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PHLEB Practice Exam 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following structures begins the heartbeat by starting an electrical impulse in the right atrium?

a)

atrioventricular (AV) node

b)

sinoatrial (SA) node

c)

bundle of His

d)

mitral valve

2.

Which of the following is the correct way a phlebotomist should introduce themselves to the patient?

a)

Hi. I am the phlebotomist, here to draw your blood test.

b)

Hi. I'm here to draw your lab work.

c)

Hi. My name is Jaime Smith. I am a phlebotomist who will be drawing your lab work this morning.

d)

Hi. My name is Jaime. I'm here to draw your labs.

3.

What are casts?

a)

Bacteria in urine

b)

Metabolized drug particles in urine

c)

Preservatives added to the specimen cup

d)

Cylindrical structures in urine

4.

How many identifiers must the phlebotomist request to confirm a patient's identity before drawing blood?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

5.

What is important to do when communicating with an anxious or angry patient?

a)

Provide patient education

b)

Call security

c)

Stay calm and speak clearly, using short and simple

d)

Tell them you will come back when they are calm

6.

Which of the following should not be used to confirm the identity of a patient before venipuncture?

a)

Date of birth

b)

Social Security number

c)

Medical record number

d)

Room number

7.

Which of the following arteries carry deoxygenated blood?

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Radial artery

d)

Femoral artery

8.

An unconscious patient is brought to the emergency department with no identification. How should the phlebotomist ensure that the patient's samples are labeled correctly?

a)

Do not draw samples until the patient is awake and can confirm their identity

b)

Look in the patient's wallet for identification

c)

Use the temporary name and number assigned to the patient

d)

Label the sample with the room number and mental status of the patient

9.

What is a requisition order?

a)

A doctor's written instructions

b)

The laboratory supply list

c)

A phlebotomist's list of specimen collections for the day

d)

The order in which specimens need to be collected

10.

While verifying a patient's identity, the phlebotomist notes that the date of birth on the patient's wrist band is incorrect. What is the next step?

a)

Proceed after the patient verbally states their correct date of birth

b)

Cross it out with a permanent marker and initial the change

c)

Do not proceed until the discrepancy is corrected

d)

Alert a nurse and have them note the error in the patient's chart

11.

A 19-year-old, nonverbal, mentally impaired patient in the ICU has a morning bloodwork ordered by their doctor. Which of the following is not an acceptable way to confirm the patient's identity matches the information on the wristband ID?

a)

Ask the patient to signal their verification by nodding

b)

Verify the patient's name and date of birth with a nurse

c)

Verify the patient's name and date of birth with a parent or guardian who is sitting at the bedside

d)

Verify the patient's name and date of birth with the physician

12.

Gas exchange occurs in which type of blood vessel?

a)

venule

b)

vein

c)

capillary

d)

arteriole

13.

Which of the following are symptoms of shock?

a)

Low blood pressure and clammy skin

b)

Increased urine output and shortness of breath

c)

Nausea and vomiting with pain in the abdomen

d)

High blood pressure and warm skin

14.

When is a post-prandial test done?

a)

2 hours before eating a meal

b)

1 hour after waking

c)

2 hours after exercise

d)

2 hours after eating a meal

15.

A laboratory has a set of samples that include ASAP, fasting, time, and routine specimens. Which specimens should be processed first?

a)

ASAP

b)

fasting

c)

timed

d)

routine

16.

What happens during accessioning?

a)

The specimens are labeled with the patient's name

b)

Numbers are assigned to specimens for tracking purposes

c)

The order is given to staff to complete.

d)

Samples are balanced in a centrifuge.

17.

"Basal State" refers to the bodies metabolic state:

a)

After fasting for 12 hours

b)

Two hours after a meal

c)

Immediately after glucose ingestion

d)

While asleep

18.

What is used to obtain a urine sample from an infant?

a)

Urinary catheter

b)

Toilet hat

c)

Urinary collection bag

d)

Commode

19.

