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Complex Care Final (New Material)

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is reviewing the charts of several patients. Which of the following should she recognize as being at increased risk for rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply!

a)

A 35 y/o patient who smokes a pack a day

b)

A 45 y/o patient with coronary artery disease

c)

A 38 y/o patient with type 1 diabetes

d)

A female patient

e)

A male patient

2.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is suffering from an inflammatory disorder that affects non-weight bearing joints bilaterally and is characterized by periods of remission and flare ups. Currently the patient is experiencing symptoms in his shoulders, elbows, and wrists. What disorder is the nurse treating the patient for?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

d)

Osteoporosis

3.

True or False

Rheumatoid arthritis affects non-weight bearing joints and osteoarthritis affects weight bearing joints

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Name the stage of rheumatoid arthritis

Inflammation of synovial fluid (by cytokines) which breaks down collagen and causes edema

Stage 1 in picture

a)

Synovitis

b)

Pannus formation

c)

Ankylosis

5.

Name the stage of rheumatoid arthritis

Creation destroys cartilage and erodes into bone

Stage 2 in picture

a)

Synovitis

b)

Pannus formation

c)

Ankylosis

6.

Name the stage of rheumatoid arthritis

Fusion of joint with loss of ROM.

Stage 3 (fibrous) and 4 (bony) in picture

a)

Synovitis

b)

Pannus formation

c)

Ankylosis

7.

A nurse is providing care to a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? Select all that apply!

a)

Sunrise stiffness

b)

Soft, spongy feel of the joints

c)

Joint swelling

d)

Pain in the knee joint

8.

A nurse is providing care for a patient an notes a swan neck deformity of the thumb. Which of the following disorders is this patient suffering from?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

d)

Osteoporosis

9.

A nurse is elevating the lab valves of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following should the nurse anticipate being elevated? Select all that apply!

a)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

b)

C-reactive protein

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Platelets

10.

A nurse is treating a patient and suspects she may be suffering from RA. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipating the provider ordering? Select all that apply!

a)

ELISA test

b)

Anti-cyclic citrullinate peptide (anti-CCP) test

c)

Arthrocentesis

d)

TB test

e)

CAT scan

11.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with RA. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to control the patient's pain? Select all that apply!

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Methotrexate

e)

Golimumab

12.

A nurse is providing teaching to a patient with RA about naproxen. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply!

a)

"I will take my medication with a glass of milk"

b)

"I will monitor for symptoms of liver dysfunction"

c)

"I will take this medication with an antacid"

d)

"I will take this medication on an empty stomach"

e)

"I will remain standing for 30 minutes after taking this medication"

13.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with RA. Which of the following medications listed on the patient's MAR should the nurse recognize as being synthetic DMARDs? Select all that apply!

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Methotrexate

e)

Golimumab

14.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with RA. Which of the following medications listed on the patient's MAR should the nurse recognize as being biologic DMARDs? Select all that apply!

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Etanercep

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Methotrexate

e)

Golimumab

15.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking hydroxychloroquine for RA. Which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse report to the provider?

a)

Vision changes

b)

Jaundice

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Respiratory depression

16.

A nurse is educating a patient who is newly prescribed methotrexate for RA. Which of the following should the nurse include in her teaching?

a)

"You will be at increased risk for infection"

b)

"Report any vision changes to your provider. This medication can cause retinal damage"

c)

"You should take this medication right before you go to bed"

d)

"This medication may turn your stool dark"

17.

A nurse is checking a patient's chart prior to administering inflixamab. Which of the following notations would cause the nurse to hold the medication and notify the provider?

a)

Potassium 3.4 mEq/L

b)

Hemoglobin 10 mg/dL

c)

Sputum culture positive for acid-fast bacilli

d)

Allergy to bananas

18.

