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Astro C10 Review

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where do the elements heavier than hydrogen and helium come from?

a)

Stars and Supernovae

b)

Black Holes

c)

Big Bang

d)

Chemical Reactions

2.

What kind of spectrum would a gas cloud have, given that there is a star nearby but not along the line of sight?

a)

Emission

b)

Absorption

c)

Continuous

d)

Absorption and Continuous

3.

What spectral type of star corresponds to the hottest temperature?

a)

O

b)

B

c)

L

d)

M

4.

The process by which a photon's energy is given to an electron and the electron changes from one energy level to another.

a)

Ionization

b)

Recombination

c)

Emission

d)

Absorption

5.

What is the ratio of total luminosity between Star A and Star B, where Star A has a peak wavelength of 750 nm while Star B has a peak wavelength of 500 nm and has a radius that is 4x smaller?

a)

Star A is 81x brighter

b)

Star A is 256/81x brighter

c)

Star B is 256/81x brighter

d)

Star B is 81x brighter

6.

A blackbody that is a hotter temperature than another blackbody will produce...

a)

More blue light, less red light

b)

More red light, less blue light

c)

More light at all wavelengths

d)

Less light at all wavelengths

7.

True or False: A photon's speed is dependent on its wavelength in a vacuum

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What is believed to be the cause of inflation?

a)

The universe was 'supercooled' and the energy needed to go somewhere

b)

An excess of dark energy in the early universe

c)

Gravity was significantly weaker in the past

d)

Quantum fluctuations

9.

Which of the following moon phases are NOT able to be observed at sunrise?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waxing Crescent

10.

You observe during a solar eclipse that the positions of stars near the Sun is not quite the same when they are not near the Sun. This is because of...

a)

Newton's Gravity

b)

Einstein's General Relativity

c)

Quantum Mechnanics

d)

Big Bang Theory

11.

True or False: A lunar eclipse is when the Earth's shadow perfectly covers the moon

a)

True

b)

False

12.

What is the underlying principle of Kepler's 2nd Law?

a)

Conservation of Angular Momentum

b)

Conservation of Energy

c)

Equal and Opposite Forces

d)

An object in motion will stay in motion unless acted upon by a force

13.

What is the largest scale over which cosmological expansion is not important?

a)

Solar System

b)

Galaxy

c)

Galaxy Clusters

d)

Cosmological Superstructure (i.e filaments)

14.

A telescope's light collecting power is proportional to its...

a)

Length

b)

Area

c)

Volume

15.

Why does the moon rotate at the same rate as it orbits around the Earth?

a)

It happened by coincidence, just like the ability to have eclipses

b)

The closer side of the moon is pulled stronger so the Earth does not let it rotate

c)

It prevents the moon from distorting and expending energy

d)

Interaction with material around Earth has slowed the moon's rotation

16.

Which of the following is evidence for the Big Bang Theory?

a)

Flatness of the universe

b)

Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation

c)

Homogeneity of the universe

d)

Lack of magnetic monopoles

17.

True or False: If a planet did not rotate, it would still experience seasons

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which of the following is not a reason that inflation must be invoked?

a)

Lack of magnetic monopoles

b)

Flatness of the universe

c)

Size of the observable universe

d)

Homogeneity of the universe

19.

What is the key property of Venus that generates the greenhouse effect?

a)

Volcanic and geothermal activity build up heat

b)

What little visible light that makes it in is re-radiated as infrared, which is trapped

c)

A large amount of infrared light from the Sun due to its proximity heats the surface

d)

Venus is able to gravitationally hold on to heat and trap it

20.

Why are there no gas giants close to the Sun?

a)

There are significantly more rocks/metals nearby to the Sun, making it much less likely to form non-terrestrial planets

b)

The gravitational pull of a massive gas giant would cause it to collide with the Sun

c)

There is not a substantial amount of gas close to the Sun from which a gas giant could form

d)

Farther out it is colder and so easier to attract 'snow balls' and then go on to attract gas

21.

How do we resolve Olber's Paradox?

a)

Stars were less bright in the past

b)

Cosmic dust blocks increasingly more of the light from more distant stars

c)

The age of the universe is finite

d)

We observe the universe to be closed

22.

Given an observed parallax of 2 arcseconds for Star A and 0.5 arcseconds for Star B, if we know that Star A and B are the same temperature yet they appear equally bright what must be the ratio of their radii?

a)

Star B is 2x larger

b)

Star B is 4x larger

c)

Star A is 4x larger

d)

Star A is 2x larger

23.

True or False: As a star in a star cluster ages, it moves up the Main Sequence of the Hertzsprung-Russell (temperature-luminosity) diagram until it reaches the “turnoff point,” which represents the age of the cluster.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Why does measuring the Doppler Wobble give a minimum exoplanet mass?

a)

The Doppler Wobble tells us the star's mass, and an exoplanet must be at least a certain fraction of the star's mass

b)

It is expected that exoplanets are actually heavier than what current theory predicts

c)

The amount of wobble in our line of sight depends on the angle of orbit

d)

We can only ever observe part of the exoplanet, so we know we are not getting the whole exoplanet

25.

