

The Schedule Network Diagrams

b)

The PMIS

c)

The Schedule Management Plan

d)

The Activity Attributes

44.

Which of the following options is not an input needed while sequencing the activities?

a)

The Schedule Management Plan

b)

The Scope Baseline

c)

The Project Management Information System

d)

The Assumption Log

45.

Which of the following options is not a tool and technique used for sequencing the activities?

a)

Dependency Determination and Integration

b)

Precedence Diagramming Method

c)

Activity Attributes

d)

Project Management Information System

46.

Which of the following is not needed to estimate the project costs?

a)

Cost Management Plan

b)

Cost Baseline

c)

Scope Baseline

d)

Quality Management Plan

47.

Which of the following options is not a Tool and Technique used for estimating the Project costs?

a)

Voting

b)

Project Management Information System

c)

Bottom-up Estimating

d)

Earned Value Analysis

48.

Which of the following options includes the Management Reserve?

a)

Work Packages

b)

Control Accounts

c)

Cost Baseline

d)

Project Budget

49.

Which of the following options is not known by the Project Manager?

a)

Cost information for the Work Packages

b)

Control Accounts

c)

Project Budget

d)

Cost Baseline

50.

After determining the Cost Baseline for the first time, what comes next?

a)

Comparing it with the Past Similar Projects

b)

Adding Management Reserve

c)

Preparing the Cash Flow

d)