The set of standardized five digit codes used to identify medical, surgical, or diagnostic services is called:

a)

Diagnosis-related group

b)

Current procedural terminology

c)

International classification of diseases

d)

Healthcare common procedure coding system

20.

Which of the following is a step in labeling a specimen?

a)

Tying the requisition order to the specimen container

b)

Placing the label on the body of the container, not the cap

c)

Returning the sample to central processing to label

d)

Having the patient inspect the specimen container

21.

A patient who is about to have a lipid panel drawn mentions that they had a bagel on the way to the lab this morning. What should the phlebotomist do?

a)

Proceed with the lab draw

b)

Draw a discard to before drawing a lipid panel

c)

Alert the patient's provider to see if the patient's specimen should be rescheduled

d)

Note that the patient is not fasting and proceed with any additional communication with the patient's provider

22.

Blood specimens are transported in:

a)

Biohazard bags

b)

A gloved hand

c)

Any leak proof bag or box

d)

All of the options

23.

The most common sight of phlebotomy is the:

a)

Popliteal fossa

b)

Antecubital fossa

c)

Axilla

d)

Inguinal area

24.

What does a breathalyzer machine test for?

a)

Bacteria in the respiratory tract

b)

Blood alcohol level

c)

Blood in the mouth

d)

Acid reflux

25.

Which of the following is an acceptable IV site?

a)

A vein used for an IV three days ago

b)

Bruised tissue

c)

Burned hand tissue

d)

An arm with lymphedema

26.

Which of the following veins is not found in the antecubital area?

a)

Subclavian

b)

Median cubital

c)

Cephalic

d)

Basilic

27.

What is required for handling a pre-employment drug screen?

a)

Ensuring a legal transfer of the specimen

b)

Outlining the tests that need to be conducted

c)

Documenting the specimens chain of custody

d)

Assigning the testing to a specific employee

28.

For patients with an M pattern in the antecubital fossa, what is the preferred vein for phlebotomy?

a)

Median

b)

Basilic

c)

Cephalic

d)

Median cubital

29.

What is the term for the set amount a patient must pay out-of-pocket before their insurance company will pay for their care?

a)

Coinsurance

b)

Co-pay

c)

Premium

d)

Deductible

30.

Gastric fluid is obtained from what part of the body?

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Bladder

d)

Colon

31.

Which statement concerning informed consent is false?

a)

Persons 17 years of age and younger may not give informed consent.

b)

A married minor may not give informed consent.

c)

A pregnant minor may give informed consent.

d)

An adult 18 years of age and older man give informed consent.

32.

Which of the following sites is acceptable for a skin puncture for an adult?

a)

The antecubital fossa

b)

The back of the hand

c)

The pad of the index finger

d)

The pad of the ring finger

33.

The maximum depth for an infant heel stick is:

a)

1 mm

b)

2 mm

c)

1 cm

d)

2 cm

34.

Which of the following is not required for the transportation of specimens to an offsite laboratory?

a)

A leak proof container stored on the floor of a vehicle

b)

A vehicle that is used for transporting specimens only

c)

Protection for the specimens from heat and light

d)

A specialized drivers license for transporting biological materials

35.

Which of the following techniques is not recommended when performing a heel puncture for an infant?

a)

Puncturing the side of the heel

b)

Fanning or blowing on the skin to quicken drying after cleaning

c)

Positioning the infants foot lower than its body

d)

Warming the heel first

36.

Which of the following is true about collecting an oral hormone specimen?

a)

It needs to be collected within 30 minutes of waking up.

b)

It should be refrigerated or frozen if not processed within 24 hours.

c)

It's frequently done for men with low albumin levels.

d)

It's always done in a clinical setting.

37.

A patient is having a panic attack and hyperventilating. How should the phlebotomist attempt to help this patient?

a)

Have the patient recount a positive childhood memory

b)

Give the patient a glass of water

c)

Tell the patient to take deep breaths

d)

Ask the patient to identify the source of their anxiety

38.

When performing a heel stick on an infant, the first drop of blood should be:

a)

Collected in a micro tube

b)

Placed in a newborn screening paper

c)

Wiped away

d)

Stored in case additional blood is needed

39.

