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USI commonly missed questions part 2

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Electromagnetic (EM) band(s) used in precision agriculture applications are

a)

visible band only

b)

microwave only

c)

visible and near infared

d)

visible and microwave

2.

To keep an electromechnical device mounted on an aerial platform so that the sensor is pointed in the same general direction, regardless of attitude (pitch, roll, yaw) of the platform, use a _____

a)

platform stand

b)

automatic switch

c)

stablilzation gimbal

3.

A remote sensing system has 2 components. What are they?

a)

register

b)

forecaster

c)

programer

d)

platform

e)

sensor

4.

Compared to objects at cooler temps, ____EMR wavelengths are emitted from objects at higher temps

a)

higher

b)

lower

c)

longer

d)

shorter

5.

To ensure the prope weight and balance of the sUAS you are flying, check

a)

FAA rules

b)

NTSB

c)

Safety management

d)

vehicle manufacture documention

6.

When tracking tagged wildlife, lost or wandering adults, or children suffering from cognitive conditions, the type of remote sensing payload to use is ________.

a)

LiDar

b)

Hyperspectral

c)

active

d)

a passive radio-wave tracking device

7.

An electro-optical camera, using its own Electromagnetic Radiation (flash) for illumination at night is ________.

a)

active

b)

hyperspectrual

c)

passive

8.

Cargo or agricultural spray are known as ________ payload..

a)

Aerial application

b)

dipensable

c)

sondes

d)

precision farming

9.

To generate point cloud derivative products (for 3-D models), use ________ sensors

a)

Dhenical sampling

b)

active

c)

passive

d)

either active or passive

10.

Remote sensing is the acquisition of information about an object when not in direct physical contact with the object.

a)

true

b)

false

11.

An image’s geolocation data contains ________.

a)

a sensor footprint dimensions

b)

a sensor location

c)

the UAS distance from the operator

d)

the control station location

12.

What energy is used in the remote-sensing process to detect, measure, and collect reflected, emitted, or absorbed energy by different objects?

a)

Electromagnetic Interference

b)

elctromagnetic radiation

c)

electroo optical energy

13.

________ is the portion of electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths ranging from 700 nanometers to 1 millimeter that senses heat energy.

a)

radio waves

b)

infrared band

c)

visible light band

d)

near IR bands

14.

What is the amount of Electromagnetic Radiation (EMR) emitted from an object dependent

a)

moisture

b)

light

c)

temperature

d)

sound

15.

When utility companies inspect power lines for overheating, they use what type of sensor?

a)

resistive

b)

reflective

c)

thermal imager

d)

radio emitting

16.

The remote sensor pointing straight down from the aircraft in a line perpendicular to Earth’s surface is known as ________.

a)

ELINT

b)

Nadir

c)

remote sensing

17.

What is used to transmit digital imagery from the remote sensing platform to a ground station?

a)

hyperspectral sensor

b)

RADAR unit

c)

Radio frequency datalink

d)

thermographic imager

18.

The sensors used for photogrammetry are passive or ________.

a)

Reflexive

b)

active

c)

dynamic

19.

The type of electronic sensor used to collect imagery in an electro-optical camera is ________.

a)

A charge-coupled Device or Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor

b)

IMU

c)

lens

d)

film

20.

The science of making size and distance measurements from a series of remote sensing images is known as ________.

a)

thermomerty

b)

spirometry

c)

photogrammetry

21.

The three types of aerial platforms best suited for remote sensing ________.

a)

Ballons, helicopters, aircraft

b)

multispectral, hyperspectrual and infared

c)

satellites, aircraft, and unmanned aircrfat

22.

For future UAS beyond-line-of-sight operations, ________ technology is essential

a)

thermal reflection reporting

b)

detect and avoid

c)

LiDar imagery

23.

The type of active sensor used in a remote sensing payload is ________.

a)

chemical sensing

b)

light detection and ranging (LiDAR)

c)

thermographic

24.

In the electromagnetic spectrum, there are seven basic bands of EMR including Gamma, Visible, Infrared, and Microwave. The other three are ________.

a)

a.       Multispectral, Light, and Satellite

b)

a.       Hyperspectral, Multispectral, and Invisible

c)

X-ray, ultravilet, radio waves

25.