True or false

DMARDs do not stop pain but stop advance of RA. It may take several weeks to see effects, but the expected outcome is swelling will go down & joint damage will not progress to joint fusion AKA ankylosis

a)

True

b)

False

19.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is experiencing Sjogren’s syndrome as a complication of RA. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as manifestations of this complication? Select all that apply!

a)

Xerostoma

b)

Vaginal dryness

c)

Excessive salivation

d)

Butterfly rash

e)

Dry eyes

20.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with RA. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as complications of this disorder due to long-term soft tissue damage? Select all that apply!

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Heart failure

e)

Alzheimer's disease

21.

A nurse is educating a patient with RA on nonpharmacologic treatments for pain during flares. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply!

a)

"I should take a hot shower in the morning"

b)

"I should apply a warm wash cloth to the affected joint to help with swelling"

c)

"I can do paraffin wax treatment on my hands to help with mobility"

d)

"I should never splint the affected extremity"

22.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is suffering from an inflammatory disorder that affects multiple organ systems and is characterized by periods of remissions and flare ups. What disorder is the nurse treating the patient for?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

d)

Osteoporosis

23.

A nurse is treating at patient with SLE. Which of the following assessment findings is considered an indicator of exacerbation?

a)

Temp 100.9 F

b)

BP 138/88

c)

HR 98

d)

SaO2 96%

24.

Which of the following should the nurse recognize as being the earliest manifestation of SLE?

a)

Joint swelling

b)

Alopecia

c)

Butterfly rash

d)

Reynaud's phenomena

25.

A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected SLE. Which of the following assessment findings support this diagnosis? Select all that apply!

a)

Fatigue

b)

Hair loss

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Photosensitivity

e)

Bradycardia

26.

A nurse is treating a patient with suspected SLE. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate the provider ordering?

a)

Skin biopsy

b)

DEXA scan

c)

Cystoscopy

d)

Paracentesis

27.

A nurse is treating a patient with SLE. Which of the following lab values noted in the patient's chart confirm this diagnosis? Select all that apply!

a)

Presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)

b)

WBC 3,500

c)

Platelets 70,000

d)

RBC 2 million

e)

Calcium 8.0

28.

A nurse is caring for a patient with SLE. Which of the following medications should she anticipate administering?

a)

Belimumab

b)

Allopurinol

c)

Zyloprim

d)

Lamivudine

29.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with SLE who is prescribed belimumab. Which of the following medications should the nurse recognize as being contraindicated for this patient?

a)

Atropine

b)

Metformin

c)

MMR vaccine

d)

Zidovudine

30.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with SLE. The nurse notes a urinary output of 70 mL in 3 hours and edema. The provider orders blood work and a urinalysis. The patient's creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL and the urine was positive for protein. Which of the following conditions is the patient most likely sufferring from?

a)

Lupus nephritis

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Right sided heart failure

d)

Renal calculi

31.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with SLE. The patient is c/o constant chest pain that is increases with inspiration and feeling fever-ish. Upon auscultation, the nurse notes friction rub. Which of the following conditions is the patient most likely sufferring from?

a)

Lupus nephritis

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Left sided heart faliure

d)

Pulmonary embolism

32.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is suffering from a disorder caused by the lack of urinary excretion of uric acid causing it form into crystals and collect in the joints, espeically the big toe. What disorder is the nurse treating the patient for?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

d)

Gout

33.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has been diagnosed with gout. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect? Select all that apply!

a)

Extreme pain in joints (like pins and needles)

b)

Tophic (tophi) formation

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Rash

e)

Hypotension

34.

A nurse is evaluating the labs of a patient. Which of the following results place the patient at an increased risk for gout?

a)

Serum potassium 3.3 mEq/L

b)

Serum sodium 149 mEq/L

c)

Serum albumin 5.2 mg/dL

d)

Serum uric acid 8 mg/dL

35.

The nurse recognizes that which of the following is a complication of gout?

a)

Lupus nephritis

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Right sided heart failure

d)

Renal calculi

36.

A nurse is reviewing the MAR of patient with gout. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer if the patient is experiencing an acute attack? Select all that apply!

a)

Indomethacin

b)

Colchicine

c)

Prednisone

d)

Allopurinal

e)

Febixpstat

37.