Which of the following types of cells carries hemoglobin in the blood?

a)

White blood cell

b)

Red blood cell

c)

Platelet

d)

T cell

40.

All of the following are reasons the phlebotomist should avoid aggressively squeezing the heel during an infant heel stick except:

a)

It can cause jaundice.

b)

It is painful to the patient.

c)

It can cause the cells to hemolyzed.

d)

It forces tissue fluid into the sample.

41.

What is specific to how a stat specimen is processed?

a)

It is processed at room temperature.

b)

It can only be processed by certified laboratory personnel.

c)

It is processed at the patient's bedside.

d)

It is processed immediately, before any routine tests.

42.

Blood level is not elevated by hemolysis?

a)

potassium

b)

iron

c)

ammonia

d)

red blood cells

43.

A patient rolls up their sleeve and presents their arm for a blood draw. This is an example of which type of consent?

a)

informed consent

b)

expressed consent

c)

implied consent

d)

indirect consent

44.

Which of the following is not a correct step during a newborn screening?

a)

Touching the filter paper to the blood until the entire circle is filled

b)

Adding a second drop if the circle on the filter paper is incompletely filled

c)

Pressing the filter paper to the heel to fill the circle

d)

Laying the filter paper flat to dry

45.

The following types of blood has the highest oxygen level?

a)

venous

b)

arterial

c)

clotted

d)

hemolyzed

46.

How is a light-sensitive sample stored for transport?

a)

In black tubes

b)

In a second specimen cup

c)

In amber tubes

d)

In a UV box

47.

What disinfectant should be used to clean healthcare related services and equipment?

a)

Sodium hypochlorite

b)

Sodium hydroxide

c)

Diluted Lysol

d)

2:1 vinegar and distilled water solution

48.

The procedure used to collect amniotic fluid is called:

a)

An angioscopy

b)

An amniotomy

c)

An amniocentesis

d)

A catheterization

49.

When attempting phlebotomy on the arm, how far above the intended side of blood draw should the tourniquet be placed?

a)

0-1 inch

b)

2-4 inches

c)

5-7 inches

d)

7-10 inches

50.

Why should the ends of the tourniquet be pointed away from the venipuncture site?

a)

To prevent the tourniquet from coming loose

b)

To include arterial flow

c)

To prevent the veins from rolling

d)

To avoid contaminating the skin at the blood draw site

51.

Blood drawn from a fingertip is taken from which type of blood vessel?

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

arteriole

d)

capillary

52.

How long should a venipuncture site be allowed to air dry after being cleansed with an antiseptic?

a)

15 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

2 minutes

53.

Which the following minor patients is not able to give informed consent?

a)

A 12-year-old with a broken arm

b)

A 17-year-old seeking treatment for sexually-transmitted infection

c)

A pregnant minor

d)

An emancipated minor

54.

Standard blood samples must be tested or centrifuged within:

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

12 hours

55.

What is a reason to reject a sample of cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

It was kept at room temperature.

b)

It contains clear fluid.

c)

It was collected over 24 hours ago.

d)

It is in a hematology tube.

56.

What is the needle insertion angle for drawing blood from superficial hand veins?

a)

10 degrees

b)

20 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

90 degrees

57.

A patient at a clinic becomes angry about the long wait to give a blood specimen. How should the phlebotomist react?

a)

Attempt to restrain the patient

b)

Speak loudly over the patient

c)

Remain calm and use a normal voice

d)

Call security

58.

What is the phlebotomist's responsibility during bone marrow collection?

a)

Perform a needle stick into the center of a large bone

b)

Clean the area where the needle will be inserted

c)

Mark the insertion site

d)

Place the aspirated material onto a slide with a fixative

59.

A blood sample is drawn into a purple topped evacuated tube with EDTA. Which of the following could the sample be used for?

a)

Basic metabolic panel

b)

Potassium level

c)

Complete blood count

d)

glucose

60.