To transmit environmental information for long periods of time, drop a ________ in an area of interest.

a)

spirometer

b)

electro-magnetic meter

c)

sonde transmmitter

26.

In the agricultural environment, ________ imagers are used for detection of crop distress.

a)

full spectrum

b)

digital

c)

thermocouple

d)

multispectral

27.

The term used to classify an object based on its ability to reflect Electromagnetic Radiation (EMR) is ________.

a)

emmittance

b)

resolution

c)

atmospheric window

28.

During operation of an unmanned vehicle, load factor and stress on the iwngs or rotors may increase when the _____

a)

gross weight is reduced

b)

aircraft subjected to manuevers other than straight and level

c)

wind shifts direction

d)

center of gravity is shifted rearward

29.

To ensure a safe flight, a UAS pre-flight inspection should evalutate which of the following items? (select all that apply)

a)

propllers are free of debris and imperfections

b)

registration markings are visible and legiable

c)

firmware version is correct or up to date

d)

takeoff and conduct a flight control check

e)

start up aircraft and check motor

30.

According to the FAA PArt 107 a remote pilot may operate a sUAS from which two of the following situations? (select all that apply)

a)

a moving vehicle in sparsley populated areas

b)

a truck on urban environments

c)

a watercraft in sparsley populated area

d)

an aircraft in sparsely populated areas

31.

At times the FAA grants a Certificate of Waiver for two types of flight operationss. What are they?

a)

fly over spectators

b)

operate UAS at night

c)

operating aircraft over 55 pounds

d)

operating in national parks

32.

What are two important aspects of the pre-flight inspection made by the remote pilot in commnad (RPIC) on the sUAS before each flight? (select all that apply)

a)

locate the nearest air traffic control facilty

b)

check the propellers and/or rotors

c)

test ground control station connections

d)

check unmanned aircraft takeoff performance

33.

Airspace that is generally from the surface to 2500 feet above ground level (AGL) is known as ____.

a)

Class C

b)

Class A

c)

Class D

34.

READ THIS QUESTION CAREFULLY. IT CAN TRICK YOU ON THE FINAL (airfoiils produce LIFT not THRUST

Air density is directly related to the generation of airfoil thrust

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Diffraction is defined as

a)

Bending of waves as they pass from one medium to another, due to a change in theri speed

b)

b

Beam of radio waves hitting a mass of smaller materials, which individually reflect and spread the radio waves in different directions

c)

radio waves bending and moving around an object

36.

What specific airspace must a remote pilot operating under PArt 107 obtain permission to enter? (select all that apply)

a)

Class B

b)

Class E surface area designated for an airport

c)

Class D

d)

Class G

37.

In what way is electronic line of sight (LOS) different from electronic Beyond line of sight

Average

a)

a

LOS is used for low altitutude distance greater than 15,000 miles

b)

b

BLOS has a remote pilot line of sight factor

c)

BLOS has link estblished through satelitte or relay

38.

A carrier wave is defined as

a)

an electromagnetic (EM) wave modulated to convey a signal

b)

a mitigation wave that prevents lost link

c)

s simple wave that only carried video

39.

There are 3 primary elements of unmanned aircarft systems, they are the mechanical structure, ______ and _____.

a)

a

electronic systems, software

b)

automated gears, onboard processor

c)

onboard programmer, tethered power source

d)

electronic generator, autopilot system

40.

to operate is a sUAS class B airspace, what must the pilot be sure off

Average

a)

a

prior authorization from Air traffic Control (ATC) is established

b)

b

an altitude reporting transponder is installed

c)

contact with surrounding aircarft has been made

d)

d

radio commincation with teh airport is functioning

41.

Class C airspace from ______ to 4000 within a 10nm of the airfield

a)

1200 feet AGL

b)

400 feet MSL

c)

2000 feet MSL

42.

If a maneuver is being performed and the sUAS happens to fly under another aircraft, the remote pilot must ensure that his air vehicle is

a)

in a prescribed UAS fly zone

b)

away from the clouds

c)

in contact with air traffic control

d)

well clear of the other aircraft

43.