A nurse is reviewing the MAR of patient with gout. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer to prevent an acute attack? Select all that apply!

a)

Indomethacin

b)

Colchicine

c)

Prednisone

d)

Allopurinal

e)

Febixpstat

38.

A nurse is reviewing the dietary restrictions of a patient with gout. Which of the following goods should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid? Select all that apply!

a)

Alcohol

b)

Green, leafy vegetables

c)

Shellfish

d)

Red meat

e)

Lentils

39.

A nurse is reviewing the MAR of a patient with gout. Which of the following medications listed should the nurse contact the provider to clarify? Select all that apply!

a)

Furosemide

b)

Aspirin

c)

Captopril

d)

Propranolol

40.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient with gout. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

a)

"I will avoid starvation diets"

b)

"I will decrease my fluid intake to 1 L per day"

c)

"I will take aspirin if I experience any pain"

d)

"My condition is caused by an excess of sodium in my body"

41.

A nurse is reviewing the charts of several patients. Which of the following should the nurse identify as being the most at risk for developing gout?

a)

A 56 year old male who reports consuming foods low in purines

b)

A 45 year old male with a BMI of 40 who reports taking hydrochlorothiazide and aspirin

c)

A 39 year old female hospitalized with bulimia that has a BMI of 24

d)

A 27 year old female with ulcerative colitis

42.

A 75 year old male is admitted for chronic renal injury. The nurse notes that the patient has white/yellowish nodules on the helix of the ear and fingers. The patient reports they are not painful. Which of the following should the nurse document this finding as?

a)

Nodosa

b)

Keloid

c)

Dermoid

d)

Tophi

43.

A patient is ordered by the physician to take allopurinol for treatment of gout. The nurse provided education to the patient about this medication. Which statement by the patient requires the nurse to re-educate the patient about this medication?

a)

“This medication will help relieve the inflammation and pain during an acute attack.”

b)

“It is important I have regular eye exams while taking this medication.”

c)

“I will not take large doses of vitamin C supplements while taking this medication.”

d)

“Allopurinol decreases the production of uric acid.”

44.

A student nurse is studying HIV. She recognizes that HIV is a virus that attacks which of the following cells of the immune system?

a)

CD4 cells

b)

B cells

c)

RBC

d)

Helper E cells

45.

A nurse is reviewing the charts of several patients at a clinic. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as being at increased risk for HIV? Select all that apply!

a)

A 22 y/o patient who admits to IV drug use

b)

A 18 y/o patient who admits to having multiple sex partners

c)

A 30 y/o patient with a mole with an irregular boarder

d)

A 28 y/o patient who is a nurse in the ED

46.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is an IV drug user and admits to needle sharing. Which of the following clinical manifestations would cause to the nurse to think this patient may have contracted HIV? Select all that apply!

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Lymphadenopathy

c)

Night sweats

d)

Weight gain

e)

Hypothermia

47.

Name the HIV test

Utilizes blood or oral fluids can be used in settings where a quick answer for the presence or absence of HIV antibodies is required, such as in health screening, occupational exposure, or labor and delivery.

Results are available in 5 to 30 minutes depending on the test used

No lab is required

a)

Rapid test

b)

ELISA

c)

HIV western blot

48.

Name the HIV test

HIV screening test

Requires a blood sample

The specimen must be sent to a laboratory for testing.

Results are available in 24 to 48 hours.

a)

Rapid test

b)

ELISA

c)

HIV western blot

49.

Name the HIV test

Performed after a patient has a positive screening

Confirms the presence of proteins unique to the HIV virus. If the proteins are absent, the person is not infected with HIV

a)

Rapid test

b)

ELISA

c)

HIV western blot

50.

A nurse is caring for a patient who suspected she may have come in contact with HIV. An ELISA test was performed and the results were negative. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

a)

"You will require an HIV western blot test to test for the presence of HIV-specific proteins"

b)

"Your results are negative and a confirmation test is not required. You should get another screening in 3-6 months to be safe"

c)

"I'm sorry, unfortunately you have been infected with the HIV virus"

d)

"You aren't infected this time, but next time you should be smarter"

51.