Drawing the S-Curve

51.
Which of the following options is not an output of the Determine Budget process?
a)
Cost Management Plan
b)
Cost Baseline
c)
Project Funding Requirements
d)
Project Schedule Updates
52.
Which of the following options is not an input to the Determine Budget process?
a)
Resource Management Plan
b)
Cost Forecasts
c)
Scope Baseline
d)
Benefits Management Plan
53.
If the Actual Cost AC is 500, the Planned Value PV is 475, and the Earned Value EV is 550, calculate the Schedule Variance SV.
a)
75
b)
50
c)
1.1
d)
1.16
54.
If the Actual Cost (AC) is 3,000, Planned value (PV) is 3,500, and the Earned Value (EV) is 2,500 calculate the Cost Variance (CV).
a)
1000
b)
-1000
c)
500
d)
-500
55.
If the Actual Cost (AC) is 1,500, Planned Value (PV) is 1,000, and the Earned Value (EV) is 1,100 calculate the Schedule Performance Index (SPI).
a)
0.73
b)
1.10
c)
1.50
d)
1.36
56.
If the Actual Cost (AC) is 70, Planned Value (PV) is 50, and the Earned Value (EV) is 65, calculate the Cost Performance Index (CPI).
a)
1.08
b)
0.77
c)
0.93
d)
1.30
57.
If SPI the Schedule Performance Index for a project is 0.90 which of the following options is true about this project?
a)
Project is exceeding the budget
b)
Project is under the budget
c)
Project is ahead of the schedule
d)
Project is behind the schedule
58.
If CV, the Cost Variance for a project is 1,000, we cannot say:
a)
The CPI is greater than 1
b)
The Earned Value is greater than the Actual Cost
c)
The Earned Value is greater than the Planned Value
d)
The Project is under the budget
59.
For a project we know the CPI is 1.2, the SPI is 1.15 and the BAC is $10,000 what is the EAC?
a)
8695.65
b)
8333.33
c)
12000
d)
11500
60.
The TCPI for a project is 0.85. Which of the following options is not true for this project?
a)
CPI is greater than 1
b)
EV is greater than AC
c)
The Project is under the budget
d)
SPI is greater than 1
61.
You are about to plan the tests to be applied to the deliverables. You need:
a)
Project Charter
b)
Scope Baseline
c)
Assumption Log
d)
Risk Register
62.
You are the Project Manager of an IT project. At the end of the project, you will be producing an application almost similar to an application produced by the rival company. You and your team are almost done with determining the Quality Metrics. You have the software produced by the rival company with you and you want to take a look at the rival’s product to determine if you have missed a metric. You are doing:
a)
Copyright infringement
b)
Brainstorming
c)
Logical Data Model
d)
Benchmarking
63.
To determine if the Quality efforts you have planned are enough or not, which of the following tools and techniques works best?
a)
Brainstorming
b)
Mind Mapping
c)
Cost of Quality
d)
Logical Data Model
64.
Fill in the blanks: If the Manage Quality process is about ……………….., then the Control Quality process is about …………………… .
a)
Preventing the Quality Problems; Inspecting the Quality Problems
b)
Inspecting the Quality Problems; Preventing the Quality Problems
c)
Controlling the Quality; Monitoring the Quality
d)
Testing the Product; Evaluating the Product
65.
Fill in the blank: ………………….. are done to understand if the Quality procedures, policies and standards are being applied or not.
a)
Quality Management
b)
Tests and Evaluations
c)
Data Analysis Techniques
d)
Quality Audits
66.
While doing Cost of Quality calculations, we desire the Cost of Non-conformance is greater than the Cost of Conformance. Which of the following options is an example of the Cost of Non-conformance?
a)
Guarantee Costs
b)
Test and Evaluating Costs
c)
Costs related to Quality Audits
d)
Training Costs
67.
You are the Project Manager and you and your team are developing an IOS application for a customer. You are looking at the performance report and you see that the CPI is 1.35 and the SPI is 1.45. One of the team members comes in and asks you about adding a special feature to the application which is not specified in the contract. You don’t need any extra costs or any other extra resources for this feature, and if you approve this request, there will be a lot of advantages to the customer. What should you do?
a)
Explain the advantages of the feature to the Sponsor and ask if you can add this feature to the Scope Baseline
b)
Take the initiative and create a change request for the related changes in the Scope Baseline
c)
There is a Scope Creep and it needs to be fixed; create a change request
d)
Reject the team member’s request
68.
Christy is the software engineer working for an IT project. After she is done with coding, the quality team tests the codes and they find out that the coding does not give the expected results. What is the first thing to do next?
a)
The Quality Team should examine the problem in detail
b)
Christy should define the probable solutions and their effects on other parts of the Project
c)
They need to get to the bottom of the problem
d)
The ideal solution to the problem has to be defined
69.
The Quality team has determined a defect and they found out that there is a problem causing this defect. Which of the following tools and techniques can help them for the next step to solve the problem?
a)
Fishbone Diagram
b)
Checklists
c)
Check Sheets
d)
Alternatives Analysis
70.
You are in a meeting about Quality improvement. You and your team are discussing how to provide continuous development on Quality efforts. You can suggest applying:
a)
Deming Cycle
b)
Pareto’s Principle
c)
Ishikawa Diagram
d)
Process Analysis
71.
An intern asks you about the difference between Quality Assurance and Quality Control. You decide to give examples for each of these terms. When talking about Quality Control, you shouldn’t give the following example:
a)
Counting the defects on a deliverable
b)
Measuring the one side of the product to check the correctness of the measurements
c)
Testing the strength of the end product
d)
Asking for the customer inspection for a deliverable
72.
Fill in the blanks: In Quality Management, …………….. is always better than …………….
a)
Data Gathering; Inspection
b)
Prevention; Inspection
c)
Inspection; Testing and Evaluation
d)
Inspection; Prevention
73.
The project manager asks Natalia the Attribute Sampling results. Natalia sends the list including these results by e-mail. Which of the following options can be in the list?
a)
5 of the deliverables out of 100 have defects
b)
4 of the products have defects more than 2mm
c)
6 of the deliverables have major defects in terms of the specifications
d)
10 of the deliverables have only 2 scratches and these are considered to be minor defects
74.
During the manufacturing process, some of the workers are counting defected products. To show the daily results in terms of defect groups, they need to use:
a)
Affinity Diagram
b)
Mind Maps
c)
Flow Chart
d)
Check Sheet
75.
The test results for deliverables are documented in a Control Chart. Which of the following results is considered to be out of control?
a)
6 consecutive data points between the mean and the upper control limit, then 6 consecutive data points between the mean and the lower control limit
b)
3 data points exceeding the specification limit, but inside of the control limits
c)
10 non-consecutive data points between the lower control limit and the mean
d)
1 data point exceeding the lower control limit, but still inside of the specification limits
76.