James, a Part 107 pilot recently purchased a sUAS that has a total weight of 120lbs. What is needed before James can fly his new vehicle?

a)

Part 107 approval

b)

an FAA exemption

c)

Air Traffic conttrol tower

44.

A friend crashed and destroyed his sUAS causing damage over $500. How soon does this need to be reported to the FAA<

a)

within 10 days

b)

withing 30 days

c)

within 10 hours

d)

no need

45.

in order to get a Remote Pilot Certificate, there are 3 requirments that must be met. What are they? (select all that apply)

a)

16 years old

b)

pass an aeronautical exam at an FAA facility

c)

complete a TSA backgrouund check

d)

pass a proficiency check with a flight examiner

46.

Radio frequency interference (RFI) is commonly known as

a)

hinderance

b)

intrusion

c)

noise

d)

obstruction

47.

wave propagation is defined as

Average

a)

a

radio waves bending and moving an object

b)

The way in which radio waves moves from the source antenna to the recieving end

c)

bending of waves as they pass from one medium to another, due to change in their speed

48.

A-211 on an aeronautical chart is known as an

a)

assignment area

b)

air control area

c)

advisory area

d)

alert area

49.

Max authorized ground speed for a sUAS

a)

no limit

b)

50 mph

c)

100mph/87 knots

d)

10 knots

50.

During flight operations under 14CFR PArt 107, sUAS are required to staty ____________ feet below the base of any clouds and clear all clouds by _______ feet horizontally

a)

400,400

b)

500,2000

c)

2000,500

d)

1200, 400

51.

Communication by unmanned aircraft systems datalink moves back and forth from the air vehicle to the

a)

ground control station

b)

UAV adminstrator

c)

FAA

d)

Airport tower

52.

How does a pilot request permission to operate in Class B airspace?

a)

call the FAA

b)

call the control tower

c)

none of these

d)

Use LAANC if available or the FAA DroneZOne porta

53.

A warmer from in a boundry that moves toward the ______ air mass

a)

thicker

b)

cooler

c)

denser

d)

distant

54.

Radio interference can be the result of

a)

another user operating onthe same or similar band as the drone being flown

b)

a goverment agency intercepting transmissions

c)

he manufacturer not properly tuniung the communication equipment

55.

How are commands sent to ensure control of the air vehicle that does no have an n-board pilo

a)

transmitted more than once

b)

electronically

c)

encrypted

56.

What is wind shear

a)

Rising pockets of air that produce eddies, creating thermal turbulence

b)

The dividing line between contrasting air masses and large horizontal changeds in temperature

c)

Change in wind speed or direction of flow, creating mechanical turbulence

57.

The maximum altitude for a sUAS is ______. 

a)

500 feet AGL

b)

no limit

c)

199 feet AGL

d)

400 feet AGL or within 400 feet laterally from the a structure

58.

The lowest layer of clouds described as either ________.make up the cloud ceiling, which is the height above ground level.

a)

cumulus or stratus

b)

broken or overcast

c)

fog or rain

59.

What is the area on an aeronautical sectional chart that is charted with a “P” followed by a number?

a)

Papa airspace

b)

prohibited area

c)

private airspace

d)

populated airspace

60.

Select the types of operations that UAV are known for - sometimes called the 4 D's

a)

dull

b)

dirty

c)

dodgy

d)

dangerous

e)

duration

61.

Lightening can strike up to 15 miles away from a thunderstorm, including an area of thunderstorm related precipitation.  What should you do to prevent the hazard of a lightening strike? Select all that apply

a)

if you hear thunder or see lightening on the horizon suspend flight operations

b)

If you are caught by an approaching storm, seek shelter in a completely enclosed structure, as an alternative, in a fully enclosed metal vehicle

c)

Separate the antenna from the control station

d)

wear rubber shoes

e)

check the forecast

62.

When surveying the launch and recovery zone, remote piltos canuse laser range finders or surveying tools.  If you were to determine the height of a tree line using a triangle what would be the estimated height of the tree line given the information in the image.

a)

35 feet

b)

25 feet

c)

40 feet

63.