A nurse is reviewing the MAR of a patient who is infected with HIV. Which of the following medications should the nurse recognize as reverse transcriptase inhibitors? Select all that apply!

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Delavirdine

c)

Atazanavir

d)

Nelfinavir

e)

Saquinavir

52.

A nurse is reviewing the MAR of a patient who is infected with HIV. Which of the following medications should the nurse recognize as protease inhibitors ? Select all that apply!

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Delavirdine

c)

Atazanavir

d)

Nelfinavir

e)

Saquinavir

53.

A clinical instructor is teaching a student nurse about medications to treat HIV. Which of the following statements made by the student nurse indicates further teaching is required?

a)

"At risk patients can get a vaccine for HIV"

b)

"Pre-exposure prophylaxis medications can be given to patients who test negative for HIV, but are at risk"

c)

"Post-exposure prophylaxis can be given to patients who may have be exposed to HIV within the last 72 hours, such as victims of sexual assault"

d)

"Zidovudine is an example of an HIV medication"

54.

A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as an opportunistic infection common to people with immunosuppression?

a)

Pneumocyctisis jerovici

b)

Viral rhinitis

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Delirium tremens

55.

A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV and notes purple-ish lesions on the skin of his chest and face. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

a)

Pneumocyctisis jerovici

b)

Kaposi’s sarcoma

c)

Melanoma

d)

TB

56.

A patient with SLE is experiencing lupus nephritis. What are some signs and symptoms that correlate with this complication of SLE? Select all that apply!

a)

Decreased creatinine

b)

Increased BUN

c)

48 hour urinary output of 720 mL

d)

Proteinuria

e)

Edema in upper and lower extremities

57.

Which medication below used to treat SLE decreases inflammation quickly, is not for long-term usage, and can lead to weight gain, susceptibility to infection, diabetes, and osteoporosis?

a)

Hydroxychloroquine

b)

Prednisone

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Belimumab

58.

A nurse is providing education to a SLE support group about preventing flares. Which statement by a participant requires re-education about this topic?

a)

“Emotional stress and illness are triggers for a flare-up.”

b)

”I always wear large-brimmed hats and long sleeves when I’m outside.”

c)

“Exercise should be avoided due to the physical stress it causes on the body.”

d)

“I will make it priority to receive my yearly influenza vaccine"

59.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a hepatic disorder. Which of the following lab values is of the least importance for a nurse to monitor in a patient with this condition?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Clotting factors

c)

Potassium

d)

Albumin

60.

The nurse is responsible for preparing a client for upper and lower GI studies. Which of the

following is true is regarding preparations for these GI studies?

a)

A client is taught that after GI studies fluids will be encouraged

b)

They require that a client drinks lots of fluids the night before to cleanse the bowel

c)

There is usually no sedation needed for either of these studies

d)

Upper GI is always before lower GI

61.

The nurse examines a client in a community clinic. The nurse suspects the client has oral cancer as she states that she has which of the following?

a)

Sore of the floor of the mouth that refuses to heal and bleeds easily

b)

History of influenza

c)

Painless sore of the lips does not bleed easily

d)

History of herion abuse

62.

A nurse is caring for a client that will be having a radial neck dissection for oral cancer with metastasis to the lymph nodes. Which of the following would be important to include in preoperative teaching plan?

a)

You will be feed through a small opening called a PEG tube

b)

You will not have drains to care for

c)

You will be able to eat as soon as your gag reflex returns

d)

Most likely you will have a small tube in your throat called a trach

63.

A client is returning to your unit following a radical neck dissection. The priority care for the client is which of the following?

a)

Suction the client’s trach PRN

b)

Keep the client well hydrated with IV fluids to maintain a stable weight

c)

Prevent infection with frequent oral hygiene

d)

Administer O2 according to ABGs

64.