Why are Type Ia supernova believed to be about the same across the universe?

a)

They occur under the same conditions

b)

All stars undergo a Type Ia supernova

c)

Type Ia supernova all occur at approximately the same distance from Earth

d)

It is a consequence of General Relativity

26.

Why have Saturn's rings not formed a moon?

a)

The rings are within the Roche Limit

b)

There is an insuffcient amount of material to form a moon

c)

When proto-moons form, they collide with each other and disintegrate

d)

The rings are made of ice which does not stick together well

27.

A star is defined to be on the Main Sequence when...

a)

Its luminosity and temperature do not vary much with time

b)

It is fusing hydrogen anywhere

c)

It has a predicatble luminosity

d)

It is fusing hydrogen in its core

28.

What is chromatic aberration?

a)

When different colored photons are focused at different points in a telescope

b)

The color observed is different than the true color emitted

c)

When a particular range of wavelengths are unintentionally removed

d)

When a particular range of wavelengths are unintentionally added

29.

A stellar cluster is observed to contain O, G, K, and M stars. Which conclusion would be valid?

a)

There was a recent burst of star formation

b)

The cluster is approximately a million years old (based on turnoff point of B Type)

c)

The stellar cluster must be part of a globular cluster

d)

The stars in this cluster are all the same age

30.

The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle states that it is impossible to...

a)

Know for certain the energy and timespan of something

b)

Know for certain the luminosity and temperature of a star

c)

Know for certain the existence of 'virtual particles'

d)

Know for certain the distance to an object and its luminosity

31.

Which of these is not a type of galaxy?

a)

Spiral

b)

Irregular

c)

Elliptical

d)

Globular

32.

What is a planetary nebula?

a)

The birthplace of planets

b)

Expanding outer atmosphere from previous red giant

c)

A cloud on an exoplanet

d)

An exoplanet candidate (not sure if it truly is an exoplanet)

33.

Which of the following is NOT a method of detecting a black hole?

a)

Tracking the motions of stars around an invisible object

b)

Measuring the speeds of gas around an invisible object

c)

Observing a gravitational wave signal from massive objects

d)

Observing a low mass star vanish suddenly

34.

What is a key difference between an emission nebula and a dark nebula?

a)

There are massive stars nearby that ionize the emission nebula then recombination causes the nebula to glow

b)

Dark nebula are considered blackbodies while emission nebula only have emission lines

c)

Dark nebula are made from dark matter while emission nebula are made from regular matter

d)

All light emitted by a dark nebula is absorbed by something inbetween us and the nebula

35.

Which of the following universe would result in a 'Big Crunch' ?

a)

ΩM<0\Omega_M<0  

b)

0<ΩM<10<\Omega_M<1  

c)

ΩM=1\Omega_M=1  

d)

ΩM>1\Omega_M>1  

36.

Order the following for the transition to red giant:

1. The core contracts

2. The envelope heats up and swells

3. Hydrogen runs out in the core

4. Inward gravity balances outward pressure in hydrostatic equilibrium

5. The surface temperature decreases

6. The core heats up and begins helium fusion (if massive enough)

a)

3, 1, 4, 6, 2, 5

b)

4, 3, 5, 1, 6, 2

c)

4, 3, 1, 6, 2, 5

d)

4, 6, 1, 2, 5, 3

37.

Which of the following is NOT a way that we measure the Hubble Constant?

a)

Gravitational Wave Sources

b)

Type Ia supernova

c)

Cosmic Microwave Background Modeling

d)

Comparing Parallax and Redshift

38.

White dwarfs are the result of...

a)

Type Ia supernova

b)

Core Collapse supernova

c)

Endpoints of stars < 8 solar masses

d)

Merger between two compact objects (i.e neutron stars)

39.

Which one of the following is NOT a possible homogeneous, isotropic, expanding universe according to Einstein’s general theory of relativity? (Assume there is no dark energy.)

a)

A “flat” universe in which the laws of Euclidean geometry are satisfied

b)

A “closed” universe in which there is no such thing as parallel lines

c)

A “closed” universe that will expand forever

d)

An “open” universe whose volume is infinite, and has been infinite since the beginning of time

40.

Dark Matter comprises approximately what percent of the universe?

a)

5%

b)

25%

c)

30%

d)

70%

41.

A white dwarf can be physically described as...

a)

A star that partially collapsed on itself and therefore grew to extreme temperatures

b)

The exposed, hot core of a star originally < 8 solar masses typically made of carbon and oxygen

c)

A star that is of a similar temperature to our Sun (and therefore 'white')

d)

The opposite of a black hole, it emits large quantities of light

42.

By what factor did the universe expand during inflation?

a)

A billion times

b)

A trillion times

c)

101010^{10}  

d)

Unknown

43.

True or False: Dark matter is composed of the anti-matter

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following could be a consequence if the physical parameters were slightly different (not as 'fine tuned') than they are today?

a)

Increase in electron charge - Descriptions of black holes must be described with an additional quantity as per 'no hair'

b)

Decrease in the speed of light - The observable universe would be much larger

c)

Increase in the gravitational constant - More gas giants, and they form farther in

d)

Decrease in the mass of a proton - Energy levels of electrons would shift

45.

How are white dwarfs supported?

a)

Nuclear Fusion

b)

Electron Degeneracy Pressure

c)

By Snow White and the six other dwarfs

d)

Electric Repulsion