READ AIR DENSITY QUESTIONS CAREFULLY ON THE FINAL. THEY CAN BE TRICKY

Unmanned aircraft performance ________ as air density decreases and temperature increases. This causes unmanned aircraft wings and propellers to move through the air faster to generate the same amount of lift.

a)

decreased

b)

increase

c)

remain the same

64.

Weather conditions including temperature, pressure, wind, precipitation, and visibility is provided by which service?

a)

Surface forecast charts

b)

Automated Surface Observing (ASOS)

c)

Weather observation Center (WOC)

65.

The service, for busy terminal areas, that offers continuous broadcast of recorded aeronautical information, including weather is ____________________

a)

Federal Communication COmmision (FCC)

b)

Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS)

c)

NTSB

d)

FAA

66.

KDAB 131913Z 10008KT 10SM FEW030CB FEW060 SCT250 33/24 A3004 RMK A02

a)

   Few at 3000 feet and at 25,ooo feet

b)

Cumulonimbus clouds at 3000 feet, few clouds at 6000 feet, and a deck at 25,000

c)

Few clouds at 300 feet, few clouds at 600 feet and scattered clouds at 2,00 feet

67.

meteorologists state _______________

a)

Weather is what you want and climate is what you get

b)

Weather is what you expect and climate is what you get

c)

Climate is what you expect and weather is what you get

d)

Climate is where you live and weather is what you get

68.

Light mist or drizzle is typical of what type of cloud?

a)

cirrus

b)

cumulus

c)

nimbus

d)

stratus

69.

.

An unstable air mass is characterized by ______________.

a)

patches of fog

b)

radiation fog and humidity

c)

lightening and nimbostratus clouds

d)

turbulence and cumiluform clouds

70.

The weather report, ____________ provides surface observations at select airports.

a)

TAF

b)

Pirep

c)

NATO

d)

METAR

71.

You are completing an aerial photography job in the heat of the summer,. Temperatures are already 90 defgrees (F) and rising.  What can you aspect?

a)

An increase in temperature will lead to an increase in air density and an increase in aircraft performance

b)

An increase in temperature will lead to a decease in air density and a decrease in aircraft performance

72.

At select airports, when you need a report that tells future airport conditions for a five mile radius, you look for the ________.

a)

TAF

b)

METAR

c)

PiREP

73.

When you need information about wind, visibility, significant weather, and the probability of precipitation and thunderstorms, what report do you obtai

a)

NOTAM

b)

Terminal Area Chart (TAC)

c)

Automated Surface Observing Systems (ASAS)

d)

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)

74.

While planning for a flight you pull the flowing METAR. Based on part 107 weather mins of 3 miles visibility and 500 feet below clouds and a flight plan of 400, do you meet the mins?

KDAB 131913Z 10008KT 10SM FEW030CB FEW060 BKN090 33/24 A3004 RMK A02

a)

Yes – because you need to fly at 400 feet and below while remaining 500 feet below the clouds.  Ig the cloud layer is at 900 then 500 feet below would be at 400 feet.  You meet the mins

b)

no

75.

The type of flight control system developed in the 1950s and 60s to relax the stability of an aircraft in an effort to make it more maneuverable is known as ________.

a)

fly by wire

b)

cloosed loop

c)

mechanical

d)

open loop

76.

The ________ of a fixed-wing aircraft control surface can induce a moment around the lateral axis.

a)

aileron

b)

throttle

c)

elevator

d)

rudder

77.

To determine the roll, pitch, and yaw of an aircraft, use a/an ________.

a)

Inertial measurement UNit (IMU)

b)

servo

c)

airspeed

d)

compass

78.

ON THE FINAL, REMEMBER THAT IF YOU SEE A QUESTION TALKING ABOUT "VECTORED THRUST" ALWAYS HIT TRICOPTER

The multirotor configuration known as a _______ uses vectored thrust to control the yaw axis.

a)

quadcopter

b)

tricopter

c)

helicopter

d)

octacopter

79.

Today’s unmanned aircraft systems (UAS) are equipped with ________ that continuously monitor the aircraft’s altitude, attitude, location, and speed.

a)

FAA

b)

aerodynamic data

c)

micro-electronic mechanical system

d)

advanced electronic flight control system

80.