A nurse is caring for a client with stomatitis and xerostoma. Which of the following would be included in the nursing plan for this client?

a)

Increasing intake of enriched foods like carrots

b)

Encouraging intake of protein

c)

Increasing use of humidifiers

d)

Limiting fluid intake

65.

A nurse is monitoring a client post-radical neck dissection. The nurse is getting ready to start oral feeding for this client. Which of the following would be most reliable in determining peristaltic movement?

a)

Positive bowel sounds

b)

Patient report of hunger

c)

Absence of nausea

d)

Present gag reflex

66.

There are many different forms of hepatitis. The nurse needs to know the client's modes of transmission. Which of the following are spread by fecal oral transmission

a)

Hep A, B, C

b)

Hep A & B

c)

Hep A & E

d)

Hep C & E

67.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with cirrhosis. She is aware the biggest complication of cirrhosis is which of the following?

a)

Hepatic encephalology

b)

Ascities

c)

Coagulopathy

d)

Portal hypertension

68.

A nurse is caring for a client that has been admitted to the ER and is bleeding profusely from ruptured esophageal bleeding. The nurse knows she needs to prepare to assist with inserting which of the following to prevent hemorrhagic shock?

a)

Single lumen NG tube

b)

Central venous line

c)

Blakemore tube

d)

Indwelling urinary catheter

69.

There are many different forms of hepatitis. The nurse needs to know the client's modes of transmission. Which of the following are spread by blood and body fluid exposure?

a)

Hep A, B, C

b)

Hep A & B

c)

Hep A & E

d)

Hep B & C

70.

True or false

There is a vaccine to prevent Hep C

a)

True

b)

False

71.

A nurse is providing teaching to a group of patients on how to avoid contracting Hep A. Which of the following should the nurse include in her teaching?

a)

"Practice frequent and proper hand hygiene"

b)

"Avoid eating food that could be contaminated or is not properly washed"

c)

"Ensure you are up to date on your vaccinations"

d)

"Wear a condom during sexual intercourse"

72.

A nurse is providing teaching to a group of patients on how to avoid contracting Hep B. Which of the following should the nurse include in her teaching?

a)

"Always wear gloves when coming in contact with blood and dispose on contaminated objects in a proper biohazard bin"

b)

"Avoid eating food that could be contaminated or is not properly washed"

c)

"Ensure you are up to date on your vaccinations"

d)

"Wear a condom during sexual intercourse"

73.

A nurse is assessing a patient who never received their Hep B vaccinations. The nurse suspects they may now be infected with hepatitis. Which of the following assessment findings caused the nurse to suspect this condition? Select all that apply!

a)

Jaundice

b)

Abdominal pain

c)

Pruritus

d)

Steatorrhea

e)

Hyperactivity

74.

Which of the following is considered a normal lab value for ammonia?

a)

10-80 mg/dL

b)

3.5-5 mg/dL

c)

Less than 1 mg/dL

d)

10-20 mg/dL

75.

Which of the following is considered a normal lab value for bilirubin?

a)

10-80 mg/dL

b)

3.5-5 mg/dL

c)

Less than 1 mg/dL

d)

10-20 mg/dL

76.

A nurse is reviewing the lab values of a patient with cirrhosis. Which of the following should the nurse expect in a patient with this condition? Select all that apply!

a)

Albumin 3.0 mg/dL

b)

Ammonia 98 mg/dL

c)

Prolonged coagulation studies

d)

Decreased LFTs

e)

Bilirubin 4.5 mg/dL

77.

A nurse is providing education to a patient diagnosed with cirrhosis. Which of the following statements made by the patients indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

"I can have 1-2 drinks per week"

b)

"I should increase my dietary intake of vitamins"

c)

"I should consume small, frequent meals"

d)

"I should practice good basic skin hygiene to help with my pruritus"

78.

A nurse is preparing a patient with ascites from cirrhosis for a paracentesis. Which of the following should the nurse incorporate into her plan of care?

a)

Instruct the patient to void prior to the procedure

b)

Inform the patient that they will be sedated for the procedure

c)

Instruct the patient that they will be on bed rest for 24 hours following the procedure

d)

Check to make sure the patient doesn't have an allergy to shellfish

79.