According to David McClelland’s Theory of Needs, there are three types of people:

1) People desiring Power

2) People desiring Affiliation

3) People desiring Achievement

Highly effective recognition and reward system works best for which type?

a)
People desiring Power
b)
People desiring Affiliation
c)
People desiring Achievement
d)
None of the above
77.
Your team is working for creating the Resource Requirements document. They don’t need:
a)
Scope Baseline
b)
Resource Breakdown Structure
c)
Resource Calendars
d)
Activity Attributes
78.
There are several types of project teams. The communication technology is mostly needed for:
a)
Dedicated Teams
b)
Part-time Teams
c)
Partnership
d)
Virtual Teams
79.
You are the Project Manager of a software development project. You are about to determine which type of team is best suitable for your Project. Since this project has a lot of Risks, you decide to choose the one which can be managed easier compared to other ones. You need to choose:
a)
Dedicated Teams
b)
Part-time Teams
c)
Partnership
d)
Virtual Teams
80.
Amy is a very successful Purchasing Specialist. She handles some of the purchasing needs of the organization and she has good relations with her executives. She uses these relations as a power for getting a promotion. Although she has only 5 years of work experience, Casey, the CEO of the company, finally promoted her and Amy became the PMO Manager. After her promotion, lots of unexpected new issues arise. The Project Managers of different projects are complaining about her since she doesn’t have the ability to become a PMO Manager. What is the root cause of the problem?
a)
Amy shouldn’t use her relations as a power for getting the promotion
b)
Casey should talk to the Project Managers first before the promotion
c)
The Halo Effect best explains the root cause of the problem
d)
The Project Managers are jealous about her promotion
81.
You are the Project Manager of a newly started project. Most of the team members will be assigned from different Projects of your company. For this project, one of the most important skills you should have is:
a)
Networking
b)
Political Awareness
c)
Observation
d)
Negotiation
82.
Team development activities should start in the:
a)
Performing Stage
b)
Norming Stage
c)
Storming Stage
d)
Forming Stage
83.
As the Project Manager, you aim to create a high performing team. Which of the following options is not an activity done for this purpose?
a)
Increasing the turnover rate
b)
Supporting the team members
c)
Establishing a Recognition and Rewards system
d)
Providing technical training
84.
The Project is not going well since there is a weak collaboration between the team members. Which of the following is the best action in such a case?
a)
The team members should establish Ground Rules
b)
The Project Manager should establish team building activities
c)
The team members should create the Team Charter
d)
The Project Manager should create a Change Request
85.
It is the middle of the Project. People are working efficiently as a team and there is a trustful environment exists. According to the Tuckman Ladder Model, which stage best describes the existing conditions?
a)
Adjourning
b)
Forming
c)
Performing
d)
Storming
86.
30% of the project have been completed, and you want to evaluate the individual performance of the team members until now. Which of the following options can be helpful for this purpose?
a)
Project Performance Appraisals
b)
Team Performance Assessments
c)
Earned Value Management
d)
Lessons Learned Register
87.
The project team is working in the same building, but some departments are located on different floors. Due to this reason, team collaboration is weak and you are trying to solve this problem. Which of the following options is the best suitable solution for this situation?
a)
Virtual Teams
b)
Colocation
c)
Training
d)
Conflict Management
88.
The Project is over and the team members are about to be assigned to different projects. As the Project Manager of this Project, you better have:
a)
Supportive behavior
b)
Directive behavior
c)
Facilitative behavior
d)
Coaching style
89.
Fill in the blank: Team members trust and respect the Project Manager because of his charismatic personality. This Project Manager has ………………… power
a)
Expert
b)
Referent
c)
Legitimate
d)
Coercive
90.
Due to the schedule baseline, electricians and plumbers will start to work in the same room the same day. The room is too small, so that both teams cannot work together at the same time. They are in a discussion about working priority. As the Project Manager of the Project, you should:
a)
Use the work authorization software to resolve the conflict
b)
Let them resolve the conflict
c)
Prepare a more detailed project schedule
d)
Report the problem to the higher management
91.
Which of the following options is not an Input to the Manage Communications process?
a)
Quality Report
b)