There are two advances in technology that helped drive the growth of unmanned aircraft. What are they? (Select all that apply)

a)

long range tools

b)

GPS

c)

closed loop stabilized flight control system

d)

self contained helium betteries

e)

self management system

81.

There are three primary elements of unmanned aircraft systems. They are the mechanical structure, _______ and _______.

a)

electronic systems, software program

b)

automated gears, onboard microprocessor

c)

an onboard programmer, tethered power source

d)

electrical generator, autopilot system

82.

The speed of the wind at ground level is usually much more than it is at a higher altitude.

a)

true

b)

false

83.

ON THE FINAL, DON'T GET TRICKED UP ON THIS QUESTION. THE NETWORK OF SATELLITES ARE CALLED THE IRIDUIM NETWROK - NOT THE IMU.

The Inertial Measurement Unit (IMU) is a network of satellites orbiting the earth

a)

true

b)

flase

84.

Use ________ to change the flight path of a UAS to avoid obstacles and other aircraft.

a)

B4UFLY app from the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB

b)

active sensor data

c)

airmap nav system

d)

up to minute aero charts

85.

As altitude increases, air temperature and air density ___?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remains th same

86.

As an unmanned aircraft pilot, you know how your unmanned vehicle takes off and maintains flight. What happens as the aircraft moves through the air? These changes result in the upward force called lift, which is affected by how air behaves.

a)

An aerodynamic downward force is created by the weight of the vehicle

b)

  Wings or rotors cause changes in the speed and pressure of the air moving past them

c)

Wings or rotors slow doen as needed when air pressure and humidity increase

d)

Lateral and vertical axis re-orient themselves to propel the aircraft forward and upward

87.

The ________ is the government agency that regulates communication frequencies.

a)

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

b)

Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

c)

Federal Health Administration (FDA)

88.

Antenna gain is the

a)

addition of a large antenna

b)

resultant increase by ampllitude of a signal

c)

over amplification of data

89.

What type of datalink allows information to flow back and forth simultaneously, like a telephone?

a)

OMNI

b)

DUPLEX

c)

SIMPLEX

90.

ON THE FINAL, REMEMBER, THE KEY WORD IN THIS QUESTION IS THE WORD "SAFE", MEANING THEY ARE CREATING A "SAFETY SYSTEM". DO NOT SELECT CRM

To support the safe process of managing and improving an aviation-based system, implement ________.

a)

Safety decision making (SDM)

b)

Crew resource manangement (CRM

c)

Safety Management System (SMS)

d)

Pilot process training

91.

For UAS implementation into the National Air Space (NAS), what are two options that are primary safety datalink flight requirements for UAS implementation? (Select all that apply)

a)

Near real time telemetry from the UAV

b)

Near real time flight commandes to the UAV

c)

video telemtry

92.

Reflection is defined as ________.

a)

Flight data bouncing from the flight computer causing a lost link

b)

radio waves bouncing off the surface of an object and changing direction

c)

Lost link conditions

93.

The purpose of a datalink is to

a)

establish reliable communications between the UAV and ground control station (GCS)

b)

ensure video data is stored in the flight computer

c)

ensure separation from manned aircraft

94.

Absorption is defined as ________.

a)

radio waves consumed by an object

b)

Radio waves bending and moving around an object

c)

Redirection of radio wave into space

95.

Select two factors that influence your decision about the type of datalink hardware you purchase. (Select all that apply)

a)

mission requirements

b)

geogphy

c)

aircraft size

d)

weather conditions

e)

wind spped

96.

What term defines communications from the air vehicle to the ground control system?

a)

cross link

b)

uplink

c)

downlink

d)

aviation link

97.

ON THE FINAL, THE KEY WORD IN THIS QUESTION IS "HAZARDS". PICK THE ANSWER THAT CAUSES HAZARDS- WHICH IS RISK. SO PICK "RISK MANAGEMENT"

The systematic process of __________ identifies, assesses, and prioritizes hazards and their potential impact.

a)

risk management

b)

hzard patrol

c)

safety culture

d)

crew resource management (CRM)

98.

1.       A pilot who is resentful about advice from supervisors and colleagues is depicting the hazardous attitude of ______________.

a)

ANTIAUTHORITY

b)

MACHO

c)

INVULNERABILITY

d)

RISK TKAING

99.