A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis and notes the above picture. The nurse immediately notifies the provider as she recognizes this as which of the following?

a)

Grey-Turner sign

b)

Cullen sign

c)

Chadwick's sign

d)

Homen's sign

80.

A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis and notes the above picture. The nurse immediately notifies the provider as she recognizes this as which of the following?

a)

Grey-Turner sign

b)

Cullen sign

c)

Chadwick's sign

d)

Homen's sign

81.

A nurse is discussing the advantages and disadvantages of a TIPS procedure to a patient with cirrhosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? Select all that apply!

a)

"It will decrease the recurrence of ascites"

b)

"You are still at a high risk for encephalopathy"

c)

"It is a pretty inexpensive procedure"

d)

"The procedure increases sodium retention"

82.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with ascites from cirrhosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Lasix

c)

Vasopressin

d)

HCTZ

83.

A nurse is treating a patient with ruptured esophageal varices. In addition to IVF and whole blood, what other medication should the nurse anticipate administering? Select all that apply!

a)

Vasopressin

b)

Atropine

c)

Adenosine

d)

Metoprolol

e)

Octreotide

84.

A nurse is administering vasopressin to a patient. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Angina

b)

Dizziness

c)

Irritability

d)

Bradycardia

85.

A nurse is administering octreotide to a patient. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for? Select all that apply!

a)

Angina

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Irritability

d)

Double vision

e)

Abdominal cramping

86.

A nurse is treating a patient with cirrhosis who is experiencing hepatic encephalopathy and notes involuntary flapping of hands. Which of the following terms describes this clinical manifestation?

a)

Asterixis

b)

Constructional apraxia

c)

Fetor hepaticus

d)

Agnosia

87.

A nurse is treating a patient with cirrhosis who is experiencing hepatic encephalopathy and notes the inability to draw two/three dimensional figures. Which of the following terms describes this clinical manifestation?

a)

Asterixis

b)

Constructional apraxia

c)

Fetor hepaticus

d)

Agnosia

88.

A nurse is treating a patient with cirrhosis who is experiencing hepatic encephalopathy and notes the patient's breath smells like fecal material. Which of the following terms describes this clinical manifestation?

a)

Asterixis

b)

Constructional apraxia

c)

Fetor hepaticus

d)

Agnosia

89.

A nurse is administering lactulose to a patient with excess ammonia due to liver disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Dilute in fruit juice

b)

Administer with a glass of milk

c)

Monitor for constipation as a sign of toxicity

d)

Expect 2-3 formed soft stools weekly

90.

A nurse is administering lactulose to a patient with excess ammonia due to liver disease. Which of the following findings indicates lactulose toxicity?

a)

Watery diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Vision changes

d)

Absent bowel sound

91.

A nurse is treating a patient who is experiencing a gall bladder attack. Which of the following foods should the patient remove from his diet? Select all that apply!

a)

Beans

b)

Cream

c)

Fried chicken

d)

Cream cheese

e)

Salmon

92.

A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who is postop from a cholecystectomy. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates further teaching is required?

a)

"I resume light exercise such as walking to help with the gas"

b)

"I should avoid lifting objects for 48 hours"

c)

"I can take a shower or bath in 1-2 days"

d)

"I should check my would daily"

93.

A nurse is assessing a patient with a burn. The nurse notes a reddened area with no edema the skin blanches with pressure and doesn't separate when rubbed. What type of burn should the nurse document?

a)

Superficial (first degree)

b)

Superficial partial thickness (second degree)

c)

Deep partial thickness (third degree)

d)

Full thickness (fourth degree)

94.

A nurse is assessing a patient with a burn that involves the epidermis and a portion of the dermis. The nurse notes edema, blistering, and mottling. The patient rates her pain as a 10/10. What type of burn should the nurse document?

a)

Superficial (first degree)

b)

Superficial partial thickness (second degree)

c)

Deep partial thickness (third degree)

d)

Full thickness (fourth degree)

95.