Stakeholder Register
c)
Work Performance Reports
d)
PMIS
92.
Which of the following options is not a communication skill used in the Manage Communications process?
a)
Networking
b)
Communication competence
c)
Presentations
d)
Feedback
93.
Which of the following options is an output of the Manage Communications process?
a)
Communications Management Plan
b)
Organizational Process Assets
c)
Project Communications
d)
Project Reporting
94.
In the Monitor Communications process, which of the following options is not answered?
a)
Do the information is being communicated by using the right communication method?
b)
Do the information is being delivered by using the right communication media?
c)
Are we satisfying the communication needs of all of the stakeholders?
d)
Who is responsible for the communications?
95.
Which of the following options cannot be helpful for measuring communications?
a)
Issue Log
b)
RACI Chart
c)
Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
d)
Questionnaires and Surveys
96.
An important report was issued to the related stakeholders according to the communications management plan. Although you confirmed that all of the stakeholders have received this report, one of the Stakeholders asks you why he didn’t get the report. As the Project Manager, what should you do next?
a)
Create a Change Request to solve the issue
b)
Send the report one more time to this Stakeholder
c)
Review the Communications Management Plan
d)
Tell the Stakeholder when you sent the report
97.
Which of the following options is not needed while measuring communications?
a)
Resource Management Plan
b)
Communications Management Plan
c)
Issue Log
d)
Change Requests
98.
A large scale multi-national IT project is about to start and you have been attended as the Project Manager of this project. To increase the efficiency and reduce the costs, you will be working with high-skilled team members from different countries. Which of the following options is the best helpful tool for Project success?
a)
Virtual meetings
b)
Issue Log
c)
Project Management Information System
d)
Ability to use interpersonal skills
99.
There is a confusing issue related to the Project. You want to ensure all of the Stakeholders are informed about the issue. Which of the following communication type is more suitable in such a case?
a)
Formal-verbal communication
b)
Informal-verbal communication
c)
Formal-written communication
d)
Informal-written communication
100.
A department manager reporting to you uses technical terms all the time so that other departments cannot understand him. You would like to address this issue with him, because:
a)
This might cause a Project delay
b)
This might cause conflicts between team members
c)
The Sponsor may not like it
d)
This is gold plating and gold plating is not allowed
101.
You are the Project Manager of an IT Project. There are 10 stakeholders other than you. If one of the team members leaves the Project, what happens to the number of communication channels?
a)
The number of communication channels does not change
b)
The number of communication channels decreases by 1
c)
The number of communication channels decreases by 9
d)
The number of communication channels decreases by 10
102.
You are about to sign a contract with the prospective Seller. During the negotiation with this Seller, you need to consider the nonverbal communication skills a lot, because:
a)
They ensure you to win the negotiation against Seller
b)
The wording you use has major importance
c)
You want every communication to be recorded and documented
d)
They help you to carry the messages better
103.
There is an important meeting next week. You would like to ensure an effective meeting. Which of the following options will not be helpful for this purpose?
a)
Ground Rules
b)
Communications Management Plan
c)
Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
d)
Meeting Agenda
104.
While talking to other Stakeholders, …………………… provides effective communication
a)
speaking louder
b)
using body language
c)
considering the Stakeholder’s perspective
d)
using proper voice tone
105.
Jason was a high performing team member at the very beginning of the Project. After several months, his performance has declined apparently. You, as the Project Manager, talked to him several times and he said he would improve his performance, but his performance has not been improved. Today, there was an important meeting with the customer and he has been late to this meeting without any excuses. Which of the following options is the best suitable action to address the issue?
a)
Write him an e-mail to address the issue
b)
Explain the Issue to the Sponsor
c)
Talk to him about the issue
d)
Send him a letter to address the issue
106.
Which of the following options is not an Input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
a)
Project team assignments
b)
Strategies for threats
c)
Risk Report
d)
Cost Baseline
107.