1.       An assessment of the pre-flight operating environment includes _________.

a)

Aircraft airworthiness inspection

b)

Current and forecasted local weather conditions

c)

Crew member health analysis

d)

Operational documentation review

100.

When should initial radio communication with the tower occur?

a)

15NM out from the airport

b)

25NM out from the airport

c)

7NM out from the airport

d)

5NM out from the airport

101.

What do Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) provide remote pilots?

a)

information that minimizes risk and maximizes safety during flight opreations

b)

important weather information

c)

information about runway usage at airfields part 107 requirements

102.

What is one source of airport traffic information

a)

Part 107 remote pilot in command (RPIC)

b)

self-announcement via the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)

c)

FAA

d)

VIsual observer

103.

During the birth of unmanned aicraft, systems were designed as offensive weapons and more like cruise missiles rather than unmanned aircraft

a)

true

b)

false

104.

Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) approval, known as ________ is needed for unmanned aircraft systems to operate in specific airspace for a defined purpose

a)

Certificate of Waiver (COA)

b)

UNmanned Advisiory

c)

FAA PArt 33

d)

FAA part 135

105.

The method used to track reliability of unmanned aircraft components is known as ________.

a)

Manufacturer updates

b)

crew resource management

c)

fault tolerance

d)

mean time between failure (MTBF)

106.

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) certificate, ________ establishes operating limits for commercial unmanned aircraft systems (UAS).

a)

Commercial pilot license

b)

FAA part 107

c)

FAA part 91

d)

FAA Part 135

107.

ON THE FINAL, DO NOT GET TRICKED UP. GPS DOES NOT ALLOW YOU TO "SENSE" OTHER AIRCRAFT.

The technology that enables unmanned aircraft systems to sense other aircraft and obstacles is known as 'Global Positioning'.

a)

true

b)

false

108.

The technology ________, patented by Nikola Tesla, birthed the idea of controlling vehicles remotely.

a)

wifi

b)

Internet

c)

fly by wire

d)

radio waves

109.

The status of an aircraft including attitude, airspeed, altitude, and heading is provided through which process ________.

a)

triangulation

b)

radiometer

c)

telemetry

d)

controller

110.

A common classification for unmanned aircraft systems is ________.

a)

Gross takeoff weight

b)

number of crew memebrs

c)

goal of teh mission

d)

number of rotors

111.

 Performance will also be affected by the condition of the remote pilot. Which of the following can affect decision-making and cognitive performance. (Select all that apply)

a)

mental illness

b)

heat

c)

stress

d)

fatigue

112.

 When a person is not actively focusing, their focal point is about 30 feet away. When fixed and focused on a point in space, what is their maximum visual acuity?

a)

a circle of 10 degrees

b)

a circle of 2 degrees

c)

a circle of 8 degrees

d)

a circle of 20 degreea\s

113.

What practice improves decision making by the effective use of available resources including humans, hardware, and information?

a)

Situational awareness (SA)

b)

crew resource management

c)

risk management

d)

aeronautical decision making

114.

ON THE FINAL DO NOT GET TRIPPED UP. CRM DOES NOT DEAL WITH MAINTENANCE

Crew Resource Management (CRM) is the practice of safe maintenance procedures and clear, well-kept documentation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

115.

 Automation can negatively impact our situational awareness by: (Select all that apply)

a)

Active consumption of information

b)

Complacency and loss of vigilance

c)

lack of system understanding

d)

putting the remote pilot "out of the loop"

116.

What term describes the effective use of all available resources—human, hardware, and information—prior to and during flight to ensure the successful outcome of an operation?

a)

A safe flight plan

b)

risk management

c)

safety management system

d)

crew resource managgement

117.

jEven good messages can be lost in the communication cycle because of receiver errors. These errors include which of the following? (Select all that apply)

a)

  Response: Not asking for clarification if confused

b)

Missing non-verbal signal

c)

Listening with a preconceived notion

d)

Poor attention or not listening

118.

a  We all have limits, but external factors and behaviors can change our ability to: (Select all that apply)

a)

percieve information

b)

process a task

c)

process information

d)

perceive a task

e)

performa task