When during venipuncture should the tourniquet be removed?

a)

When the draw is complete

b)

Before needle insertion

c)

Once bloodflow has been established

d)

After 10 seconds

61.

What is the liquid part of blood called?

a)

serum

b)

saline

c)

plasma

d)

interstitial fluid

62.

During venipuncture? The tourniquet should be tight enough to include ________ flow but not ________ flow.

a)

arterial; venous

b)

capillary; venous

c)

venous; arterial

d)

venous; capillary

63.

A phlebotomist check the refrigerator and which specimens are stored and finds that the temperature is 42°F (5.5°C). What is the first thing they should do?

a)

Inform their supervisor

b)

Move the specimens to another refrigerator

c)

Label the tubes with the current temperature of the refrigerator

d)

No action is required

64.

The common cold, influenza, and HIV are caused by which type of infectious agent?

a)

bacteria

b)

protozoa

c)

virus

d)

helminth

65.

The maximum amount of blood that can be safely drawn from a pediatric patient is primarily based on their:

a)

weight

b)

diet

c)

oxygen saturation

d)

pain tolerance

66.

Where is serous fluid found?

a)

In the pericardial cavity

b)

In the subarachnoid space

c)

In bone marrow

d)

In the colon

67.

The most common equipment used for pediatric phlebotomy is:

a)

An 18-gauge syringe

b)

A 21-gauge ETS

c)

A 23-gauge syringe

d)

A 23-gauge butterfly

68.

Why should the first evacuated tube drawn from a winged infusion system be discarded?

a)

Air in the tubing will cause the evacuated tube to underfill.

b)

Heparin in the tubing while contaminate the evacuated tube.

c)

The antiseptic used to clean the puncture site will contaminate the first tube.

d)

The flow of blood into the first tube analyzes the sample.

69.

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

a)

Plasma contains clotting factors and serum does not.

b)

Plasma is collected by venipuncture and serum is collected by skin puncture.

c)

Plasma can be collected anytime and serum is collected after fasting.

d)

Plasma has been centrifuged and serum has not been processed.

70.

Contact with which of the following substances does not require the use of standard precautions?

a)

blood

b)

urine

c)

sweat

d)

vomit

71.

Which of the following pediatric restraints is not age-appropriate?

a)

A 1-month old swaddled with one arm out of the blanket

b)

A 2-year-old sitting in a chair, with a parent in the room

c)

A four-year-old in the parents lap, facing the parent in a bear hug

d)

A 14-year-old sitting in a phlebotomy chair with the parent present

72.

Which of the following is a sign that a sample has been hemolyzed?

a)

The tube is cracked.

b)

The sample has casts in it.

c)

The stopper on the tube is loose.

d)

The serum is pink after centrifugation.

73.

What test is used to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection?

a)

Breathalyzer

b)

C-urea breath test

c)

Lumbar puncture

d)

Sputum culture

74.

A topical anesthetic can be applied prior to venipuncture beginning at what age?

a)

1 month

b)

6 months

c)

12 months

d)

24 months

75.

The following is an example of transmission of an infectious agent through direct contact?

a)

Kissing an infected person

b)

Inhaling droplets from the sneeze of an infected person

c)

Standing near an infected person who is coughing

d)

Eating contaminated food

76.

When should therapeutic drug monitoring trough levels be collected?

a)

Immediately before the drug is administered

b)

Immediately after the drug is administered

c)

One hour after the drug is administered

d)

Two hours after the drug is administered

77.

Platelets are essential for:

a)

fighting infections

b)

oxygen delivery

c)

destroying pathogens

d)

coagulation

78.

The first step for a patient to take when collecting a clean-catch urine sample?

a)

Wash their hands

b)

The first half of the urine into the toilet

c)

Put on gloves

d)

Clean the urinary meatus

79.

Geriatric vascular changes result in all of the following except:

a)

Decreased risk of hypertension

b)

Loss of elasticity of vessels

c)

Decrease blood flow from impaired peripheral circulation

d)

Narrowing of blood vessels

80.