Following Risks are listed in the Risk Register:

Risk 1 (Threat); Probability = 25%, Impact = $100,000, Listed in the shortlist

Risk 2 (Threat); Probability = 30%, Impact = $5,000, Listed in the watchlist

Risk 3 (Opportunity); Probability = 20%, Impact = $70,000, Listed in the shortlist

Risk 4 (Threat); Probability = 10%, Impact = $10,000, Listed in the watchlist

Risk 5 (Threat); Probability = 15%, Impact = $20,000, Listed in the shortlist

Calculate the contingency reserve should be added according to these Risks.

a)
14000
b)
42000
c)
2500
d)
10500
108.
Which of the following options is the last one among others?
a)
Implementing Risk Responses
b)
Qualitative Risk Analysis
c)
Quantitative Risk Analysis
d)
Creating shortlist
109.
Which of the following options is a tool or technique used while implementing Risk Responses?
a)
PMIS
b)
Tornado Chart
c)
RACI Chart
d)
Risk Report
110.
Cost Baseline is $1,000,000 including a $50,000 of contingency reserve. One of the Risks in the Risk Response plan occurs and $10,000 of the contingency reserve is used. If this Risk had a probability of occurrence to be 20%, what is the Cost Baseline after the contingency reserve is used?
a)
1000000
b)
990000
c)
1010000
d)
1050000
111.
Which of the following activities is not done as part of the Monitor Risks process?
a)
Existing Risks are re-evaluated
b)
Low severity Risks are added to the watchlist
c)
Risk triggers are monitored
d)
Risk audits are done
112.
If a Risk is no more threaten the Project, then it needs to be ………………….
a)
Added to the watchlist
b)
Defined as a secondary Risk
c)
Closed
d)
Defined as a Residual Risk
113.
If a Risk not having a Contingency Plan occurs:
a)
Risk should be closed
b)
Risk should be added to the watchlist
c)
It is better to inform the Sponsor
d)
Workaround is done
114.
Which of the following options is an Output of the Monitor Risks process?
a)
Work Performance Data
b)
Work Performance Reports
c)
Work Performance Measurements
d)
Work Performance Information
115.
Which of the following options is a tool and technique used in the Monitor Risks process?
a)
Work Performance Reports
b)
Issue Log
c)
Risk Audits
d)
Risk Register
116.
Buying a piece of equipment costs $50,000. By using this equipment there will be a 20 percent probability of making $200,000 of extra profit. But if we don’t buy and use this equipment, there will not be either extra profit or extra cost. Which one is the better option?
a)
Buy the equipment
b)
Don’t buy the equipment
c)
Ask the Project Sponsor what to do
d)
Ask the procurement department what to do, since they are responsible for all of the procurements.
117.

The following information is known about the given activities:

Activity 1: Optimistic = 15 days, Most Likely = 20 days, Pessimistic = 26 days

Activity 2: Optimistic = 200 days, Most Likely = 205 days, Pessimistic = 207 days

Activity 3: Optimistic = 20 days, Most Likely = 24 days, Pessimistic = 30 days

Activity 4: Optimistic = 10 days, Most Likely = 12 days, Pessimistic = 13 days

If your organization implements 6 sigma, which activity is the riskiest activity?

a)
Activity 1
b)
Activity 2
c)
Activity 3
d)
Activity 4
118.
You are developing the Risk Register with your team. Which of the following events can be considered as a Risk which may cause a project delay?
a)
Being late to issue the Final Performance Report
b)
Being late to evaluate the final customer satisfaction
c)
Being late to finalize the Cost Reports
d)
Being late to obtain required permits
119.
You are working with your team to determine the Project Risks. More than 700 risks are defined and you are about to finalize the Risk Register. One of the Sponsors of your Project invites you to his room to ask you some questions about the Project Risks. Most probably, you will be answering a question like:
a)
Did you prioritize the project risks?
b)
Is the risk response plan created?
c)
Which risks may affect the risk of the Project?
d)
Did you identify the risk triggers?
120.
A Risk not included in the Risk Response Plan has an expected monetary value of $5,000 and the probability of this Risk to occur is 20%. The total duration of the Project is planned to be 12 months. If this Risk occurs during the fifth month of the Project, which of the following options is true?
a)
Cost baseline does not change
b)
Cost baseline should be increased by $5,000
c)
Cost baseline should be increased by $1,000
d)
Cost baseline should be increased by $25,000
121.
A unilateral contract is legally binding once:
a)
Both parties are agreed upon the terms and conditions
b)
The letter of intent is signed
c)
The buyer makes the advance payment
d)
The seller signs it
122.