A nurse is assessing a patient with a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue. The nurse notes edema, lack of hair, and coagulated blood vessels. The patient rates her pain as a 0/10. What type of burn should the nurse document?

a)

Superficial (first degree)

b)

Superficial partial thickness (second degree)

c)

Deep partial thickness (third degree)

d)

Full thickness (fourth degree)

96.

A nurse is assessing a patient with a burn that involves the deep tissue, muscle and bone. The nurse notes black, charred skin. What type of burn should the nurse document?

a)

Superficial (first degree)

b)

Superficial partial thickness (second degree)

c)

Deep partial thickness (third degree)

d)

Full thickness (fourth degree)

97.

A nurse is providing care to a patient with a burn. Which type of shock should the patient be most concerned about?

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Neurologic

d)

Septic

98.

A 68 year old male patient has partial thickness burns to the front and back of the right and left leg, front of right arm, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

a)

58.5%

b)

40.5%

c)

49.5%

d)

67.5%

99.

A 35 year old male patient has full thickness burns to the anterior and posterior head and neck, front of left leg, and perineum. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

a)

19%

b)

10%

c)

37.5%

d)

29%

100.

A 58 year old female patient has superficial partial-thickness burns to the anterior head and neck, front and back of the left arm, front of the right arm, posterior trunk, front and back of the right leg, and back of the left leg. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

a)

63%

b)

81%

c)

72%

d)

54%

101.

A nurse is arriving to a scene as a first responder in which a patient suffered a severe electrical burn. Which of the folloiwng actions should be taken first?

a)

Make sure power source has been removed or eliminated

b)

Establish the patient's airway

c)

Assess the extent of the burns

d)

Begin fluid replacement

102.

A nurse is providing care to a patient with circumferential neck and chest burns. Which of the following actions is priority?

a)

Assess the patient's airway and prepare for ETT insertion and mechanical ventillation

b)

Placing an NG tube

c)

Administering O2 based on the patient's ABGs

d)

Determining fluid resusitation amount

103.

As the nurse providing care to a patient who experienced a full-thickness electrical burn you know to monitor the patient’s urine for which of the following?

a)

Hemoglobin and myoglobin

b)

Free iron and white blood cells

c)

Protein and red blood cells

d)

Potassium and urea

104.

A nurse on a burn unit is providing care for several patients. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as being the most at risk for serious complications?

a)

A 42 year old male with partial-thickness burns on the front of the right and left arms and legs

b)

A 25 year old female with partial-thickness burns on the front of the head and neck and front and back of the torso

c)

A 36 year old male with full-thickness burns on the front of the left arm

d)

A 10 year old with superficial burns on the right leg

105.

A 30 year old female patient has deep partial thickness burns on the front and back of the right and left leg, front of right arm, and anterior trunk. The patient weighs 63 kg. Using the Parkland Burn Formula, what is the flow rate during the first 8 hours in mL/hr?

a)

921 mL/hr

b)

938 mL/hr

c)

158 mL/hr

d)

789 mL/hr

106.

The nurse notes a patient has full-thickness circumferential burns on the right leg. The nurse would incorporate which of the following in the patient's plan of care? Select all that apply!

a)

Place cold compressions on the burn and elevate the right leg below the heart level

b)

Assess the distal pulses in the right extremity

c)

Elevate the right leg above the heart level

d)

Place gauze tightly around the leg to prevent infection

107.

A patient arrives to the ED with full-thickness burns on the front and back of the torso and neck. The patient has no spinal injuries but is disoriented and coughing up black sooty sputum. Vital signs are: SaO2 63%, HR 145, BP 80/56, and HR 39. The nurse should perform which of the following actions? Select all that apply!

a)

Place the patient in High Fowler’s

b)

Prep the patient for intubation

c)

Obtain IV access at two sites

d)

Prep the patient for escharotomy

e)

Place a pillow under the patient’s neck

108.