Under CLIA, what is the term for simple laboratory test with a low risk for incorrect results that may be performed by anyone who follows the manufacturer's directions?

a)

Elementary tests

b)

Moderate complexity tests

c)

High complexity tests

d)

Waived tests

81.

A phlebotomist is questioning a patient through an interpreter. Who should questions be directed to?

a)

the interpreter

b)

the physician

c)

the patient's family

d)

the patient

82.

Person with blood type O has which of the following plasma antibodies?

a)

anti-A

b)

anti-B

c)

neither anti-A nor anti-B

d)

both anti-A and anti-B

83.

Performing phlebotomy on a patient with dementia, which of the following is not appropriate behavior by the phlebotomist?

a)

Talking quickly through their introduction to the patient

b)

Allowing extra time for the patient to respond

c)

Using simple, short statements

d)

Being calm and understanding if the patient is agitated or confused

84.

What color is the top of tubes used for blood bank specimens?

a)

pink

b)

red

c)

royal blue

d)

green

85.

Rh immune globulin (brand-name RhoGAM) is given to pregnant people who are Rh negative to prevent which of the following serious problems for the infant?

a)

Congenital heart defects

b)

Infection

c)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

d)

seizures

86.

A dipstick can be used in your analysis to test for all of the following except:

a)

pH level

b)

Red blood cells

c)

parasites

d)

glucose

87.

Which type of waste is not matched with its correct disposal container?

a)

Capillary tubes: sharps container

b)

Feces: toilet

c)

Gauze with small amount of blood colon regular garbage can

d)

Linen heavily soiled by blood: dirty linen receptacle

88.

What is included in a comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) that is not included in the basic metabolic panel (BMP)?

a)

Electrolyte level tests

b)

Glucose level tests

c)

Liver function tests

d)

Kidney function tests

89.

Prothrombin time (PT) is used to assess:

a)

Coagulation

b)

Liver function

c)

Kidney function

d)

Electrolyte tests

90.

Which precaution must a phlebotomist take when checking the blood pressure of an HIV positive patient?

a)

Wearing gloves

b)

Wearing a gown

c)

Using contact precautions

d)

Washing hands

91.

A crossmatch test checks for:

a)

The presence of bacteria in the blood

b)

The type of antibiotics that will treat a patient infection

c)

The compatibility of donor blood with recipient blood

d)

The average blood glucose level over the past three months

92.

Which of the following types of urine specimens as you specifically for diabetic screening?

a)

random

b)

Clean-catch midstream

c)

2-hour postprandial

d)

24-hour

93.

Following blood test checks for the average size of red blood cells?

a)

Erythrocyte count

b)

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

c)

Hematocrit

d)

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

94.

A localized dilation or a bulging in the wall of a blood vessel is also known as:

a)

an embolism

b)

a hemorrhoid

c)

an aneurysm

d)

a blood clot

95.

The phlebotomist has finished drawing blood and notes that the sharps container is full. What should they do?

a)

Exchange the full container for a new one

b)

Placed the syringe on top of the container so it will not roll off.

c)

Push the syringe into the container as well as it will fit.

d)

Put the syringe in their pocket and dispose of it in another room.

96.

Which of the following tests is not elevated with inflammation?

a)

White blood cell count (WBC)

b)

C-reactive protein (CRP)

c)

International normalized ratio (INR)

d)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

97.

Which of the following should a patient not do before a sputum culture?

a)

Use antibacterial mouthwash

b)

Use antibacterial hand soap

c)

Wear restrictive clothing

d)

Taken in antihistamine

98.

Pregnancy can be confirmed by testing for:

a)

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

b)

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

c)

C-reactive protein

d)

Cold agglutinins

99.

Which of the following statements is correct in terms of the order in which to put on or remove PPE?

a)

When removing PPE, gloves are removed last.

b)

When removing PPE, the mask is removed before the gown.

c)

When putting on PPE, gloves are put on before the mask

d)

When putting on PPE, the gown is put on last.

100.

A risk of drawing blood from the median cubital vein is possible damage to the:

a)

Radial artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Lateral cutaneous nerve

d)

Median nerve