I) Finalizing the bid documents

II) Analyzing the project scope

III) Controlling procurement

IV) Collecting offers

The correct order of the given activities is:

a)
I – II – IV - III
b)
II – I – IV - III
c)
II – I – III – IV
d)
I – IV – II – III
123.
You are the project manager for the seller which is considered to be the single source. The buyer wants to sign a Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment contract but your sponsor wants you to decrease the cost risk. For this purpose, you can ask the buyer to sign a
a)
Fixed price incentive fee contract
b)
Letter of intent
c)
Fixed price contract
d)
Cost plus incentive fee contract
124.
A fixed price incentive fee contract is signed for an IT project. The target cost is $200,000 and the share ratio is 70 / 30. The target fee is determined to be $30,000. If the ceiling price is $250,000, calculate the Point of Total Assumption.
a)
228571.43
b)
266666.67
c)
232546.55
d)
262540.86
125.
The Seller thinks he has completed the work as it is written in the procurement statement of work, but the Buyer is not satisfied with the results. Which of the following options might be the next action in such a situation?
a)
Quality Control
b)
Validate Scope
c)
Submitting a Claim
d)
Control Scope
126.
You are the project manager of the buyer and you have signed a fixed price incentive fee contract with the seller. The estimated cost is $500,000 whereas there is a target fee of $80,000. The ceiling price is determined to be $600,000 and the sharing ratio is 70 / 30. If the project is completed and the actual cost is $450,000, calculate the final fee.
a)
100000
b)
95000
c)
115000
d)
90000
127.
Which of the following options makes the buyer and the seller work toward the same objective?
a)
Make-or-buy analysis
b)
Quality control
c)
Incentive fee
d)
Source selection criteria
128.
You, as the buyer, signed a cost plus incentive fee contract with the seller. The estimated cost is $200,000 and your sharing ratio is 75%. The project has been completed and the actual cost is $210,000. If the target fee is $30,000, what is the final price?
a)
232500
b)
242500
c)
237500
d)
247500
129.
You are about to make a decision about buying or renting a piece of equipment. If you buy this equipment, it will cost you $200,000. Then there will be an operating cost of $2,500 per month. You plan to use this equipment for the following 11 months, and after that, you will sell it for a selling price of $150,000. On the other hand, if you rent this equipment, it will cost you $10,000 each month. Which option should you select, and why?
a)
Renting option should be selected because buying option costs $117,500 more
b)
Buying option should be selected because renting option costs $32,500 more
c)
Renting option should be selected because buying option costs $67,500 more
d)
Buying option should be selected because renting option costs $60,000 more
130.
You have signed a Cost Plus Fixed Fee contract with a vendor. During the project, you determined that the seller is charging some of the materials too much; it is clear that their prices are exaggerated. Which of the following options is the best action is such a situation?
a)
Stop making payments until the issue is resolved
b)
Terminate the work and take legal action against the vendor
c)
Cut the exaggerated amount from the future payments
d)
Search for another vendor
131.
You have signed a unit price contract with the supplier. During a routine audit, you have detected some issues and by considering these issues, you agreed with the supplier to make changes to the contract. The first thing to do is:
a)
Informing the stakeholders about the change
b)
Finding the root cause of the issues
c)
Creating a formal change order
d)
Creating a request for information
132.
You have determined the type of the contract, developed the bid documents and now you are about to negotiate with the prospective sellers. You are the:
a)
Project Manager
b)
Procurement Manager
c)
Sponsor
d)
PMO Manager
133.
You plan to sign a Fixed Price Award Fee contract to supply some material. You will need more help:
a)
To audit the invoices
b)
To determine the amount of fee
c)
To determine the risks
d)
To determine the scope of the work
134.
The contract type to be signed is the responsibility of the procurement manager. The contract type should be finalized after:
a)
Determining the source selection criteria
b)
Preparing the procurement management plan
c)
Finalizing the procurement statement of work
d)
Determining procurement strategies
135.
You are the procurement manager and two days ago you started to work on a procurement as it is planned in the project schedule. But today the procurement is canceled by the upper management. You should:
a)
Create a change request
b)
Complete the monitoring and controlling activities
c)
Conduct the make-or-buy analysis by using the new information you got
