WorksheetsAUBF 4
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
CSF is produced mainly in the:
a)
bone marrow
b)
peripheral blood
c)
choroid plexus
d)
subarachnoid space
2.
The functions of the CSF include all of the ff, except:
a)
removing metabolic wastes
b)
producing an ultrafiltrate of plasma
c)
supplying nutrients to the CNS
d)
protecting the brain and spinal cord
3.
The CSF flows through the:
a)
choroid plexus
b)
pia mater
c)
subarachnoid space
d)
dura mater
4.
Substances present in the present in the CSF are controlled by the:
a)
arachnoid granulations
b)
blood-brain barrier
c)
presence of one-way valves
d)
blood-CSF barrier
5.
What department is the CSF tube labeled 3 routinely sent to?
a)
hematology
b)
chemistry
c)
microbiology
d)
serology
6.
The CSF tube that should be kept at room temperature is:
a)
tube 1
b)
tube 2
c)
tube 3
d)
tube 4
7.
The presence of xanthochromia can be caused by all of the ff, exccept:
a)
immature liver function
b)
RBC degradation
c)
a recent hemorrhage
d)
elevated CSF protein
8.
A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen indicates:
a)
tubercular meningitis
b)
multiple sclerosis
c)
primary CNS malignancy
d)
viral meningitis
9.
Given the ff information, calculate the CSF WBC count: cells counted, 80; dilution, 1:10; large Neubauer squares counted, 10.
a)
8
b)
80
c)
800
d)
8000
10.
A CSF WBC count is diluted with:
a)
distilled water
b)
normal saline
c)
acetic acid
d)
hypotonic saline
11.
A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be:
a)
reported as normal
b)
not reported
c)
diluted with normal saline
d)
counted undiluted
12.
The purpose of adding albumin to CSF before cytocentrifugation is to:
a)
increase the cell yield
b)
decrease the cellular distortion
c)
improve the cellular staining
d)
both A (inc c.y.) and B (dec c.d.)
13.
The primary concern when pleocytosis of neutrophils and lymphocytes is found in the CSF is:
a)
meningitis
b)
CNS malignancy
c)
multiple sclerosis
d)
hemorrhage
14.
Neutrophils with pyknotic nucleic may be mistaken for:
a)
lymphocytes
b)
nucleated RBCs
c)
malignant cells
d)
spindle-shaped cells
15.
The presence of which of the ff cells is increased in a parasitic infection?
a)
neutrophils
b)
macrophages
c)
eosinophils
d)
lymphocytes
16.
Macrophages appear in the CSF after:
a)
hemorrhage
b)
repeated spinal taps
c)
diagnostic procedures
d)
all of the above
17.
Nucleated RBCs ae seen in the CSF as a result of:
a)
elevated blood RBCs
b)
treatment of anemia
c)
severe hemorrhage
d)
bone marrow contamination
18.
After a CNS diagnostic procedure, which of the ff might be seen in the CSF?
a)
choroidal cells
b)
epyndymal cells
c)
spindle-shaped cells
d)
all of the above
19.
Hemosiderin granules and hematoidin crystals are seen in:
a)
lymphocytes
b)
macrophages
c)
ependymal cells
d)
neutrophils
20.
Myeloblasts are seen in the CSF:
a)
in bacterial infections
b)
in conjuction with CNS malignancy
c)
after cerebral hemorrhage
d)
as a complication of acute leukemia
21.
Cells resembling large and small lymphocytes with cleaved nuclei represent:
a)
lymphoma cells
b)
choroid cells
c)
melanoma cells
d)
medulloblastoma cells
22.
The reference range for CSF protein is:
a)
6 to 8 g/dl
b)
15 to 45 g/dl
c)
6 to 8 mg/dl
d)
15 to 45 mg/dl
23.
CSF can be differentiated from serum by the presence of:
a)
albumin
b)
globulin
c)
transthyretin
d)
Tau transferrin
24.
In serum, the second most prevalent protein is IgG; in CSF, the second most prevalent protein is:
a)
transferrin
b)
transthyretin
c)
prealbumin
d)
ceruloplasmin
25.