A patient arrives to the ER due to experiencing burns while in an enclosed warehouse. Which assessment findings below demonstrate the patient may have experienced an inhalation injury? Select all that apply!

a)

Carbonaceous sputum

b)

Hair singeing on the head and nose

c)

Hoarse voice

d)

Bradycardia

e)

Bright red lips

109.

A nurse is providing education to a group of local firefighters about carbon monoxide poisoning. Which statement is correct about the pathophysiology regarding this condition?

a)

“Patients are most likely to present with cyanosis around the lips and face.”

b)

“In this condition, carbon monoxide binds to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell leading to a decrease in the ability of the hemoglobin to carry oxygen to the body.”

c)

“Carbon monoxide poisoning leads to a hyperoxygenated state, which causes hypercapnia.”

d)

“Carbon monoxide binds to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell and prevents the transport of carbon dioxide out of the blood, which leads to poisoning.”

110.

A patient is receiving IV LR 950 mL/hr 18 hours after a receiving a severe burn. The patient urinary output is 20 mL/hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

a)

Increase the IV fluids

b)

Continue to monitor the patient

c)

Decrease the IV fluids

d)

Notify the provider

111.

A nurse is providing treatment to a patient who has experienced a severe burn. Which of the following diets should this patient be prescribed?

a)

High fiber, low calories, and low protein

b)

High calorie, high protein and carbohydrate

c)

High potassium, high carbohydrate, and low protein

d)

Low sodium, high protein, and restrict fluids to 1 liter per day

112.

A nurse is assisting a AP with repositioning a patient with full-thickness burns on the neck. Which action by the AP requires you to intervene?

a)

The AP elevates the head of the bed above 30 degrees

b)

The AP places a pillow under the patient’s head

c)

The AP places rolled towels under the patient’s shoulders

d)

The AP covers the patient with sterile linens

113.

A patient has an emergency escharotomy performed on the right leg. The patient has full-thickness circumferential burns on the leg. Which finding below demonstrates the procedure was successful?

a)

The patient can move the extremity

b)

The right foot’s capillary refill is less than 2 seconds

c)

The patient reports a new sensation of extreme pain

d)

The patient has a positive Babinski reflex

114.

While collecting a medical history on a patient who experienced a severe burn, which statement by the patient’s family member requires nursing intervention?

a)

“He takes medication for glaucoma”

b)

“I think it has been 10 years or more since he had a tetanus shot.”

c)

“He was told he had COPD last year.”

d)

“He smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day.”

115.

A patient is presenting with bright red lips, headache, and nausea. The physician suspects carbon monoxide poisoning. Which of the following treatments should the nurse expect to administer?

a)

Oxygen nasal cannula 5-6 Liters

b)

100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask

c)

Continuous BiPAP

d)

Venturi mask 6 L oxygen

116.

A nurse is providing care to a patient requires fluid replacement after a several burn. What type of device should the nurse anticipate assisting the provider in placing?

a)

Arterial line

b)

Blakemore tube

c)

PEG tube

d)

IV line

117.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with severe burns. Which of the following lab values should the nurse report the provider as the most dangerous to the patient?

a)

Potassium 7.8 mEq/L

b)

Sodium 133 mq/L

c)

Albumin 3.4 mg/dL

d)

Hematocrit 58%

118.

A 18 year old male patient has burns cover 19% of his body. The patient weighs 220 lbs. Using the Parkland Burn Formula, what is the total amount of fluids that should be given in 24 hours?

a)

7,600 mL

b)

16,720 mL

c)

3,800 mL

d)

8,360 mL

119.

A 55 y/o patient experience partial thickness burns over 63% of her body from a house fire at 1700. The patient arrives to the ED at 2100 and weighs 186 lbs. Using the Parkland Burn Formula, what is the flow rate during the first 8 hours in mL/hr? Round to the nearest whole number.

a)

2,663 mL/hr

b)

1,332 mL/hr

c)

1,558 mL/hr

d)

2,930 mL/hr