d)
Restart the planning activities
136.
Which of the following options is not an Input to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?
a)
Risk Register
b)
Agreements
c)
The geographic location of the Project
d)
Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
137.
Which of the following options cannot be helpful for engaging Stakeholders?
a)
Analyzing Stakeholders
b)
Setting ground rules
c)
Resolving conflicts
d)
Being aware of the cultural differences
138.
Which of the following activities is not done in the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
a)
We will be managing Stakeholder expectations
b)
We ensure all of the Stakeholders have the desired engagement level
c)
We will be interacting with Stakeholders
d)
We will be measuring the Stakeholder Engagement level against what is planned
139.
Which of the following options is not an Input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
a)
Ground Rules
b)
Communications Management Plan
c)
Change Log
d)
Lessons Learned Register
140.
What is the primary aim of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
a)
Interacting with Stakeholders to increase their engagement levels
b)
Engaging Stakeholders by communicating them
c)
Evaluating the actual Stakeholder engagement against the Stakeholder Engagement Plan
d)
Managing Stakeholders’ expectations
141.
Which of the following techniques is not used for monitoring Stakeholder engagement?
a)
Root cause analysis
b)
Being aware of the politics
c)
Active listening
d)
Earned Value Analysis
142.
Which of the following options is not an Input to the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
a)
Presentations
b)
Issue Log
c)
Stakeholder Register
d)
Resource Management Plan
143.
You are the project manager of a small-sized project. The project charter is just issued and the sponsor wants you to start the project immediately. You should:
a)
Identify all the important stakeholders; then you need to plan the processes
b)
Start the executing processes; since it is a small-sized project, you don’t need to plan the processes
c)
Start the planning processes; although it is a small-sized project, you need to plan the processes
d)
Identify everyone who is affected by the project or who affects the project, so far
144.
The stakeholder register is an important document that may affect lots of different processes. All of the following might be the purpose of preparing this document except:
a)
Identifying the responsibilities of the powerful stakeholders
b)
Providing the list of important stakeholders
c)
Determining the communication technology to be used by the stakeholders
d)
Identifying the expectations of all of the stakeholders
145.
Questionnaires and surveys, brainstorming sessions, brain writing and document analysis techniques might be helpful while identifying the stakeholders. The stakeholders can be identified during:
a)
The Identify Stakeholders process of the initiating process group
b)
The onset of the project
c)
All of the project management process groups
d)
All of the project management process groups except closing
146.
As the project manager, you can’t determine all the stakeholders by yourself; you need help to do so. After identifying the stakeholders, you should:
a)
Plan stakeholder engagement
b)
Analyze the stakeholders
c)
Monitor stakeholder engagement
d)
Manage stakeholder engagement
147.
In the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, a stakeholder’s optimal level of engagement is defined to be supportive; but current analysis shows that he is neutral. Which of the following options might be helpful to meet the desired level of engagement?
a)
Ground rules
b)
RACI chart
c)
Stakeholder cube
d)
Audit
148.
You have developed the schedule and the budget, and determined the quality standards for your project. Now, you can:
a)
Identify the stakeholders
b)
Develop assumption log
c)
Develop stakeholder register
d)
Plan stakeholder engagement
149.
You don’t have a detailed schedule; instead, there will be short planning and executing cycles during the project. Now you are about to plan the stakeholder management. All of the following statements are true except:
a)
The stakeholders should actively participate in the project all the time
b)
The communication between stakeholders should be transparent
c)
Each and every information should be documented in such an environment
d)
Stakeholders should communicate with each other easily without considering the bureaucracy
150.
You are the project manager for a construction project. You have identified almost 200 stakeholders with the help of your team. You have also determined their expectations, interests, powers and influences. Now, it is a good idea to:
a)
Use Salience Model
b)
Conduct Monte Carlo Analysis
c)
Create Stakeholder Engagement Plan
d)
Create RACI chart

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