Elevated values for CSF protein can be caused by all of the ff, except:
a)
meningitis
b)
multiple sclerosis
c)
fluid leakage
d)
CNS malignancy
26.
The integrity of the bood-brain barrier is measured using the:
a)
CSF/serum albumin index
b)
CSF/serum globulin ratio
c)
CSF albumin index
d)
CSF IgG index
27.
Given the ff results, calculate the IgG index: CSF IgG, 50 mg/dl; serum IgG, 2 g/dl; CSF albumin, 70 mg/dl; serum albumin, 5 g/dl.
a)
0.6
b)
6
c)
1.8
d)
2.8
28.
The CSF IgG index calculated in Q. 28 indicates:
a)
synthesis of IgG in the CNS
b)
damage to the blood-brain barrier
c)
cerebral hemorrhage
d)
lymphoma infiltration
29.
The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF and not in the serum is seen with:
a)
multiple myeloma
b)
CNS malignancy
c)
multiple sclerosis
d)
viral infections
30.
Which condition is suggested by the ff results: a CSF glucose of 15 mg/dl, WBC count of 5000, 90% neutrophils, and protein of 80 mg/dl?
a)
fungal meningitis
b)
viral meningitis
c)
tubercular meningitis
d)
bacterial meningitis
31.
A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dl would have a normal CSF glucose of:
a)
20 mg/dl
b)
60 mg/dl
c)
80 mg/dl
d)
120 mg/dl
32.
CSf lactate will be more consistently decreased in:
a)
bacterial meningitis
b)
viral meningitis
c)
fungal meningitis
d)
tubercular meningitis
33.
Measurement of which of the ff can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome:
a)
ammonia
b)
lactate
c)
glucose
d)
a-Ketoglutarate
34.
Before performing a Gram stain on CSf, the specimen must be:
a)
filtered
b)
warmed to 37 deg C
c)
centrifuged
d)
mixed
35.
All of the ff statements are true about cryptococcal meningitis, except:
a)
an India ink preparation is positive
b)
a starbust pattern is seen on Gram stain
c)
the WBC count is over 2000
d)
a confirmatory immunology test is available
36.
The most sensitive and specific method to detect the causative organism in meningitis is:
a)
gram stain
b)
culture and sensitivity
c)
Indian ink stain
d)
PCR assay
37.
The test of choice to detect neutrosyphilis is the:
a)
RPR
b)
VDRL
c)
FAB
d)
FTA-ABS
38.
Traumatic tap:
a)
even distribution of blood in all tubes
b)
Xanthochromic supernatant
c)
concentration of blood in tube 1 is greater than tube 3
d)
specimen contains clots
39.
Maturation of spermatozoa takes place in the:
a)
Sertoli cells
b)
Seminiferous tubules
c)
Epididymis
d)
Seminal vesicles
40.
Enzymes for the coagulation and liquefaction of semen are produced by the:
a)
Seminal Vesicles
b)
Bulbourethral glands
c)
Ductus deferens
d)
Prostate Glands
41.
The major component of semincal fluid is
a)
Glucose
b)
Fructose
c)
Acid Phosphate
d)
Citric Acid
42.
If the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected, the semen analysis will have which of the following?
a)
Decreased pH
b)
Increased viscosity
c)
Decreased sperm count
d)
Decreased sperm motility
43.
Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the interpretation of semen:
a)
Appearance
b)
Volume
c)
pH
d)
Viscosity
44.
Liquefaction of a semen specimen should take place within:
a)
1 hour
b)
2 hours
c)
3 hours
d)
4 hours
45.
A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. This indicates:
a)
Decreased fructose
b)
Antispermicide in the condom
c)
Increased semen viscosity
d)
Increased semen alkalinity
46.
An increased semen pH may be caused by:
a)
Prostatic infection
b)
Decreased prostatic secretions
c)
Decreased bulbourethral gland secretions
d)
All of the above
47.
Proteolytic enzymes may be added to semen specimens to:
a)
Increase the viscosity
b)
Dilute the specimen
c)
Decrease the viscosity
d)
Neutralize the specimen
48.
The normal sperm concentration is:
a)
Less than 20 million/µL
b)
More than 20 million/mL
c)
Less than 20 million/mL
d)
More than 20 million/µL
49.
Given the following information, calculate the sperm concentration: dilution, 1:20; sperm counted in five RBC squares on each side of the hemocytometer, 80 and 86; volume, 3 mL.
a)
80 million/mL
b)
83 million/mL
c)
86 million/mL
d)
169 million/µL
50.
Using the above information, calculate the sperm concentration when 80 sperm are counted in 1 WBC square and 86 sperm are counted in another WBC square.
a)
83 million/mL
b)
166 million per ejaculate
c)
16.6 million/mL
d)
50 million per ejaculate
51.
The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen before performing a sperm concentration is to:
a)
Immobilize the sperm
b)
Facilitate the chamber count
c)
Decrease the viscosity
d)
Stain the sperm
52.
When performing a sperm concentration, 60 sperm are counted in the RBC squares on one side of the hemocytometer and 90 sperm are counted in the RBC squares on the other side. The specimen is diluted 1:20. The:
a)
Specimen should be rediluted and counted
b)
Sperm count is 75 million/mL
c)
Sperm count is greater than 5 million/mL
d)
Sperm concentration is abnormal
53.
Sperm motility evaluations are performed:
a)
Immediately after the specimen is collected
b)
Within 1 hour of collection
c)
After 3 hours of incubation
d)
At 6-hour intervals for 1 day
54.
The percentage of sperm showing average motility that is considered normal is:
a)
0.25
b)
0.5
c)
0.6
d)
0.75
55.
The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to:
a)
Penetrate the ovum
b)
Protect the the nucleus
c)
Create energy for tail movement
d)
Protect the neckpiece
56.
The sperm part containing a mitochondrial sheath is the:
a)
Head
b)
Neckpiece
c)
Midpiece
d)
Tail
57.
All of the following are associated with sperm motility except the:
a)
Head
b)
Neckpiece
c)
Midpiece
d)
Tail
58.
The morphologic shape of a normal sperm head is:
a)
Round
b)
Rapered
c)
Oval
d)
Amorphous
59.
Normal sperm morphology when using the WHO criteria is:
a)
>30% normal forms
b)
<30% normal forms
c)
>15% abnormal forms
d)
<15% normal forms
60.
Additional parameters measured by Kruger’s strict morphology include all of the following except:
a)
Vitality
b)
Presence of vacuoles
c)
Acrosome size
d)
Tail length
61.
Round cells that are of concern and may be included in sperm counts and morphology analysis are:
a)
Leukocytes
b)
Spermatids
c)
RBCs
d)
Both Leukocytes & Spermatids
62.
If 5 round cells per 100 sperm are counted in a sperm morphology smear and the sperm concentration is 30 million, the concentration of round cells is:
a)
150000
b)
1.5 million
c)
300000
d)
15 million
63.
Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered?
a)
Fructose Level
b)
Zinc Level
c)
MAR test
d)
Eosin-nigrosin stain
64.
Follow-up testing for a low sperm concentration would include testing for:
a)
Antisperm antibodies
b)
Seminal fluid fructose
c)
Sperm vitality
d)
Prostatic acid phosphatase
65.
The immunobead test for antisperm antibodies:
a)
Detects the presence of male antibodies
b)
Determines the presence of IgG, IgM, and IgA antibodies
c)
Determines the location of antisperm antibodies
d)
All of the above
66.
Measurement of α-glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the:
a)
Seminiferous tubules
b)
Epididymis
c)
Prostate gland
d)
Bulbourethral glands
67.
A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
a)
Prostatic infection
b)
Presence of antisperm antibodies
c)
A possible rape
d)
Successful vasectomy
68.
Following a negative postvasectomy wet preparation, the specimen should be:
a)
Centrifuged and reexamined
b)
Stained and reexamined
c)
Reported as no sperm seen
d)
Both A and B
69.
Standardization of procedures and reference values for semen analysis is primarily provided by the:
a)
Manufacturers of instrumentation
b)
WHO
c)
Manufacturers of control samples
d)
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
70.
Intracranial hemorrhage:
a)
even distribution of blood in all tubes
b)
Xanthochromic supernatant
c)
concentration of blood in tube 1 is greater than tube 3
d)
specimen contains clots
100 %
